Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings 3rd Edition Goolsby Grubbs- Test Bank

$20.00

Description

INSTANT DOWNLOAD WITH ANSWERS

Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings 3rd Edition Goolsby Grubbs- Test Bank

Chapter 6. Ear, Nose, Mouth, and Throat

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____       1.   Upon physical examination of a 1-year-old patient, you note abnormal placement of the ears, hypertelorism, and strabismus. These are often signs of:

A. Genetic conditions
B. Deafness
C. Birth injury
D. Physical abuse

 

 

____       2.   An 86-year-old patient who wears a hearing aid complains of poor hearing in the affected ear. In addition to possible hearing aid malfunction, this condition is often due to:

A. Acoustic neuroma
B. Cerumen impaction
C. Otitis media
D. Ménière’s disease

 

 

____       3.   A patient presents to the emergency department due to head trauma related to a motorcycle accident. On physical examination, you note clear, serous discharge from the ear. This is commonly a sign of:

A. Basilar skull fracture
B. Injury of the auricle
C. Otitis discharge
D. Tympanic membrane perforation

 

 

____       4.   A pneumatic otoscopic examination is used to assess:

A. Inner ear conditions
B. Otitis externa
C. Cerumen impaction
D. Tympanic membrane mobility

 

 

____       5.   In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:

A. Bacterial sinusitis
B. Allergic rhinitis
C. Drug abuse
D. Skull fracture

 

 

____       6.   With inspection of the mouth and buccal mucosa, Stensen’s duct can be seen on the:

A. Underside of the tongue
B. Buccal mucosa opposite the lower molars
C. Buccal mucosa opposite the upper molars
D. Soft palate

 

 

____       7.   To examine if there is an intact gag reflex, ask the patient to say “ah” as you observe the:

A. Movement of the uvula to the left
B. Movement of uvula to the right
C. Tongue extension in the midline
D. Upward movement of the uvula in the midline

 

 

____       8.   Malignant oral cancerous lesions are most frequently located on the:

A. Tongue
B. Tonsils
C. Gums
D. Hard palate

 

 

____       9.   Ear pain related to tenderness over the auricle and ear canal is most commonly related to:

A. Excessive exposure to noise
B. Cerumen impaction
C. Otitis externa
D. Ménière’s disease

 

 

____     10.   A 6-year-old child presents with complaints of unilateral ear pain, fever, and sore throat. The clinician should recognize that this is most commonly due to:

A. Otitis externa
B. Inner ear infection
C. Sinusitis
D. Otitis media

 

 

____     11.   Which of the following symptoms is common with acute otitis media?

A. Bulging tympanic membrane
B. Bright light reflex of tympanic membrane
C. Increased tympanic membrane mobility
D. All of the above

 

 

____     12.   Which of the following microorganisms commonly causes otitis externa?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Pseudomonas
C. Moraxella catarrhalis
D. Haemophilus influenza

 

 

____     13.   A 5-year-old patient with a history of chronic otitis media complains of severe unilateral ear pain that worsens at night. The pain has progressively worsened over the past 3 days. Your examination reveals tenderness, erythema, and swelling below the right ear, and diminished hearing on the right. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

A. Sinus infection
B. Skull fracture
C. Mastoiditis
D. Foreign body

 

 

____     14.   Presbycusis is the hearing impairment that is associated with:

A. Physiologic aging
B. Ménière’s disease
C. Cerumen impaction
D. Herpes zoster

 

 

____     15.   A nonmalignant cancerous tumor affecting cranial nerve VIII that causes unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo is:

A. Otosclerosis
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Cholesteatoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma

 

 

____     16.   Epistaxis can be a symptom of:

A. Over-anticoagulation
B. Hematologic malignancy
C. Cocaine abuse
D. All of the above

 

 

____     17.   Nasal discharge of green-yellow mucus, pharyngitis, and otitis media commonly indicate:

A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Viral infection
C. Bacterial infection
D. Nasal polyps

 

 

____     18.   The following disorder commonly presents with vesicular or ulcerated lesions with a yellow base on the oral mucosa and lips.

A. Aphthous ulcer
B. Herpes simplex I
C. Coxsackie viral infection
D. All of the above

 

 

____     19.   Hand-foot-and mouth disease often causes vesicular lesions on the palms, soles of the feet, and oral mucosa. The microorganism that causes this disease is:

A. Herpes zoster
B. Herpes simplex I
C. Coxsackie virus
D. Candida

 

 

____     20.   Thrush occurs as white patches surrounded by erythematous tissue in oral mucosa. The microorganism that causes this is:

A. Candida
B. Herpes simplex I
C. Coxsackie virus
D. Herpes zoster

 

 

____     21.   A condition that presents as painless, raised white patches on the oral mucosa that predisposes to squamous cell carcinoma is:

A. Candida
B. Lichen planus
C. Coxsackie virus
D. Leukoplakia

 

 

____     22.   Your patient has been using chewing tobacco for 10 years. On physical examination, you observe a white ulceration surrounded by erythematous base on the side of his tongue. The clinician should recognize that very often this is:

A. Malignant melanoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Aphthous ulceration
D. Behcet’s syndrome

 

 

____     23.   A patient complains of fever, fatigue, and pharyngitis. On physical examination there is pronounced cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be considered?

A. Mono spot
B. Strep test
C. Throat culture
D. All of the above

 

 

____     24.   Rheumatic heart disease is a complication that can arise from which type of infection?

A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Diptheria
C. Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

 

 

____     25.   Which microorganism is the most common cause of tonsillitis in adolescents?

A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Mycoplasma
D. Grp A beta hemolytic streptococcus

 

 

____     26.   Which microorganism is the most common cause of peritonsillar abscess?

A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Mycoplasma
D. Grp A beta hemolytic streptococcus

 

 

____     27.   Which of the following conditions can cause upper airway obstruction?

A. Behcet’s syndrome
B. Influenza
C. Epiglottitis
D. Thrush

 

 

____     28.   Your patient is a 78-year-old female with a smoking history of 120-pack years. She complains of hoarseness that has developed over the last few months. It is important to exclude the possibility of:

A. Thrush
B. Laryngeal cancer
C. Carotidynia
D. Thyroiditis

 

 

____     29.   A 26-year-old female who gave birth 1 month ago presents with sudden development of fever, neck pain, sore throat with dysphagia, and radiation of pain to the ear. Which of the following conditions is most important to consider?

