An Introduction To Brain And Behavior 5Th Ed By Kolb – Test Bank

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An Introduction To Brain And Behavior 5Th Ed By Kolb – Test Bank

Chapter6

Name: __________________________  Date: _____________

 

 

1. Various forms of _____ have been used as study pills by students.
A) barbiturates
B) opioids
C) amphetamines
D) antipsychotics

 

 

2. _____ is the study of how drugs affect the nervous system and behavior.
A) Neuroscience
B) Biopsychology
C) Neuropsychology
D) Psychopharmacology

 

 

3. Drugs that are used to manage neuropsychological illness are called:
A) prophylactic drugs.
B) psychoactive drugs.
C) mood drugs.
D) psychodepressant drugs.

 

 

4. Which of the following is the LEAST efficient method of drug administration?
A) injection into the bloodstream
B) injection into the brain
C) oral consumption
D) inhaling the drug

 

 

5. If a person is dying and needs lifesaving medication to be administered as quickly as possible, what is the BEST method of administration?
A) oral consumption
B) injection into muscle
C) injection into the bloodstream
D) a patch on the skin

 

 

6. The correct order from LEAST efficient to MOST efficient method of drug administration is:
A) oral consumption, inhalation, injection into the bloodstream.
B) skin patch, oral consumption, injection into muscle.
C) injection into muscle, injection into bloodstream, oral consumption.
D) inhalation, oral consumption, injection into the brain.

 

 

7. Approximately how many liters of blood are in the circulatory system at any one time?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12

 

 

8. Which is the MOST effective in passing through the blood–brain barrier easily?
A) weak-base drugs
B) drugs bound to proteins
C) hydrophobic drugs
D) water-soluble drugs

 

 

9. One thousand micrograms of amphetamine taken orally is equivalent to:
A) 100 micrograms injected into the cerebrospinal fluid.
B) 10 micrograms injected into the cerebrospinal fluid.
C) 5 micrograms injected into the cerebrospinal fluid.
D) 1 microgram injected into the cerebrospinal fluid.

 

 

10. Endothelial cells are:
A) surrounded by the end feet of astrocyte glial cells.
B) associated with veins.
C) organized in the same fashion throughout the body.
D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

11. Tight junctions are associated with:
A) astrocyte glial cells.
B) endothelial cells.
C) synaptic clefts.
D) drugs bound to proteins.

 

 

12. The pituitary gland is to the area postrema of the lower brainstem as:
A) toxins are to hormones.
B) hormones are to toxins.
C) vomiting is to shivering.
D) shivering is to vomiting.

 

 

13. The _____ does NOT have a blood–brain barrier.
A) amygdala
B) pineal gland
C) thalamus
D) None of these answers are correct.

 

 

14. Drugs that influence hormones primarily do so by acting on the:
A) hypothalamus.
B) pituitary gland.
C) area postrema.
D) pineal gland.

 

 

15. The blood–brain barrier does NOT allow _____ to pass through.
A) glucose
B) amino acids
C) neurochemicals
D) oxygen

 

 

16. Which of the following substances can pass through the endothelial membrane in the blood–brain barrier unassisted (i.e., without active transport)?
A) glucose
B) carbon dioxide
C) amino acids
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

17. Which of the following does NOT cross the blood–brain barrier?
A) oxygen
B) glucose
C) amino acids
D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

18. The breakdown of drugs by the body is referred to as:
A) reuptake.
B) metabolization.
C) catabolization.
D) deactivation.

 

 

19. The _____ is especially important for catabolizing drugs in the body.
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) kidneys
D) gallbladder

 

 

20. _____ cannot be easily broken down by the body and can cause severe neurological side effects.
A) Mercury
B) Magnesium
C) Aluminum
D) Potassium

 

 

21. Psychoactive drugs have most of their effects at the:
A) cell body.
B) axon.
C) synapse.
D) dendrites.

 

 

22. A drug that prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine at synapses is an example of an:
A) antagonist.
B) accelerant.
C) blocker.
D) agonist.

 

 

23. A drug that reduces dopamine release at synapses is an example of a(n):
A) antagonist.
B) accelerant.
C) blocker.
D) agonist.

 

 

24. Agonist is to antagonist as:
A) receptor is to terminal button.
B) drug is to neurotransmitter.
C) accelerate is to brake.
D) slow is to fast.

 

 

25. Botulin toxin (botulism) causes paralysis and slowed breathing and is therefore:
A) an acetylcholine agonist.
B) an acetylcholine antagonist.
C) a dopamine agonist.
D) a dopamine antagonist.

 

 

26. Black widow spider venom:
A) promotes the release of acetylcholine.
B) blocks receptors.
C) stimulates receptors.
D) inhibits the release of acetylcholine.

 

 

27. Black widow spider venom affects its victim by:
A) promoting the release of acetylcholine.
B) inhibiting the release of acetylcholine.
C) blocking  postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors.
D) activating  postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors.

