Anatomy And Physiology From Science to Life, 2nd Edition by Jenkins, Gail – Test Bank

$22.00

Description

INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

Anatomy And Physiology From Science to Life, 2nd Edition by Jenkins, Gail – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

1. Which of the following bones DOES NOT contribute to the orbit?
A)  Palatine    B)  Nasal    C)  Maxilla    D)  Sphenoid    E)  Ethmoid
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

2. Which of the following bones contributes to the zygomatic arch (cheekbone)?
A)  Temporal    B)  Ethmoid    C)  Lacrimal    D)  Sphenoid    E)  Nasal
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  easy

 

3. The carotid canal is a landmark that is located on the:
A) sphenoid bone D) zygomatic bone
B) mandible E) occipital bone
C) temporal bone
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

4. The branch of medicine that deals with correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system is called
A)  Rheumatics    B)  Podiatry    C)  Orthopedics    D)  Cardiology    E)  Internist
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  easy

 

5. How many bones are found in a typical adult human skeleton?
A)  200    B)  206    C)  212    D)  227    E)  250
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  easy

 

6. Which of the following is FALSE?
A) Typically, the axial skeleton has 80 bones
B) Typically, the appendicular skeleton has 126 bones
C) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body.
D) Children have more bones than adults.
E) The Appendicular skeleton does not include the girdles.
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  easy

 

7. Which of the following is found in the appendicular skeleton?
A)  Hyoid    B)  Ribs    C)  Vertebrae    D)  Carpals    E)  Sternum
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

8. Which of the following is found in the axial skeleton?
A)  Tarsal bone    B)  Tibia    C)  Sphenoid    D)  Scapula    E)  Clavicle
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

9. Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone?
A) Some allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels through the bone.
B) Some serve as attachments for muscles.
C) They provide movement within the bone.
D) They help form joints.
E) Two of the types are a depression or a projection.
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

10. Bones in the following area protect the brain:
A)  Cranium    B)  Vertebral column    C)  Sacrum    D)  Cervical    E)  Thorax
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  easy

 

11. Which of the following is not a facial bone?
A)  Parietal    B)  Nasal    C)  Maxilla    D)  Zygomatic    E)  Palatine
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

12. Which is a FALSE statement regarding the skull bones?
A) They include bony cavities lined with mucous membranes.
B) The only moveable bone in the face is the mandible.
C) The skull contains foraminas but no fissures.
D) The facial bones provide support for the entrances into the digestive and respiratory systems.
E) They protect the central nervous system.
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

13. Which of the following bones is not visible from the anterior view of the skull?
A)  Parietal    B)  Frontal    C)  Mandible    D)  Occipital    E)  Maxilla
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

14. These bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial floor.
A)  Frontal    B)  Temporal    C)  Parietal    D)  Occipital    E)  Nasal
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

15. These bones house the organs of hearing and balance and articulate with the mandible.
A)  Frontal    B)  Temporal    C)  Parietal    D)  Occipital    E)  Nasal
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

16. The mastoid process:
A) is a rounded projection of the parietal bones.
B) is the point of attachment for several neck muscles.
C) is anterior to the external auditory meatus.
D) is found on the occipital bone.
E) is a mandibular landmark.
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  hard

 

17. These projections on either side of the foramen magnum articulate with depressions on the first cervical vertebrae.
A) Mastoid processes D) Occipital condyles
B) Temporomandibular joint E) Sella turcica
C) Foramen magnum
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

18. Which cranial bone articulates with every other cranial bone?
A)  Occipital    B)  Frontal    C)  Ethmoid    D)  Nasal    E)  Sphenoid
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  easy

 

19. This cranial bone lies anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
A)  Ethmoid    B)  Frontal    C)  Palatine    D)  Maxilla    E)  Temporal
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

20. This facial bone articulates with teeth.
A)  Lacrimal    B)  Palatine    C)  Vomer    D)  Maxilla    E)  Nasal
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

21. Which of the following is not a facial bone?
A)  Vomer    B)  Palatine    C)  Lacrimal    D)  Occipital    E)  Mandible
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

22. Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone?
A)  Vertebrae    B)  Ethmoid    C)  Sternum    D)  Hyoid    E)  Ilium
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

23. Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death?
A) Natural causes D) Strangulation
B) Cardiac arrest E) Choking
C) Gun shot
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

24. What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus?
A) To compress the vertebral bones D) Spinal fluid reservoir
B) To absorb vertical shock E) Muscle attachment
C) Calcium storage
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

25. The function of vertebral processes is:
A) to serve as attachment sites for muscles.
B) calcium storage.
C) to support the body of the vertebrae.
D) to hold the hyoid in place.
E) to allow passage of the spinal cord.
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

26. What landmark is found on the second cervical vertebrae?
A) Primary projection D) Cervical projection
B) Ocular process E) Cervix
C) Odontoid process
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  easy

 

27. Of the following, which is the largest individual vertebra?
A)  C5    B)  L4    C)  T4    D)  C7    E)  T12
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

28. On the sacrum, the inferior entrance to the vertebral canal is called the:.
A) Sacral cornua D) Anterior sacral foramina
B) Sacral hiatus E) Median sacral crest
C) Lateral sacral crest
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  hard

 

29. Which sex exhibits an anteriorly oriented coccyx?
A) Females
B) Males
C) Both sexes
D) The coccyx does not point anteriorly in either sex
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  easy

 

30. Which sex exhibits an inferiorly oriented coccyx?
A) Females
B) Males
C) Both sexes
D) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either sex
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  easy

 

31. What is the junction between the manubrium and the body of the sternum called?
A) Suprasternal notch D) Sternoclavicular joint
B) Xiphoid process E) Manubrium joint
C) Sternal angle
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  hard

 

32. Which of the following bones DOES NOT contain sinuses?
A)  Frontal    B)  Maxilla    C)  Ethmoid    D)  Sphenoid    E)  Palatine
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

33. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) All cervical vertebrae have transverse foramina.
B) All thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs.
C) All cervical vertebrae have bifid spinous processes.
D) Lumbar vertebrae are robust, and reflect their weight bearing role.
E) The first cervical vertebra is called the atlas.
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

34. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) All cervical vertebrae have transverse foramina.
B) All thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs.
C) Some cervical vertebrae have bifid spinous processes.
D) Lumbar vertebrae are robust, and reflect their weight bearing role.
E) The first cervical vertebra is called the axis.
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

35. The stylomastoid foramen is a landmark found on this bone:
A)  parietal    B)  hyoid    C)  temporal    D)  mandible    E)  ethmoid
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

36. The infraorbital foramen is a landmark found on this bone:
A)  parietal    B)  maxilla    C)  temporal    D)  mandible    E)  ethmoid
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

37. The external auditory meatus is a landmark found on this bone:
A)  parietal    B)  maxilla    C)  temporal    D)  mandible    E)  ethmoid
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

38. The internal auditory meatus is a landmark found on this bone:
A)  parietal    B)  maxilla    C)  temporal    D)  mandible    E)  ethmoid
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

39. The cribiform plate is a landmark found on this bone:
A)  parietal    B)  maxilla    C)  temporal    D)  mandible    E)  ethmoid
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

40. The jugular foramen is found between the:
A) parietal and temporal bones D) sphenoid and ethmoid bones
B) maxilla and mandible E) sphenoid and temporal bones
C) temporal and occipital bones
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

41. The squamous suture is found between the:
A) parietal and temporal bones D) sphenoid and ethmoid bones
B) frontal and parietal bones E) sphenoid and temporal bones
C) temporal and occipital bones
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

42. The coronal suture is found between the:
A) parietal and temporal bones D) sphenoid and ethmoid bones
B) frontal and parietal bones E) sphenoid and temporal bones
C) temporal and occipital bones
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

43. The foramen lacerum is found between the:
A) parietal and temporal bones
B) maxilla and mandible
C) temporal and occipital bones
D) sphenoid and ethmoid bones
E) sphenoid, temporal and occipital bones
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

44. The superior orbital fissure is a landmark formed by this bone:
A)  parietal    B)  sphenoid    C)  temporal    D)  mandible    E)  ethmoid
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

45. The optic canal is a landmark found on this bone:
A)  parietal    B)  sphenoid    C)  temporal    D)  mandible    E)  ethmoid
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 46-52:

 

 

46. In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

47. In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?
A)  E    B)  F    C)  G    D)  H    E)  I
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