A. Diptheria
B. Epiglottitis
C. Thyroiditis
D. Otitis media

 

Chapter 6. Ear, Nose, Mouth, and Throat

Answer Section

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. ANS:   A

Facial dysmorphism often indicates a genetic disorder. These features include microcephaly, brachycephaly, hypertelorism, upslanting palpebral fissures, strabismus, broad nasal bridge, wide anterior fontanalle, anteverted nares, high arched palate, microretrognathia, low-set dysmorphic ears, and short neck.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Elderly clients frequently present with complaints of hardened cerumen and decreased hearing resulting from cerumen impaction aggravated by hearing aid wear.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

In cases of head trauma, there are signs of skull fracture. These signs include cerebrospinal fluid otorrhea, rhinorrhea, and raccoon eyes.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Pneumatic otoscopy is an examination that allows determination of the mobility of a patient’s tympanic membrane (TM). The normal tympanic membrane moves in response to a puff of air pressure from the otoscope. Immobility may be due to fluid in the middle ear, a perforation, or tympanosclerosis, among other reasons. The detection of middle ear effusion by pneumatic otoscopy is key in establishing the diagnosis of otitis media with effusion. The inner ear is not visible with an otoscope. Cerumen impaction will impede function of the pneumatic otoscope. Otitis externa is an external ear infection that is diagnosed without the use of an otoscope.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

When examining the nose, assess the mucosa for integrity, color, moistness, and edema/lesions and the nasal septum for patency. The turbinates should be assessed for color and size. Pale, boggy turbinates suggest allergies; erythematous, swollen turbinates are often seen with infection. Any discharge should be noted. Clear, profuse discharge is often associated with allergies.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

In examination of the mouth, use a tongue depressor to displace the lips and cheeks. Inspect areas of the buccal mucosa that are not otherwise visible, including the sites of the Stensen’s and Wharton’s ducts. Stenson’s duct of the parotid gland, which releases saliva, is located on the upper buccal mucosa opposite the molars.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Within the oropharynx, upward movement of the uvula within the midline when the patient says “ah” is indicative of an intact gag reflex.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

There are several types of oral cancers, but around 90% are squamous cell carcinomas, originating in the tissues that line the mouth and lips. Oral or mouth cancer most commonly involves the tongue.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Ear pain is most often seen in children and is usually associated with bacterial or viral upper respiratory infection. Complaints of ear pain in the summer are often associated with otitis externa (OE), owing to swimmer’s ear. Complaints of primary ear pain decline with age and, in adults, are more likely associated with secondary conditions, such as sinus infection; dental disease; malignancy; other disorders of the head, face, and neck; and nervous and vascular symptoms.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Acute otitis media (AOM) involves infection of the fluid in the middle ear space. The three bacterial organisms most often associated with AOM include streptococcal pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. The patient often complains of unilateral ear pain, which may radiate to the neck or jaw. There is commonly a current or recent history of symptoms consistent with an upper respiratory infection.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

In otitis media (middle ear infection), the tympanic membrane (TM) is typically dull, may be inflamed, and bulges so that the posterior landmarks are obscured. The light reflex is distorted or obscured. If myringitis (inflammation of the TM) is present, the TM is reddened. Purulent or yellow fluid may be evident posterior to the TM, with diminished TM mobility.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Otitis externa (OE) is inflammation of the ear canal and outer ear. Frequent causes include pseudomonas and fungal organisms. It is frequently associated with swimming as well as trauma. Acute otitis media (AOM) involves infection of the fluid in the middle ear space. The three bacterial organisms most often associated with AOM include streptococcal pneumonia, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Frequently, viral organisms coexist with one of the preceding bacterial causes.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Mastoiditis refers to infection of the mastoid bone, which is almost always a complication of acute otitis media (AOM). The patient complains of radiating ear pain and fever. The pain is persistent (for days to weeks), severe, deep, and often worst at night. The hearing on the affected site is usually significantly diminished. As the condition progresses, there is swelling, erythema, and tenderness over the mastoid bone.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

Presbycusis is an age-related cause of gradual sensorineural hearing loss and involves diminished hairy cell function within the cochlea as well as decreased elasticity of the TM. Although the changes associated with presbycusis often start in early adulthood, the decreased hearing acuity is usually not noticed until the individual is older than 65.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

With an acoustic neuroma, the onset of symptoms usually occurs after age 30. Early complaints include unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. As the tumor advances, symptoms may include headache, facial pain, ataxia, nausea/vomiting, and lethargy. The ear structures appear normal. Cholesteatoma is not a cancer; it is a destructive and expanding growth consisting of keratinizing in the middle ear and/or mastoid process. The growth erodes the ossicles and can spread through the base of the skull into the brain. Otosclerosis involves degenerative changes to the bony structures of the middle ear and results in gradual onset of hearing deficit as the bones lose their vibratory ability. The patient typically complains of painless, progressive changes in hearing. Symptoms are usually bilateral, and tinnitus may be present. The physical examination is usually normal, with the exception of the hearing acuity test.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Cocaine abuse, which is more common than might be expected, frequently causes epistaxis. Hematologic disorders likely to cause bleeding include thrombocytopenia, leukemia, aplastic anemia, and hereditary coagulopathies. High doses of anticoagulants can cause epistaxis and bleeding from the gums.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Nasal discharge should be assessed for its amount and color as well as any associated symptoms. Clear, profuse discharge is allergic in nature; yellow-green purulent discharge indicates bacterial infection.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

Aphthous ulcers are painful and usually small (less than 1 cm). The ulcer is shallow, surrounded by erythema and mild edema. The base of the ulcer is pale yellow or gray. Orolabial ulcers are often caused by herpes simplex type 1 virus. The ulcers are typically preceded by a prodromal phase of tenderness, followed by edema at the site where an individual or cluster of vesicles forms and progresses to ulceration. The prodromal phase may also include fever. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is caused by a coxsackievirus. Painful skin and oral lesions are often preceded by a period of malaise and fever. The patient often presents once the lesions appear on the lips and/or oral mucosa. The lesions erupt as vesicles, which later ulcerate.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is caused by a coxsackie virus. Outbreaks are most common in the summer and fall months. The condition is occasionally associated with meningitis. Painful skin and oral lesions are often preceded by a period of malaise and fever. The patient often presents once the lesions appear on the lips and/or oral mucosa. The lesions erupt as vesicles, which later ulcerate. Multiple lesions are located on the lips and oral mucosa. As the condition’s name implies, the lesions often appear on the hands and feet as well as in the mouth.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