 

 

28. Curare acts as a(n):
A) acetylcholine agonist.
B) acetylcholine antagonist.
C) serotonin antagonist.
D) dopamine antagonist.

 

 

29. Nicotine acts as a(n):
A) acetylcholine agonist.
B) serotonin agonist.
C) acetylcholine antagonist.
D) dopamine antagonist.

 

 

30. Curare:
A) promotes the release of acetylcholine.
B) blocks receptors.
C) stimulates receptors.
D) inhibits the release of acetylcholine.

 

 

31. Nicotine, a chemical found in tobacco smoke, has its effect by:
A) promoting the release of acetylcholine.
B) inhibiting the release of acetylcholine.
C) blocking the GABA receptors.
D) activating the GABA receptors.

 

 

32. _____ was used to make poison arrowheads by South American natives.
A) Curare, an acetylcholine agonist,
B) Physostigmine, an acetylcholine antagonist,
C) Physostigmine, an acetylcholine agonist,
D) Curare, an acetylcholine antagonist,

 

 

33. _____has been used to treat some memory disorders.
A) Curare, an acetylcholine antagonist,
B) Botulin toxin, an acetylcholine agonist,
C) Physostigmine, an acetylcholine agonist,
D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

34. Physostigmine acts by:
A) reducing the release of acetylcholine.
B) increasing the release of acetylcholine.
C) speeding up the reuptake of acetylcholine.
D) slowing the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synapse.

 

 

35. An example of an organophosphate is:
A) curare.
B) physostigmine.
C) insecticide.
D) botulinum toxin.

 

 

36. _____ is a decreased response to a drug over time.
A) Addiction
B) Tolerance
C) Dependence
D) Sensitization

 

 

37. If a person consumes five alcoholic drinks per day for 2 months that person will demonstrate _____ and _____ at the end of the 2 months.
A) less intoxication; the same blood alcohol level
B) more intoxication; an increased blood alcohol level
C) less intoxication; a lower blood alcohol level
D) more intoxication; the same blood alcohol level

 

 

38. When the number of enzymes needed to break down a drug in the liver increases, it is called:
A) cellular tolerance.
B) metabolic tolerance.
C) sensitization.
D) habituation.

 

 

39. The development of _____ can explain why a person may not appear to be intoxicated despite having a high blood alcohol level.
A) metabolic tolerance
B) addiction
C) sensitization
D) cellular tolerance

 

 

40. _____ is likely to increase with _____ drug use.
A) Tolerance; occasional
B) Sensitization; repeated
C) Sensitization; occasional
D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

41. Sensitization has been linked with:
A) changes in receptor number on the postsynaptic membrane.
B) changes in transmitter metabolism in the synapse.
C) changes in transmitter reuptake on the presynaptic side.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

42. Sensitization usually occurs:
A) as a result of cellular tolerance.
B) as a result of metabolic tolerance.
C) in a new environment.
D) in a familiar environment.

 

 

43. If I had an anxiety disorder I would probably take:
A) Haldol.
B) Valium.
C) Prozac.
D) Imipramine.

 

 

44. Which of the following are antianxiety agents?
A) alcohol
B) benzodiazepines
C) barbiturates
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

45. Haloperidol and chlorpromazine are examples of:
A) antianxiety drugs.
B) antipsychotic drugs.
C) mood stabilizers.
D) antidepressant drugs.

 

 

46. Oxycodone, fentanyl, and methadone are examples of:
A) hallucinogenic drugs.
B) opioids.
C) antianxiety medications.
D) antidepressants.

 

 

47. SSRIs are often prescribed to treat:
A) depression.
B) schizophrenia.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) Tourette syndrome.

 

 

48. _____ is an example of a psychedelic or hallucinogenic drug.
A) Phencyclidine (PCP)
B) Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
C) MDMA (Ecstasy)
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

49. Which of the following drugs is NOT considered to be an opioid analgesic?
A) heroin
B) codeine
C) morphine
D) mescaline

 

 

50. _____ results when tolerance for one drug is carried over to a different member of the same drug group.
A) Addiction
B) Sensitization
C) Cross-tolerance
D) Cellular tolerance

 

 

51. GABA:
A) increases the firing of cells.
B) decreases the firing of cells.
C) is very slowly reabsorbed.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

52. MAO inhibitors and tricyclics are examples of:
A) antianxiety drugs.
B) antipsychotic drugs.
C) mood stabilizers.
D) antidepressant drugs.

 

 

53. Lithium and carbamazepine are typically prescribed as:
A) antianxiety drugs.
B) antipsychotic drugs
C) mood stabilizers.
D) antidepressant drugs.