Candidal infections of the oral mucosa take several forms. Thrush, or pseudomembranous candida, results in white patches, or plaques, overlying a very red base. Erythematous candida results in erythematous lesions and, on occasion, ulcerative lesions. Angular stomatitis results in lesions at the corners or angles of the mouth. The amount of associated pain is variable.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

The cause of most episodes of leukoplakia is not determined. However, this condition, which results in the development of painless, raised white patches on the oral mucosa, is associated with an increased risk of oral squamous cell cancer. Risk factors for the development of leukoplakia include chronic/recurrent trauma to the affected site and the use of smokeless and smoked tobacco and alcohol.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Most oral malignancies are painless until quite advanced, so patients are often unaware of the lesion unless the lip or anterior portion of the tongue is involved. The patient may become aware of the lesion if it bleeds. Squamous cell cancer lesions vary in appearance, from the reddened patches of erythroplakia to areas of induration/thickening, ulceration, or necrotic lesions. Lesions of malignant melanoma have varied pigmentation, including brown, blue, and black. Even lesions that appear flat and smooth may be nodular, indurated, or fixed to adjacent tissue on palpation. Even though patients with squamous cell malignancies often have a history of heavy alcohol and/or tobacco use or poor dentition, these are not risk factors for malignant melanoma. In Behcet’s syndrome, the patient complains of recurrent episodes of oral lesions that are consistent with aphthous ulcers. The number of lesions ranges from one to several; the size of the ulcers varies from less than to greater than 1 cm. Like aphthous ulcers, the lesions are well defined, with a pale yellow or gray base surrounded by erythema. The majority of patients also develop lesions on the genitals and eyes.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

The physical examination for sore throat should include a comprehensive assessment of the upper and lower respiratory systems, including ears, nose, mouth, throat, and lungs. The neck assessment should include, at a minimum, assessment of the cervical lymph nodes. Strep screens, throat cultures, and mononucleosis screens are common diagnostic studies used to narrow the differential diagnosis of sore throat. A CBC with differential count is helpful in determining the cause of sore throat.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis is a bacterial infection of the pharynx, commonly called strep throat. Complications of GABHS pharyngitis, although rare, include rheumatic heart disease and glomerulonephritis, and the condition requires prompt diagnosis and definitive treatment. Most patients with GABHS pharyngitis are children and youths. Other bacterial causes of pharyngitis include mycoplasmal pneumonia, gonorrhea, and diphtheria.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

Most cases of tonsillitis are diagnosed in school-aged children and adolescents. Tonsillitis involves infection of the tonsils, usually by GABHS, in very young children. However, viral tonsillitis (often associated with EBV) is more common in adolescents. Patients can develop chronic tonsillitis and/or have frequent recurrences of the condition.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Peritonsillar abscesses may occur at any age, although most cases involve adults. Many cases evolve as a complication of tonsillitis, but others develop as peritonsillar abscess without a history of tonsillitis. The condition involves infection of the peritonsillar space. A number of pathogens cause peritonsillar abscesses, although the most common cause is GABHS.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Epiglottitis is rare, but it can cause significant respiratory obstruction and death. The condition can occur at any age. The patient presents with rapidly developing sore throat, fever, cough, and difficulty swallowing. The patient’s voice is muffled, and there is drooling. Stridor and/or varying signs of respiratory distress may be evident. The patient often leans forward while sitting to maximize the airway opening. The patient has a very ill appearance, and gentle palpation over the larynx causes significant pain.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Hoarseness may result from squamous cell cancer of the larynx as well as from malignancies within the pulmonary tree, neck, and throat. The risk of malignancy as a cause for hoarseness is greatest in patients with a history of cigarette smoking and/or alcohol abuse. The history usually reveals a progressive onset of hoarseness that has persisted for weeks. The physical examination specific to a complaint of hoarseness should include the ears, nose, throat, neck, lungs, and CNs (particularly CN IX and CN X). When hoarseness is persistent or laryngeal structural disorders are considered, laryngoscopy should be performed to view any redness, edema, motion, and masses or polyps.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Painful subacute thyroiditis involves inflammation of the thyroid gland. A variant, postpartum thyroiditis occurs within 6 months of giving birth and is generally painless. Although the etiology of painful subacute thyroiditis is not clear, it may have a viral trigger. Patients commonly complain of pain in the throat and/or neck, with radiation to an ear. Onset is described as relatively sudden, and associated symptoms include fever, malaise, and achiness. The throat pain may be associated with dysphagia.

 

PTS:    1

 

Chapter 7. Cardiac and Peripheral Vascular Systems

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____       1.   The first heart sound (S1) occurs because of the closure of the:

A. Aortic and mitral valves
B. Mitral and tricuspid valves
C. Pulmonic valve
D. Aortic valve

 

 

____       2.   The second heart sound (S2) occurs because of the closure of the:

A. Aortic valve
B. Tricuspid valve
C. Aortic and pulmonic valve
D. A and B

 

 

____       3.   To distinguish a physiologic split S2 heart sound, it is best to listen with the stethoscope at:

A. Left fifth intercostal space midclavicular line
B. Fourth intercostal space left sternal border with patient holding his or her breath
C. Second intercostal space left sternal border with inspiration
D. Fourth intercostal space right sternal border with expiration

 

 

____       4.   An S3 gallop is commonly heard in:

A. Children with fever
B. Adults with heart failure
C. Children with aortic stenosis
D. Adults with hypertension

 

 

____       5.   An S4 sound is commonly heard in:

A. Children with fever
B. Adults with atrial fibrillation
C. Adults with hypertension
D. Children with pulmonic stenosis

 

 

____       6.   Which of the following heart sounds is commonly heard after myocardial infarction?

A. Friction rub
B. S4
C. S3
D. Opening snap

 

 