 

 

54. _____ is a disorder characterized by unusually wide spacing between the eyes, low intelligence, hyperactivity, social problems, and small brain size.
A) ADHD
B) Schizophrenia
C) Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder
D) Williams syndrome

 

 

55. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) is worse if a mother drinks during the _____ trimester(s).
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) second and third

 

 

56. The incidence of schizophrenia is:
A) one in 100.
B) one in 1000.
C) one in 10,000.
D) one in 100,000.

 

 

57. First-generation antipsychotics influence _____ receptors, whereas second-generation antipsychotics influence _____ receptors.
A) D2; D2 and serotonin
B) D3; D2 and serotonin
C) serotonin; D2
D) serotonin; D3

 

 

58. The _____ hypothesis of schizophrenia suggests that patients have _____.
A) norepinephrine; too much serotonin
B) serotonin; not enough serotonin
C) dopamine; not enough dopamine
D) dopamine; too much dopamine

 

 

59. Schizophrenia is treated with:
A) phenothiazines.
B) monoamine oxidase.
C) lithium.
D) benzodiazepines.

 

 

60. Over the course of a lifetime approximately _____ of people will have a depressive episode that lasts for several months.
A) 10 percent
B) 30 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 25 percent

 

 

61. _____ deficiency has been linked with higher rates of depression.
A) Vitamin E
B) Vitamin D
C) Vitamin B
D) Vitamin A

 

 

62. Selective serotonin reuptake blockers are used in the treatment of:
A) depression.
B) bipolar disorders.
C) schizophrenia.
D) anxiety.

 

 

63. Depression is treated with:
A) butyrophenone.
B) lithium.
C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
D) benzodiazepines.

 

 

64. Which of the following drugs is used to treat depression?
A) serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors
B) monoamine oxidase inhibitors
C) tricyclics
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

65. MAO inhibitors increase levels of serotonin by:
A) inhibiting the breakdown of serotonin.
B) increasing the release of serotonin.
C) increasing the sensitivity of serotonin receptors.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

66. SSRIs treat depression by:
A) blocking the reuptake of serotonin.
B) increasing the release of serotonin.
C) stopping the breakdown of serotonin.
D) increasing the synthesis of serotonin.

 

 

67. If I had a bipolar disorder, I would probably take:
A) lithium.
B) Prozac.
C) Librium.
D) Haldol.

 

 

68. Anticonvulsant drugs that are used to treat epilepsy are also effective in treating:
A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety.
D) bipolar disorder.

 

 

69. Your friend has recently been diagnosed with major depression. She has been prescribed several SSRIs over the last few months, but none seem to be working well. Your advice to her is to ask her doctor about using:
A) clozapine.
B) ketamine.
C) L-dopa.
D) barbiturates.

 

 

70. Endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins are examples of:
A) amphetamines.
B) hallucinogens.
C) opioid peptides.
D) endocannabinoids.

 

 

71. Enkephalins and dynorphins are examples of:
A) opioid analgesics.
B) amphetamines.
C) endorphins.
D) antipsychotics.

 

 

72. _____ is an example of an opioid analgesic.
A) Codeine
B) Morphine
C) Heroin
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

73. The term “Soldier’s Disease” was used to describe _____ addiction following the American Civil War.
A) cocaine
B) morphine
C) heroin
D) opium

 

 

74. The effects of cocaine can be mimicked by:
A) endorphins.
B) heroin.
C) amphetamines.
D) morphine.

 

 

75. _____ was used by soldiers in World War II as a means of staying awake and alert and to help increase confidence.
A) Morphine
B) Cocaine
C) Heroin
D) Amphetamine

 

 

76. _____ was once added to many drinks to help give them an energizing effect.
A) Amphetamine
B) Cocaine
C) Opium
D) Morphine

 

 

77. _____ has been shown to be effective in treating nausea, lack of appetite, glaucoma, and chronic pain.
A) Marijuana
B) Cocaine
C) Methamphetamine
D) Heroin

 

 

78. An example of a serotonin psychedelic would be:
A) mescaline.
B) marijuana.
C) heroin.
D) LSD.

 

 

79. Chad is normally quiet and reserved and enjoys having a few drinks while catching up with his friends on Fridays. However, this week when they went to a new bar Chad was convinced that a person at another table was giving him “dirty looks.” Chad confronted the person and started a fight which resulted in him being arrested for the first time in his life. This type of behavior could be explained by:
A) disinhibition theory.
B) learning.
C) behavioral myopia.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

80. The disinhibition theory attempts to explain the effects of:
A) morphine.
B) heroin.
C) amphetamine.
D) alcohol.

 

 

81. Drug abuse has been associated with changes in:
A) serotonin levels.
B) dopamine levels.
C) acetylcholine levels.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

82. Sensitivity to drugs is determined by:
A) size.
B) sex.
C) age.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

83. According to recent research, females are more like than males to abuse:
A) nicotine.
B) cocaine.
C) caffeine.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

84. Another term for the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction is:
A) incentive-salience theory.
B) wanting-and-liking theory.
C) associative learning theory.
D) goal and pleasure theory.