____       7.   Which of the following is the most important question to ask during cardiovascular health history?

A. Number of offspring
B. Last physical examination
C. Sudden death of a family member
D. Use of caffeine

 

 

____       8.   Cardiovascular disease risk increase in women after age:

A. 30
B. 40
C. 45
D. 55

 

 

____       9.   Which of the following blood pressure measurements is categorized as prehypertension?

A. 110/78
B. 129/85
C. 142/80
D. 145/92

 

 

____     10.   Xanthelasma is a skin condition that should alert the clinician to ____ in a patient.

A. Familial hyperlipidemia
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Congenital heart disease
D. Peripheral arterial disease

 

 

____     11.   When palpating the chest, you find the point of maximal impulse (PMI) in the left mid-axillary region. This can be indicative of:

A. Normal PMI
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Ventricular hypertrophy
D. Hypertension

 

 

____     12.   Upon inspecting the patient, you find jugular venous distension. This is a sign of:

A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Hypertension
D. Valve disease

 

 

____     13.   On an electrocardiogram, you see a deepened Q wave that is greater than one-third the height of the QRS complex. This is indicative of:

A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Acute myocardial ischemia
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
D. Past myocardial infarction

 

 

____     14.   Your 35-year-old female patient complains of feeling palpitations on occasion. The clinician should recognize that palpitations are often a sign of:

A. Anemia
B. Anxiety
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. All of the above

 

 

____     15.   A pulse rate of 56 beats per minute can be normal in:

A. Elderly patients
B. Newborns
C. Athletic individuals
D. Hypertensive patients

 

 

____     16.   Your patient has a dysrhythmia and has been on a diuretic for 2 months. Which of the following should be suspected?

A. Potassium imbalance
B. Sodium deficit
C. Calcium imbalance
D. Insufficient diuretic

 

 

____     17.   Your patient has suffered an inferior wall myocardial infarction. This is most commonly due to an obstruction in the:

A. Posterior branch of the right coronary artery
B. Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
C. Right main coronary artery
D. Left main coronary artery

 

 

____     18.   Cardiac chest pain is most often described as:

A. Stabbing, piercing pain
B. Pain with inhalation
C. Crushing, squeezing pain
D. Burning, gnawing pain

 

 

____     19.   On an electrocardiogram (ECG), an anterior wall myocardial infarction is demonstrated on leads:

A. II, III, AVR
B. II, III, AVF
C. V1, V2, V3, V4
D. I, AVL, V5, V6

 

 

____     20.   Which is the most specific and sensitive test for validating a myocardial infarction?

A. 12-lead EKG
B. Troponin
C. CK-MB
D. CT scan

 

 

____     21.   It is important for clinicians to recognize that individuals with ____ often sustain silent myocardial infarction.

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hypertension
C. Valvular disorders
D. Congenital heart defects

 

 

____     22.   The pain associated with pericarditis is ____.

A. Crushing and squeezing
B. Constant
C. Worse with inspiration
D. Only present with fever

 

 

____     23.   Pain associated with a dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm is commonly described as:

A. Retrosternal crushing and squeezing
B. Chest stabbing and sharp
C. Ripping and tearing in the chest or thoracic back
D. Worse with inspiration

 

 

____     24.   The pain of ____ can frequently be mistaken for cardiac chest pain.

A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
B. Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
C. Cholecystitis
D. All of the above

 

 

____     25.   The pain of pancreatitis is described as:

A. Abdominal sharp and piercing pain in the left upper quadrant
B. Dull and cramping pain in the right upper quadrant
C. Severe, epigastric pain radiating straight into the back
D. Sharp pain radiating to the shoulder

 

 

____     26.   The pain of costochondritis typically ____.

A. Mimics cardiac crushing and squeezing pain
B. Worsens with movement and full inspiration
C. Radiates from epigastrium into the back
D. Is a tearing and ripping pain

 

 

____     27.   The medical record of your patient lists a grade III systolic murmur. This indicates the patient has a heart murmur that is:

A. Soft and after S2
B. Loud and crescendo in quality
C. Moderately loud and after S1
D. Loud and after S2

 

 

____     28.   The radiation of a mitral valve murmur is commonly heard in the:

A. Carotid arteries
B. Left mid-axillary line
C. Base of the heart
D. Left mid-clavicular line

 

 

____     29.   The murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard in the:

A. Left second intercostal space left sternal border
B. Left fifth intercostal space mid-clavicular line
C. Right fourth intercostal space right sternal border
D. Right second intercostal space right sternal border

 

 

____     30.   The pulmonary valve is best heard over the:

A. left second intercostal space left sternal border
B. left fifth intercostal space mid-clavicular line
C. right fourth intercostal space right sternal border
D. right second intercostal space right sternal border

 

 

____     31.   The key sign(s) of aortic stenosis are:

A. Syncope
B. Dyspnea
C. Angina
D. All of the above

 

 

____     32.   Classically in mitral valve prolapse, the clinician can hear a(n) ____.

A. Mid-systolic click followed by a grade I murmur that crescendos up to S2
B. Opening snap followed by a grade III holosystolic murmur
C. Crescendo-decrescendo grade I diastolic murmur after S2
D. Rough grade III holosystolic murmur that obscures S1 and S2

 

 

____     33.   The best diagnostic test that allows analysis of a heart murmur is:

A. CT scan
B. Echocardiogram
C. MRI
D. ECG

 

 

____     34.   The most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation is:

A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Left atrial enlargement
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Pulmonary hypertension

 

 

____     35.   The tricuspid valve is best heard over the:

A. Third intercostal space left sternal border
B. Fifth intercostal space right sternal border
C. Fourth intercostal space left sternal border
D. Third intercostal space right sternal border

 

 

____     36.   From Erb’s point, all the heart valves can be heard equally. Erb’s point is located over the:

A. Third intercostal space left sternal border
B. Fifth intercostal space right sternal border
C. Fourth intercostal space left sternal border
D. Third intercostal space right sternal border

 

 

____     37.   Upon examination of a child, an innocent systolic murmur is heard at the second intercostal space left sternal border. This is usually due to:

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Patent foramen ovale
C. Low flow velocity
D. High flow turbulence

 

 

____     38.   In mitral stenosis, the murmur occurs:

A. From S1 through S2 as a holosystolic murmur
B. After an opening snap that is heard after S2 during diastole
C. As a soft mid-systolic click
D. A loud crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur

 

 

____     39.   In mitral stenosis, the murmur can be best heard with the patient in the:

A. Squatting position
B. Seated position
C. Left lateral recumbent
D. Supine position

 

 

____     40.   Due to increased left atrial pressure, a patient with mitral stenosis often suffers from:

A. Pulmonary congestion
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Jugular venous distension
D. Ventricular tachycardia

 

 

____     41.   In aortic stenosis, the patient’s point of maximal impulse is commonly located at the:

A. Fifth intercostal space mid-clavicular line
B. Fifth intercostal space mid-axillary line
C. Second intercostal space left sternal border
D. Second intercostal space right sternal border

 

 

____     42.   Aortic regurgitation occurs after S2 during ____ because there is turbulent flow that refluxes into the left ventricle after the aortic valve closes.

A. Early diastole
B. Late diastole
C. Early systole
D. Mid-systole

 

 

____     43.   The murmur of a ventricular septal defect (VSD) occurs when the ventricle contracts and blood flows from the left ventricle into the right ventricle. This creates a ____ heart murmur.

A. Holodiastolic
B. Early diastolic
C. Holosystolic
D. Late systolic

 

 

____     44.   An atrial septal defect (ASD) causes a left to right shunt, which enlarges the right atrium. Because of this effect, which of the following conditions often occur with ASD?

A. Asthma
B. Jugular venous distension
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. B & C

 

 

____     45.   A patient with hypertension who has hyperlipidemia should aim for LDL measurement to be:

A. 130 mg/dL or less
B. 40 mg/dL or less
C. 100 mg/dL or less
D. 60mg/dL or less

 

 

____     46.   Your 47-year-old female patient has a waist to hip ratio of 1. In terms of cardiovascular disease risk, this is considered:

A. Ideal
B. Greater than acceptable limits
C. Less than acceptable limits
D. Within acceptable limits

 

 

____     47.   Which of the following conditions is/are part of metabolic syndrome?

A. Hypertension
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Insulin resistance
D. All of the above

 

 

____     48.   The target body mass index for women is:

A. 27 kg/m2
B. 25 kg/m2
C. 22 kg/m2
D. 16 kg/m2

 

 

____     49.   Dyspnea, cough, and pulmonary crackles are symptoms that can occur in left ventricular failure and respiratory disorders, such as pneumonia. Which of the blood tests below can be used to differentiate cardiovascular from pulmonary disease?

A. B type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Arterial blood gases
D. High sensitivity C reactive protein (hs-CRP)

 

 

____     50.   When an examiner presses on the liver and elicits hepato-jugular reflux, which of the following conditions is likely?

A. Left ventricular failure
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Pulmonary edema

 

 

____     51.   Your patient has had hypertension for 10 years, a myocardial infarction 5 years ago, and now complains of dyspnea on exertion, cough, and 3-pillow orthopnea. Which of the following conditions is likely?

A. Right ventricular failure
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Cor pulmonale
D. Left ventricular failure

 

 

____     52.   Your patient complains of worsening ankle edema and weight gain over the last week. On physical examination, you note jugular venous distension, ascites, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly. These conditions are indicative of:

A. Left ventricular failure
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Right ventricular failure
D. Myocardial infarction

 

 

____     53.   A 23-year-old patient presents the emergency department with high fever, chills, extreme fatigue, and arthralgias. Your physical examination reveals grade II heart murmur heard loudest over the fourth intercostal space left sternal border. The arms of the patient reveal past intravenous drug abuse. The clinician should recognize these are signs and symptoms of:

A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Functional heart murmur
D. Bacterial endocarditis

 

 

____     54.   A 75-year-old patient complains of pain and paresthesias in the right foot that worsens with exercise and is relieved by rest. On physical examination you note pallor of the right foot, capillary refill of 4 seconds in the right foot, +1 dorsalis pedis pulse in the right foot, and +2 pulse in left foot. Which of the following is a likely cause of the signs and symptoms?

A. Arterial insufficiency
B. Femoral vein thrombus
C. Venous insufficiency
D. Peripheral neuropathy

 

 

____     55.   Which of the following ankle-brachial index measurements require a referral to a vascular consultant?

A. ABI 1.2
B. ABI 1
C. ABI 0.9
D. ABI 0.5

 

 

____     56.   Your patient complains of a feeling of heaviness in the lower legs daily. You note varicosities, edema, and dusky color of both ankles and feet. Which of the following is the most likely cause for these symptoms?

A. Femoral vein thrombosis
B. Femoral artery thrombus
C. Venous insufficiency
D. Musculoskeletal injury

 

 

____     57.   After multiple pregnancies, the following vascular disorder is common:

A. Deep venous thrombosis
B. Varicose veins
C. Peripheral arterial disease
D. Aortic aneurysm

 

Chapter 7. Cardiac and Peripheral Vascular Systems

Answer Section

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. ANS:   B

S1 is the closing of the mitral valve and with the tricuspid (T1) valve; together they are known as the atrioventricular (AV) valves. S2 is the closing of the aortic (A2) and pulmonic (P2) valves; together they are known as the semilunar valves.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

S1 is the closing of the mitral valve and with the tricuspid (T1) valve; together they are known as the atrioventricular (AV) valves. S2 is the closing of the aortic (A2) and pulmonic (P2) valves; together they are known as the semilunar valves.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Normally, the S1 and S2 occur as single sounds. In some conditions, these sounds may be split and occur as two sounds. In healthy young adults, a physiologic split of S2 may be detected in the second and third left interspaces during inspiration as a result of changes in the amount of blood returned to the right and left sides of the heart. During inspiration, there is an increased filling time and therefore increased stroke volume of the right ventricle, which can delay closure of the pulmonic valve, causing the second heart sound to be split. This physiologic split differs from other splits that are pathologic in origin in that it occurs with inspiration and disappears with expiration.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Pathologic S3, also called a ventricular gallop, is heard in adults and is associated with decreased myocardial contractility, HF, and volume overload conditions, as can occur with mitral or tricuspid regurgitation. The sound is the same as a physiologic S3 and is heard just after S2 with the patient supine or in the left lateral recumbent position. The sound is very soft and can be difficult to hear.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