 

 

85. Which of the following is the correct sequence for drug addiction?
A) incentive salience, pleasure, associative learning
B) associative learning, pleasure, incentive salience
C) pleasure, associative learning, incentive salience
D) incentive salience, associative learning, pleasure

 

 

86. When cues that have previously been associated with drug taking are encountered, the _____ system becomes active, producing the subjective feeling of wanting.
A) serotonin
B) limbic
C) dopamine
D) endorphin

 

 

87. At present, the basis for alcohol addiction is:
A) mostly genetic.
B) mostly learned.
C) 50 percent learned and 50 percent genetic.
D) still uncertain.

 

 

88. Which of the following drugs has the HIGHEST concordance rate for addiction among identical twins?
A) tobacco
B) marijuana
C) alcohol
D) heroin

 

 

89. In large doses _____ has been shown to have toxic effects in neurons.
A) monosodium glutamate (MSG)
B) kainic acid
C) ibotenic acid
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

90. Domoic acid is most toxic to the:
A) neocortex.
B) medulla.
C) hippocampus.
D) basal ganglia.

 

 

91. Botulin toxin is found in:
A) bee and wasp stings.
B) the crocus plant.
C) tainted food.
D) plant berries.

 

 

92. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Kainate receptors are glutamate receptors.
B) Glutamate can be a neurotoxin.
C) Glutamate and MSG have a similar structure.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

93. Which of the following street drugs is LEAST likely to cause brain damage?
A) PCP (angel dust)
B) MDMA (Ecstasy)
C) LSD
D) amphetamines

 

 

94. MDMA (Ecstasy) has been shown to have toxic effects on:
A) dopamine terminals.
B) serotonin nerve fibers.
C) norepinephrine synthesis.
D) glutamate release.

 

 

95. The _____ produces neurohormones, whereas the _____ secretes releasing hormones.
A) pituitary gland; hypothalamus
B) thalamus; hypothalamus
C) hypothalamus; thalamus
D) hypothalamus; pituitary gland

 

 

96. The hormone testosterone MOST likely has its behavioral effects by:
A) acting like a neurotransmitter and activating postsynaptic receptors.
B) acting like a neurotransmitter and activating presynaptic transmitter release.
C) entering a neuron and activating genes.
D) modifying RNA messengers.

 

 

97. Testosterone and cortisol are examples of:
A) steroid hormones.
B) peptide hormones.
C) gonadal hormones.
D) homeostatic hormones.

 

 

98. _____ is an important homeostatic hormone.
A) Testosterone
B) Cortisol
C) Insulin
D) Oxytocin

 

 

99. Gonadal hormones:
A) contribute to cognitive functioning.
B) are less important for females in producing the female body.
C) act on us before we are born.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

100. Epinephrine:
A) turns off insulin.
B) shuts down reproductive functions.
C) inhibits the immune system.
D) prepares the body for a sudden surge of activity.

 

 

101. The hormone involved in our fast response to danger or threat is:
A) cortisol.
B) epinephrine.
C) corticotropin.
D) thyrotropin.

 

 

102. Periods of prolonged stress can result in _____ as well as _____.
A) a decrease in size of the hippocampus; an increase in size of the amygdala
B) a decrease in size in the hippocampus; a decrease in the size of the amygdala
C) an increase in the size of the hippocampus; an increase in the size of the amygdala
D) an increase in the size of the hippocampus; a decrease in the size of the amygdala

 

 

103. Which of the following sequences is correct?
A) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), adrenal medulla
B) adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenal medulla
C) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), adrenal cortex
D) adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenal cortex

 

 

104. It is suggested that high levels of stress can damage neurons in the:
A) hypothalamus.
B) hippocampus.
C) thalamus.
D) amygdala.

 

 

105. Cortisol levels are usually regulated by the:
A) amygdala.
B) hippocampus.
C) pituitary gland.
D) thalamus,

 

 

106. List the most efficient routes of drug administration.

 

 

107. Briefly describe the blood–brain barrier.

 

 

108. Differentiate between agonists and antagonists.

 

 

109. Why is the neurotransmitter acetylcholine important? What are the effects of curare on acetylcholine?

 

 

110. Define and differentiate between metabolic tolerance and cellular tolerance.

 

 

111. What is drug sensitization and how does it occur?

 

 

112. What are the five major categories of psychoactive drugs? Give examples for each category.

 

 

113. Give examples of drugs that are used to treat depression. What types of receptors do they operate on?

 

 

114. What is fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD), and what are its major symptoms?

 

 

115. What is the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia? What evidence supports the dopamine hypothesis?

 

 

116. List three drugs used for the treatment of depression and describe how they work (i.e., what neurotransmitter systems are involved).