S4, also called an atrial gallop, occasionally occurs in a normal adult or well-trained athlete but is usually due to increased resistance to filling of the ventricle. Possible causes of a left-sided S4 include HTN, CVD, cardiomyopathy, and aortic stenosis. Possible causes of a right-sided S4 include pulmonic stenosis and pulmonary HTN. S4 is heard just before S1 with the patient supine or in the left lateral recumbent position. The sound can be as loud as S1 and S2. S4 is not heard in patients with chronic atrial fibrillation due to no distinct atrial kick.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

Opening snap is caused by the opening of a stenotic mitral or tricuspid valve and is heard early in diastole along the lower left sternal border. It is high pitched and heard best with the diaphragm of the stethoscope. Friction rubs occur frequently after a myocardial infarction (MI) or with pericarditis. The sound is a high-pitched grating, scratching sound—resulting from inflammation of the pericardial sac—that issues from the parietal and visceral surfaces of the inflamed pericardium as they rub together.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

The sudden death of a family member is an important question to ask in the health history because it reveals the cardiovascular disease risk of the patient. Sudden death is usually due to an acute cardiovascular event, such as myocardial infarction, cardiac dysrhythmia, or stroke.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

In men, cardiovascular risk increases after age 45; however, in women, the risk of cardiovascular disease increased after age 55. Estrogen is cardioprotective and so women are at highest risk for cardiovascular disease after menopause. The average age of natural menopause for women is age 55.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Ideal blood pressure is less than 120/80, pre-hypertension is regarded as 120 to 139 systolic / 80 to 89, and hypertension is greater than or equal to 140/90.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

When conducting the inspection part of a physical examination, inspect the skin around the eyes for xanthelasma. Xanthelasma is a skin condition that occurs in familial hyperlipidemia that causes high cholesterol levels and early cardiovascular disease in patients. Small, yellow fatty deposits are located around the eyes.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

The examiner should palpate the point of maximal impulse (PMI) and the precordium for heaves or lifts, seen in ventricular hypertrophy. The apical impulse is easily observed in the pediatric client but not always visible in the adult. An accentuated or displaced apical impulse may indicate ventricular hypertrophy.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

In right ventricular failure, hydrostatic pressure builds up back into the right atrium and superior as well as inferior vena cava. Venous congestion occurs throughout the body. A sign of venous congestion of the superior vena cava is jugular vein distension. Signs of right ventricular failure include jugular venous distension, ascites, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and ankle edema.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

A pathologic Q wave, indicative of a past myocardial infarction, measures greater than 0.04 seconds and is greater than one-third the height of the QRS complex.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Palpitations sensed by the patient are commonly indicative of atrial fibrillation, tachycardia, or premature ventricular contractions. Anemia, anxiety, and hyperthyroidism are all possible etiologies of these cardiac rhythm disturbances.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Athletic individuals commonly have a low pulse rate because their heart is well-conditioned and physiologically more efficient. A strong heart has physiologically enlarged muscle chambers which contract slowly and efficiently deliver an adequate blood volume to the body with each contraction. In an elderly or untrained individual, bradycardia is more concerning. Although normal aging includes a decrease in SA node and AV node conduction, thus increasing the likelihood of bradycardia, sinus node pathology and heart blocks should be suspected in the elderly. Newborns have a normal pulse rate of 120 beats per minute. If the patient has hypertension, this does not decrease the heart rate.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

The most common electrolyte disturbance in patients on diuretics is hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a common cause of cardiac rhythm disturbance.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

Blockage in the right coronary artery (RCA) results in damage to the posterior/inferior area of the heart. The left main coronary artery (LCA) branches off to the left anterior descending artery (LAD) and the left circumflex artery (LCX). A highly stenotic LCA or proximal LAD can cause significant heart damage and is often termed the “widow maker.” Blockage in the LAD results in damage to the anterior portion of the heart. Blockage in the circumflex branch artery (CFX) results in damage to the posterior and lateral areas.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Typical characteristics that indicate acute coronary syndrome (ACS) include crushing, squeezing substernal chest pain with radiation to the neck or left arm, a score of greater than 7 on the pain scale, an association with exertion or stress with relief on rest, a duration of minutes, and associated symptoms of nausea, diaphoresis, weakness, or shortness of breath.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

With angina and MI, acute ischemic changes may be seen on the 12-lead EKG. Each lead reflects an area of the heart, and an EKG can determine the location of the ischemia. The lateral wall of the heart is reflected in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6. The inferior wall is reflected in leads II, III, and a VF. The anterior wall is reflected in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4. The posterior wall is reflected in leads V1, V2, and V3. With ischemia, an EKG changes need to occur in two contiguous leads. Reciprocal EKG changes can be seen in the area of the heart opposite the injured area.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Diagnostic studies of myocardial infarction include:

  • CK-MB—The serum level of CK-MB is elevated above normal in the first few hours after MI and returns to normal within 72 hours. The levels can also be elevated following trauma or with progressive muscular dystrophy.
  • Troponin—An inhibitory protein found in muscle fibers, troponin is elevated within 4 hours of an MI and stays elevated for 7 to 10 days. It is more sensitive and specific than creatine kinase for cardiac muscle but may be falsely elevated in patients with kidney dysfunction.
  • 12-lead EKG—The practitioner should look for signs of acute ischemia, such as ST-segment elevation or depression, arrhythmias, and conduction delays. An EKG is minimally helpful in diagnosing pericarditis except in the case of cardiac tamponade or constrictive pericarditis where decreased amplitude may be seen.
  • ImagingStudies such as computed tomography (CT) scan, electron beam computed tomography (EBCT) scan, positron emission tomography (PET) scan, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan can assist in diagnosing CAD, aortic aneurysms, cardiac masses, myocardial disease, and pericardial disease.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

Pain sensitivity may be blunted in persons with diabetes. Peripheral and autonomic neuropathy is common in long-term diabetes. Individuals with diabetes often suffer infection or other disorders without sensing the pain and sustain complications without warning.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Unlike the symptoms associated with ACS, the pain associated with pericarditis is sharp and stabbing; it may worsen with inspiration or when lying flat or leaning forward. Associated symptoms may include shortness of breath, fever, chills, and malaise.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Aortic aneurysms are often asymptomatic. However, in a dissecting aortic aneurysm , symptoms are often described as tearing or ripping in the chest, back, or abdomen.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