 

 

117. What are MAO inhibitors used for?

 

 

118. What are endorphins?

 

 

119. What is the difference between morphine and heroin?

 

 

120. Give examples of three different types of amphetamines. What neurotransmitter systems do these drugs operate on?

 

 

121. Give example of three different psychedelic drugs, and describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in creating the effects.

 

 

122. Describe the disinhibition theory of alcohol use.

 

 

123. What is behavioral myopia?

 

 

124. What is the difference between substance abuse and substance dependence?

 

 

125. Describe the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction.

 

 

126. What negative effects on the nervous system have been associated with monosodium glutamate (MSG)?

 

 

127. Define homeostasis and give examples of homeostatic hormones.

 

 

128. What is the organizational hypothesis?

 

 

129. What evidence suggests that changes in cognitive behavior are a result of gonadal hormones?

 

 

130. Describe the processes that are involved in starting and stopping the stress response. ?

 

 

131. What are the effects on the brain of chronically high cortisol levels?

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1. C
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. A
21. C
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. A
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. B
31. A
32. D
33. C
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. B
39. D
40. C
41. D
42. C
43. B
44. B
45. B
46. B
47. A
48. D
49. D
50. C
51. B
52. D
53. C
54. C
55. A
56. A
57. A
58. D
59. A
60. B
61. B
62. A
63. C
64. C
65. A
66. A
67. A
68. D
69. B
70. C
71. C
72. D
73. B
74. C
75. D
76. B
77. A
78. D
79. D
80. D
81. B
82. D
83. D
84. B
85. C
86. C
87. D
88. C
89. D
90. C
91. C
92. D
93. C
94. B
95. D
96. C
97. A
98. C
99. D
100. D
101. B
102. A
103. C
104. B
105. B
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.

 

Chapter7

Name: __________________________  Date: _____________

 

 

1. In a study on infant language, researchers found that when newborn infants listened to a familiar language there was a(n) _____ in oxygenated hemoglobin, and there was _____ in oxygenated hemoglobin when they listened to an unfamiliar language.
A) decrease; an increase
B) increase; no change
C) decrease; no change
D) increase; a decrease

 

 

2. The electroencephalograph (EEG) was invented by:
A) Hans Berger.
B) Wilder Penfield.
C) Paul Broca.
D) Karl Lashley.

 

 

3. Broca’s area is located in the:
A) temporal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) limbic lobe.

 

 

4. The first field to study the relationship between brain function and behavior was:
A) neurology.
B) neuropsychology.
C) physiological physiology.
D) behaviorism.

 

 

5. _____ stains show cell bodies, whereas _____ stains show cell bodies and processes (e.g., dendrites).
A) Golgi; Nissl
B) Nissl; Golgi
C) Broca; Golgi
D) Nissl; Broca

 

 

6. A study contrasting normal rats and ADX rats (which had their adrenal glands removed) observed that:
A) both groups of rats learned normally.
B) both groups of rats had difficulty remembering objects they had encountered before.
C) only ADX rats had difficulty remembering objects they had encountered before.
D) corticosterone plays no role in learning and memory.

 

 

7. The Corsi test measures:
A) verbal memory.
B) language.
C) sensory perception.
D) spatial memory.

 

 

8. The mirror drawing task measures:
A) sensory perception.
B) motor memory.
C) sensory memory.
D) spatial memory.

 

 

9. In rats, place learning is measured using:
A) the Corsi test.
B) a hidden escape platform in a swimming pool.
C) the recency memory task.
D) the block span task.

 

 

10. For measuring spatial memory in rats the platform is placed in one location for numerous trials to measure _____, whereas the platform is placed in a new location on each trial for measuring _____.
A) place learning; matching-to-place learning
B) matching-to-place learning; place learning
C) matching-to-place learning; landmark learning
D) landmark learning; matching-to-place learning

 

 

11. Modifying the brain and observing the effects on behavior is a valuable experimental tool because:
A) it allows researchers to develop testable hypotheses about how the brain influences behavior.
B) it allows a hypothesis to be tested experimentally.
C) it allows for the development of animal models of human disorders.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

12. Lashley made lesions on the cortex of rats in his search for the location of memory. He found that:
A) memory resided in the hippocampus.
B) small lesions to the temporal lobes produced memory loss.
C) memory is distributed throughout the brain and not located in any single place.
D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

13. To study the role of a specific brain structure in behavior, you should:
A) study patients with damage to the brain region of interest.
B) study animals with damage to the brain region of interest.
C) apply transcranial magnetic stimulation to the brain region of interest.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

14. In 1957 Scoville and Milner described a patient who had profound amnesia following a surgical removal of the:
A) frontal lobe.
B) amygdala.
C) hippocampus.
D) parietal lobe.

 

 

15. A stereotaxic apparatus is primarily used:
A) in fMRI.
B) for targeting a specific part of the brain for ablation.
C) for transcranial magnetic stimulation.
D) for lesioning and transcranial magnetic stimulation.

 

 

16. To place subcortical lesions accurately, it is necessary to use:
A) a stereotaxic apparatus.
B) an aspiration lesion.
C) an fMRI.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

17. Neurotoxic lesions destroy _____, and electrolytic lesions destroy _____.
A) only neurons; only fibers
B) neurons; neurons and fibers
C) only fibers; only neurons
D) neurons and fibers; fibers

 

 

18. _____ applied to the globus pallidus has been used as a treatment for Parkinson disease.
A) Self-stimulation
B) Deep brain stimulation
C) Transcranial magnetic stimulation
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

19. _____ was the first to use electrical stimulation in humans during neurosurgery.
A) Hebb
B) Wishaw
C) Penfield
D) Broca

 

 

20. One can create a behavioral model of Parkinson disease in a rat by:
A) lesioning the substantia nigra.
B) stimulating the substantia nigra.
C) lesioning the globus pallidus.
D) stimulating the globus pallidus.

 

 

21. Deep brain stimulation has been used as a treatment for:
A) Parkinson disease.
B) Huntington disease.
C) schizophrenia.
D) both Parkinson disease and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

 

 

22. With _____ the effects on neurons do not outlive the period of stimulation, whereas with _____ the effects on neurons can last several minutes.
A) rTMS; TMS
B) TMS; rTMS
C) DBS; TMS
D) rTMS; DBS

 

 

23. The administration of _____ can produce hypokinetic rats, whereas administration of _____ produces hyperkinetic rats.
A) amphetamine; haloperidol
B) haloperidol; amphetamine
C) L-dopa; amphetamine
D) amphetamine; L-dopa

 

 

24. Administering nicotine to rats:
A) improves learning.
B) impairs learning.
C) first improves learning, then impairs learning on a second task.
D) first impairs learning, then improves learning on a second task.

 

 

25. The use of blue light to excite and green-yellow light to inhibit neurons is part of:
A) transcranial magnetic stimulation.
B) near-infrared spectroscopy.
C) optogenetics.
D) photomicroscopy.

 

 

26. In optogenetics, channelrhodopsin-2 (ChR2) can be used to _____ neurons, whereas halorhodopsin (NpHR) can be used to _____ neurons.
A) depolarize; hyperpolarize
B) hyperpolarize; depolarize
C) inactivate; activate
D) destroy; promote the growth of

 

 

27. Which of the following is NOT one of the techniques used to measure the brain’s electrical activity?
A) EEG
B) MEG
C) TMS
D) single-cell recording

 

 

28. To study the electrical activity of a group of neurons you would use _____; however, to study the electrical activity of a single neuron you would use _____.
A) intracellular recording; extracellular recording
B) EEG; ECoG
C) extracellular recording; intracellular recording
D) ERP; MEG

 

 

29. EEG is a measure of:
A) graded potentials.
B) evoked potentials.
C) action potentials.
D) event-related potentials.

 

 

30. _____ rhythms are extremely regular, with a frequency of approximately 11 cycles per second, and are commonly observed when a person is awake but relaxed.
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Theta
D) Delta

 

 

31. If a person is awake and alert, the EEG pattern will consist of:
A) high-amplitude, high-frequency waves.
B) low-amplitude, low-frequency waves.
C) low-amplitude, high-frequency waves.
D) There is no systematic pattern to EEG activity.

 

 

32. EEG can be used to:
A) monitor sleep.
B) estimate the depth of anesthesia.
C) detect epilepsy.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

33. _____ is used to measure the electrical activity of neurons on the surface of the cortex.
A) ECG
B) ECoG
C) MEG
D) ERP

 

 

34. Place cells are found in the:
A) parietal cortex.
B) cingulate gyrus.
C) amygdala.
D) hippocampus.

 

 

35. Event-related potentials are:
A) quite different from the EEG.
B) recorded from single neurons.
C) brief changes in the EEG associated with a specific sensory event.
D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

36. The terms N1, P2, and P3 are related to:
A) TMS.
B) EEG.
C) ERP.
D) fMRI.

 

 

37. _____ measures the magnetic fields associated with electrical signals in the cortex.
A) EEG
B) fMRI
C) ERP
D) MEG

 

 

38. The main advantage of MEG over event-related potentials (ERP) is:
A) MEG is better at more precisely identifying the source of the activity being recorded.
B) MEG is cheaper than EEG.
C) MEG is better at detecting electrical activity than EEG.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

39. X-ray absorption is:
A) low in bone.
B) high in cerebrospinal fluid.
C) high in blood.
D) medium in neural tissue.

 

 

40. CT scans are not useful in differentiating:
A) bone from blood.
B) bone from cerebrospinal fluid.
C) white matter from gray matter.
D) cerebrospinal fluid from white matter.