It is often difficult to differentiate the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or peptic ulcer disease (PUD) from cardiac symptoms. A thorough history and diagnostic tests are necessary. Patients with a history of GERD or PUD should still be worked up for a cardiac etiology, particularly if the characteristics of the symptoms or the history have changed to raise the index of suspicion for cardiac disease. The pain of cholecystitis, also sometimes mistaken for cardiac pain, typically presents with right upper quadrant pain with radiation to the thoracic region of the back.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

The pain of pancreatitis is severe, steady, and “boring”—radiating from the epigastric region through to the back. It is often accompanied by nausea and vomiting, tachycardia, hypotension, and diaphoresis. These symptoms are also seen in MI; however, the exquisite abdominal tenderness present in pancreatitis assists in differentiating it from cardiac pain.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Costochondritis, which is inflammatory pain of the chest wall, can often be differentiated from cardiac pain through history. A history of injury, heavy lifting, contact sports, excessive coughing, or late-stage pregnancy (which stretches the intercostal muscles) leads the examiner to consider chest wall pain. This often occurs in a younger population with no cardiac risk factors. One of the most helpful differentiating symptoms is that the pain is increased with movement, cough, or, in some cases, respiration.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

A grade III murmur is moderately loud and a systolic murmur immediately follows S1.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

A thorough cardiac examination is performed with the patient sitting, leaning forward, lying, and in the left lateral recumbent position. Some murmurs are heard better in different positions. Listen over the carotids for radiation of an aortic or pulmonic murmur, in the left mid-axillary line for radiation of a mitral murmur, and in the epigastric area for a bruit, indicating an aneurysm.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Aortic stenosis is heard best in the second right intercostal space with the client leaning forward. The murmur is harsh, loud, and often associated with a thrill. It may radiate to the neck, left sternal border, and, in some cases, to the apex.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

The valves are best heard over the chest at specific areas. The aortic valve is best heard over the second intercostal space right sternal border and the pulmonic valve is best heard over the second intercostal space left sternal border. The mitral valve is best heard over the fifth intercostal space mid-clavicular line.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Syncope, angina, and dyspnea (remembered with the acronym SAD) on exertion are the classic symptoms of aortic stenosis. If syncope occurs with exertion, the aortic stenosis is typically severe. Angina may be present because of decreased perfusion of the left ventricle due to LVH rather than CAD, but both exist in many cases.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

In mitral valve prolapse (MVP), a portion of the mitral valve flops open up into the left atrium, giving rise to a classic mid-systolic click followed by a soft grade I murmur that crescendos up to S2. It is high pitched and is heard best at the apex or left sternal border.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Echocardiography is the best diagnostic test for assessing a heart murmur. In addition to visualizing the diseased valve, echocardiography can assist in determining the size of the heart chambers involved in the heart murmur in real time.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

The murmur of tricuspid regurgitation is heard best at the left sternal border and may radiate to the right of the sternum. It is pansystolic, high pitched, and blowing and increases with respiration. Tricuspid regurgitation may be associated with right ventricular hypertrophy resulting in a right parasternal lift. When right ventricular failure occurs, jugular venous distention occurs with a prominent v wave, and liver enlargement may be present. There may be secondary right atrial enlargement owing to backflow into the right atrium. The most common initiator is pulmonary HTN.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

The tricuspid valve is best heard over the fourth intercostal space left sternal border. Erb’s point is located over the third intercostal space left sternal border. The mitral valve is best heard over the fifth intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line. The aortic valve is best heard over the second intercostal space right sternal border. The pulmonic valve is best heard over the second intercostal space left sternal border.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

The tricuspid valve is best heard over the fourth intercostal space left sternal border. Erb’s point is where all valves can be heard equally well. Erb’s point is located over the third intercostal space left sternal border. The mitral valve is best heard over the fifth intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line. The aortic valve is best heard over the second intercostal space right sternal border. The pulmonic valve is best heard over the second intercostal space left sternal border.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

An innocent murmur is a type of systolic murmur that results from turbulent blood flow and is not associated with heart disease. Innocent murmurs occur commonly in children and young adults and reflect the contractile force of the heart, resulting in greater velocity of flow during early systole. They are heard best in the second and third left interspaces along the left sternal border or at the apex.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Mitral stenosis results from thickening and stiffening of the mitral valve, usually secondary to rheumatic fever. The murmur is generally grade I to IV and low pitched; therefore, it is heard better with the bell at the apex in the left lateral recumbent position. The first heart sound (S1) is loud, followed by S2 and a loud opening snap that precedes the murmur.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Mitral stenosis results from thickening and stiffening of the mitral valve, usually secondary to rheumatic fever. The murmur is generally grade I to IV and low pitched; therefore, it is heard better with the bell at the apex in the left lateral recumbent position. The first heart sound (S1) is loud, followed by S2 and a loud opening snap that precedes the murmur.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

In mitral stenosis, the most common presenting symptoms are dyspnea on exertion and hemoptysis due to pulmonary congestion. The pulmonary congestion is caused by increased left atrial pressure related to the decrease in left atrial emptying. Crackles may be heard at the lung bases but are not present in all patients with pulmonary congestion. Orthopnea may be present because the lungs become more congested in the recumbent position. In addition, atrial fibrillation often develops in patients with mitral stenosis, which, in turn, worsens the pulmonary congestion.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

In aortic stenosis, the left ventricle has to work against high resistance and eventually, left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) develops. The LVH causes an enlarged left ventricle, and the point of maximal impulse located at the fifth intercostal space moves leftward toward the mid-axillary line.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

The aortic valve closes creating S2. After the aortic valve closes, in aortic regurgitation, some blood flows back into the left ventricle. S1 through S2 is the systolic time frame. S2 through S1 is the diastolic time frame. The sound of a leaky aortic valve would be heard after the aortic valve closes (S2) during early diastole.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a congenital heart defect in which oxygenated blood is shunted from a higher-pressured left ventricle to a lower-pressured right ventricle through an abnormal opening in the ventricular septum. This left-to-right shunt causes an increased blood flow across the pulmonic valve. The signs and symptoms depend on the size of the defect and the age of the patient. A VSD murmur occurs after the mitral valve closes (S1). Characteristic of a VSD is a loud, harsh, pansystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border, usually accompanied by a thrill.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