 

 

41. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans take advantage of the magnetic properties of:
A) hydrogen atoms.
B) oxygen atoms.
C) nitrogen atoms.
D) glucose atoms.

 

 

42. Magnetic resonance imaging involves:
A) hydrogen atoms.
B) magnets.
C) radio pulses.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

43. Magnetic resonance imaging measures:
A) radio pulses emitted by hydrogen atoms.
B) radiation emitted by nitrogen atoms.
C) radiation emitted by oxygen atoms.
D) radio pulses emitted by oxygen atoms.

 

 

44. Compared to CT scans, MRI scans are more useful for differentiating gray matter from white matter because:
A) MRI acquires the images at a higher resolution compared to a CT scan.
B) tissues with high water content generate a different MRI signal from that of tissues with low water content.
C) of differences in oxygen content between gray matter and white matter.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

45. A computed tomography (CT) scan is a:
A) series of X-rays.
B) series of gamma rays.
C) electromagnetic differentiation of brain tissue.
D) measure of the density of hydrogen atoms.

 

 

46. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) images nerve fiber pathways by detecting:
A) the directional movement of water molecules.
B) different signal intensities between white blood cells and red blood cells.
C) differences in blood oxygenation.
D) changes in regional cerebral blood flow.

 

 

47. _____ is used to identify changes in fiber myelination.
A) ECG
B) CT scan
C) MRS
D) DTI

 

 

48. _____ can be used to determine the concentration of various brain metabolites.
A) Diffusion tensor imaging
B) Electrocardiogram
C) Magnetoencephalography
D) Magnetic resonance spectroscopy

 

 

49. If one wanted to examine changes in the levels of various brain metabolites following a concussion, one could use:
A) Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI).
B) electrocardiogram (ECG).
C) Positron Emission Tomography (PET).
D) Magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS).

 

 

50. The basis of the fMRI signal is centered on the fact that:
A) the magnetic properties of blood does not change with the amount of oxygen content in it.
B) water has magnetic properties.
C) oxygen-rich blood has a smaller magnetic signal than oxygen-poor blood.
D) oxygen-rich blood has a larger magnetic signal than oxygen-poor blood.

 

 

51. fMRI has high _____ but low _____.
A) temporal resolution; spatial resolution
B) spatial resolution; temporal resolution
C) radiation exposure; imaging clarity
D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

52. Which of the following is NOT one of the disadvantages of fMRI?
A) poor temporal resolution
B) subject must remain completely still
C) feelings of claustrophobia
D) poor spatial resolution

 

 

53. Which of the following is a form of optical tomography?
A) PET
B) fMRI
C) fNIRS
D) MRI

 

 

54. The technique that uses reflected infrared light to measure oxygen consumption by the brain is:
A) fMRI.
B) fNIRS.
C) cytogenetics.
D) cryogenetics.

 

 

55. If one is interested in measuring changes in brain activity over the frontal lobes as infants and toddlers learn language, the best technique to use is:
A) ECG.
B) MRI.
C) CT.
D) fNIRS.

 

 

56. Positron emission tomography (PET) uses:
A) magnets.
B) radioactive isotopes.
C) L-dopa.
D) hydrogen atoms.

 

 

57. To measure brain metabolic activity PET uses radioactive isotopes of:
A) oxygen.
B) hydrogen.
C) potassium.
D) glutamate.

 

 

58. PET can:
A) detect the decay of radiochemicals.
B) detect relative amounts of neurotransmitters.
C) be used to study cognitive function.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

59. Stimuli related to rewarding behaviors such as food and sex are correlated with fluctuations of:
A) dopamine in the substantia nigra.
B) serotonin in the nucleus accumbens.
C) serotonin in the substantia nigra.
D) dopamine in the nucleus accumbens.

 

 

60. _____ is a procedure in which a cannula is implanted to collect extracellular fluid.
A) Microdialysis
B) Cerebral voltammetry
C) PET
D) Microiontophoresis

 

 

61. Cerebral voltammetry is used to measure:
A) neurotransmitter levels.
B) electrical activity using scalp electrodes.
C) electrical activity using large electrodes placed in the brain tissue.
D) electrical activity of single neurons.

 

 

62. One advantage of cerebral voltammetry over microdialysis is that it:
A) costs far less.
B) is not destructive in nature.
C) does not require chemical analysis of the extracellular fluid.
D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

63. Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) plays an important role in:
A) neural transmission.
B) neurotransmitter reuptake.
C) neural plasticity.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

64. Low levels of brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) have been associated with:
A) depression.
B) stroke.
C) Alzheimer’s disease.
D) Parkinson’s disease.

 

 

65. A study by Caspi and colleagues observed that if participants with the _____ genotype used cannabis in _____, they were more likely to develop psychosis.
A) Val; adulthood
B) Met; adolescence
C) Met; adulthood
D) Val; adolescence

 

 

66. The alleles Val 66Met and Val 66Val have been linked with:
A) ADHD.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) depression.
D) stroke.