ASD is a congenital abnormality in which oxygenated blood is shunted from a higher-pressured left atrium to a lower-pressured right atrium through an abnormal opening in the atrial septum. Atrial arrhythmias, especially atrial fibrillation, are common in the adult population with ASD. ASDs are often accompanied by other congenital heart defects, but in an uncomplicated lesion, patients are often asymptomatic until early adulthood, when they present with dyspnea on exertion or palpitations resulting from atrial arrhythmia. Because patients may be asymptomatic for many years, right HF can be the first sign, and patients may present with jugular venous distension, edema, and ascites.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

The aim for primary prevention is to keep LDL levels below 130 mg/dL and HDL levels above 40 mg/dL. Although primary prevention lowers a person’s risk of heart disease and MI, it has shown only small, if any, effect on all-cause mortality. In patients with known CVD or diabetes, the target cholesterol levels are more stringent, aiming for an LDL level below 100 mg/dL and an HDL level above 60 mg/dL.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

The physical examination includes measurement of height and weight to calculate body mass index (BMI). The formula for calculating BMI is wt(kg)/ht(m2). A waist/hip ratio is also an indicator for risk of heart disease. A ratio greater than 0.85 for women and greater than 0.95 for men is considered to place individuals at increased risk, especially if accompanied by hyperinsulinemia or diabetes. These are part of a constellation of symptoms termed metabolic syndrome that indicates the greatest risk for the development of heart disease.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Characteristics of Metabolic Syndrome

•   Hypertension

•   Dyslipidemia

•   Central obesity

•   Glucose intolerance with hyperinsulinemia (insulin resistance)

 

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Weight loss through diet and exercise has been found to be the most important factor in the prevention of the progression of metabolic syndrome. Insulin sensitivity increases with weight loss and is thought to be due to the loss of visceral fat. The target BMI is less than 22 kg/m2 for women and less than 27 kg/m2 for men. BMI of 16 kg/m2 is considered too low.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)—For patients with cardiovascular disease and comorbid respiratory disease, BNP can help differentiate a cardiac from a respiratory etiology of dyspnea. High levels of BNP in the blood, greater than 400 mg/dL, occur if heart failure is present.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

In right ventricular failure, the abdomen should be examined particularly for right upper quadrant discomfort related to hepatic congestion and enlargement. The examiner can also check for hepatic jugular reflux by placing sustained pressure on the liver while observing for jugular venous distention. In right HF, ascites may also be present. Examine the extremities for edema seen in right HF.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Left ventricular failure is most commonly characterized by dyspnea on exertion, cough, fatigue, orthopnea, PND, cardiac enlargement, crackles, gallop rhythm, and pulmonary congestion. Right ventricular failure is commonly characterized by dependent edema, elevated venous pressure, hepatomegaly, and possibly ascites. Pulmonary embolism presents with shortness of breath and tachycardia. Cor pulmonale is a heart disorder that occurs because of lung disease. The lungs are dysfunctioning which causes hypoxia and reflex pulmonary artery vasoconstriction. The right ventricle has to eject blood into the pulmonary artery, however, there is high afterload to deal because of pulmonary vasoconstriction. The high workload against the right ventricle eventually causes the right ventricle to fail. This right ventricular failure because of lung disease is called cor pulmonale.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Right ventricular failure is characterized by dependent edema, elevated venous pressure, hepatomegaly, and possibly ascites. Pulmonary embolism presents with sudden shortness of breath and tachycardia. Left ventricular failure is characterized by dyspnea on exertion, cough, fatigue, orthopnea, PND, cardiac enlargement, crackles, gallop rhythm, and pulmonary congestion. Myocardial infarction presents with crushing retrosternal chest pain, pallor, dyspnea, and diaphoresis.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

Bacterial endocarditis is a microbial infection of the endocardium. The most common causative organisms are Staphylococcus aureus, group A streptococcus, pneumococcus, and gonococcus. Risk factors include valvular disease, intravenous drug use, dental disease, and invasive diagnostic procedures. Initially, the signs and symptoms are similar to those of other systemic illnesses, including fever, chills, arthralgias, malaise, and fatigue. Petechiae, anemia, weight loss, new or worsening heart murmur, and emboli alert the examiner to a more serious disease process.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   A

Intermittent claudication is pain in the leg or foot that becomes worse with exercise and is relieved by rest. The classic signs of peripheral arterial disease include pain, pallor, weak pulse, paresthesias, and palpable coolness. The signs of venous thrombosis are erythema, ropiness, as well as warmth and tenderness along the course of the vein. Edema of the leg and Homan’s sign of the foot are also common.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   D

The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is currently the easiest, least expensive noninvasive method for diagnosing PAD and is particularly helpful in the office and home settings. The ABI is obtained by the following steps:

  1. Obtain brachial systolic pressure in both arms. Select the higher of these two values.
  2. Use Doppler stethoscope to obtain systolic pressure in the dorsalis pedis or posterior tibialis vessel.
  3. Divide ankle pressure by the higher brachial pressure.

The index should be 1 or higher. If it is less than 0.5, impairment to blood flow is significant. An abnormal ABI indicates the need for a vascular consult.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   C

Chronic venous insufficiency can be a long-term complication of venous thrombosis, owing to the destruction of valves in the deep veins. The calf muscle pump that returns blood from the lower legs is damaged, increasing ambulatory pressure in the calf veins. A constellation of symptoms is set up: aching or pain in the lower legs, edema, thinning and hyperpigmentation of the skin, superficial varicosities, venous stasis, and ulceration. Ankle edema is often the earliest sign.

 

PTS:    1

 

  1. ANS:   B

Often a precursor to chronic venous insufficiency, varicose veins are usually caused by occupations that involve prolonged standing or sitting in one place, overweight, pregnancy, or a familial tendency. They may increase the patient’s risk for DVT, or they may occur secondary to a DVT. Blockage to lymphatic flow can cause varicosities as seen with pelvic neoplasm. They appear as long, dilated, tortuous veins in the lower extremities.

 

PTS:    1