 

 

67. The Met allele (gene) has been associated with:
A) neuroticism.
B) poor episodic memory.
C) anxiety disorders.
D) depression.

 

 

68. The COMT gene has been linked with:
A) depression.
B) schizophrenia.
C) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
D) dementia.

 

 

69. Epigenetics is:
A) the same as gene expression.
B) the study of the change in gene expression caused by experience.
C) the study of gene alteration.
D) the alteration of DNA sequences.

 

 

70. Research has linked maternal attention in early childhood with:
A) hippocampal volume.
B) temporal cortex volume.
C) basal ganglia volume.
D) both temporal cortex and basal ganglia volume.

 

 

71. Identical twins’ gene expression is:
A) virtually identical throughout life.
B) totally dissimilar throughout life.
C) similar when they are young but differs with age.
D) different when they are young but gets more similar with age.

 

 

72. Maternal attention given by mother rats to their infants alters the expression of certain genes in the:
A) hippocampus.
B) amygdala.
C) septum.
D) cingulate.

 

 

73. Humans who have a history of childhood abuse and who commit suicide show epigenetic differences in the:
A) cingulate.
B) septum.
C) hippocampus.
D) amygdala.

 

 

74. Which of the following uses a rat model?
A) Parkinson disease
B) stroke
C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

75. To receive ethics approval to use animals in an experiment, the researcher must demonstrate:
A) that the knowledge gained from the experiment is important enough to warrant the use of animals.
B) that no other methods are available to investigate the same question.
C) that the animals will be treated humanely,
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

76. ADD and ADHD have been linked with _____ in the _____.
A) abnormal dopamine levels; parietal lobes
B) abnormal dopamine levels; frontal lobes and basal ganglia
C) abnormal serotonin levels; frontal lobes and basal ganglia
D) abnormal noradrenaline levels; temporal lobes and amygdala

 

 

77. A recent review of ADD and ADHD by researchers demonstrated that:
A) rates of ADD and ADHD are higher in developed nations.
B) rates of ADD and ADHD are lower in developed nations.
C) rates of ADD and ADHD are the same in developed and developing nations if the same diagnostic criteria are used.
D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

78. Companies using animals for research generally follow good laboratory practice, because if they don’t:
A) their work will not be published in journals.
B) government agencies will not accept their findings.
C) they will be refused approval for clinical trials with humans.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

79. Companies that use animals for research:
A) must submit protocols to a university board.
B) must submit protocols to a government board.
C) must be overseen by the SPCA.
D) are not required to follow a screening process.

 

 

80. What is near-infrared spectroscopy? Why is it useful?

 

 

81. List three examples of neuropsychological tests. What are they used to examine?

 

 

82. What three tests make use of a hidden platform in a swimming pool to examine memory in rats?

 

 

83. What is a stereotaxic apparatus? What is it used for?

 

 

84. How does brain stimulation work? How is it used to treat Parkinson’s disease?

 

 

85. How does transcranial magnetic stimulation work? What does it study?

 

 

86. What is optogenetics? How is it used to excite and inhibit neurons?

 

 

87. What is an EEG? What are the features of the brain revealed by an EEG?

 

 

88. Differentiate extracellular from intracellular recording.

 

 

89. Describe the differences in patterns of EEG activity when a person is in an awake or excited state compared to a relaxed state with eyes closed.

 

 

90. How are ERPs different from an EEG? How can ERPs be used to examine the link between the brain and behavior?

 

 

91. What are event-related potentials?

 

 

92. What is a magnetoencephalogram (MEG)? How is it similar to an electroencephalogram and event-related potentials?

 

 

93. How does a CT scan work?

 

 

94. How does an MRI work?

 

 

95. What is diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)? What is it used to study?

 

 

96. What are the differences between an MRI and an fMRI?

 

 

97. What is a PET scan? What are its advantages over other imaging methods?

 

 

98. What is microdialysis? What does it study?

 

 

99. How does cerebral voltammetry work?

 

 

100. Describe epigenetics.

 

 

101. What are spatial and temporal resolutions? Why are these concepts important for brain imaging?

 

 

102. Give an example of an animal model for a human neurological disease. How are animal models useful for understanding neurological diseases?

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1. D
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. C
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. C
20. A
21. C
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. A
31. C
32. D
33. B
34. D
35. C
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. D
40. C
41. A
42. D
43. A
44. B
45. A
46. A
47. D
48. D
49. D
50. C
51. B
52. D
53. C
54. B
55. D
56. B
57. A
58. D
59. D
60. A
61. A
62. C
63. C
64. A
65. D
66. C
67. B
68. B
69. B
70. A
71. C
72. A
73. C
74. D
75. D
76. B
77. C
78. D
79. D
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.