48. In the diagram, which bone primarily forms the roof of the cranial cavity?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  G
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

49. In the diagram, which bone articulates with every other bone of the face except the mandible?
A)  F    B)  G    C)  H    D)  I    E)  J
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  hard

 

50. In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?
A)  G    B)  H    C)  I    D)  J    E)  None of the above
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

51. In the diagram, where is the temporal bone?
A)  H    B)  K    C)  C    D)  J    E)  A
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

52. In the diagram, where is the vomer?
A)  D    B)  E    C)  F    D)  I    E)  J
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 53-57:

 

 

53. In this diagram, which bone includes the foramen magnum as one of its landmarks?
A)  B    B)  C    C)  D    D)  F    E)  G
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  hard

 

54. In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the skull?
A)  E    B)  B    C)  G    D)  H    E)  I
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

55. In the diagram, where is the frontal bone?
A)  J    B)  K    C)  D    D)  H    E)  I
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

56. In the diagram, where is the styloid process?
A)  J    B)  K    C)  G    D)  H    E)  I
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

57. In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?
A)  J    B)  K    C)  G    D)  H    E)  I
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 58-62:

 

 

58. In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  G
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

59. In the diagram, where is the superior nuchal line?
A)  A    B)  E    C)  F    D)  H    E)  I
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

60. In the diagram, where is the foramen magnum?
A)  C    B)  D    C)  G    D)  H    E)  I
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

61. In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?
A)  B    B)  E    C)  H    D)  G    E)  I
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

62. In the diagram, where is the palatine process of the right maxilla?
A)  B    B)  E    C)  H    D)  G    E)  I
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 63-67:

 

 

63. In the diagram, where is the foramen ovale?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  hard

 

64. In the diagram, where is the mandibular fossa?
A)  B    B)  C    C)  D    D)  E    E)  F
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

65. In the diagram, where is the stylomastoid foramen?
A)  C    B)  D    C)  E    D)  F    E)  G
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  hard

 

66. In the diagram, where is the vomer?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

67. In the diagram, where is the foramen spinosum?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  G    E)  H
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  hard

 

Use the following to answer questions 68-70:

 

 

68. In the diagram, where are the crista galli?
A)  D    B)  E    C)  F    D)  G    E)  H
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

69. In the diagram, where is the foramen rotundum?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  E    E)  F
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

70. In the diagram, where is the foramen lacerum?
A)  C    B)  D    C)  E    D)  F    E)  G
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  hard

 

Use the following to answer questions 71-72:

 

 

71. In the diagram, these are the only bones involved in the sense of smell.
A)  C    B)  D    C)  E    D)  F    E)  G
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  hard

 

72. In the diagram, where is the perpendicular plate?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  F    E)  G
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 73-75:

 

 

73. Where is the mental foramen in the diagram?
A)  C    B)  D    C)  E    D)  F    E)  A
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

74. Where is the mandibular notch in the diagram?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  E    D)  F    E)  C
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

75. Where is the coronoid process in the diagram?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  E    D)  F    E)  D
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 76-77:

 

 

76. This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  Both A and C
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

77. These fontanels begin closing within the first month or two after birth but do not completely close until close to one year after birth.
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  All of the above
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 78-80:

 

 

78. Where is the inferior articular process in the diagram?
A)  C    B)  D    C)  E    D)  F    E)  A
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

79. In the diagram, where is the pedicle of the vertebral arch?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  F
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

80. Where is the spinous process in the diagram?
A)  A    B)  C    C)  D    D)  E    E)  F
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 81-82:

 

 

81. Which of the cervical vertebra is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

82. Which of the cervical vertebra is responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 83-87:

 

 

83. Where is the superior vertebral notch?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  F    D)  G    E)  K
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

84. Where is the facet for articular part of the tubercle of the rib?
A)  B    B)  C    C)  D    D)  H    E)  I
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

85. Where is the pedicle?
A)  B    B)  H    C)  I    D)  K    E)  D
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

86. Where is the superior demifacet?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  F    D)  G    E)  E
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

87. Where is the superior articular facet?
A)  C    B)  A    C)  H    D)  I    E)  J
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 88-90:

 

 

88. In the diagram, which part is most often broken during CPR?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  D    D)  F    E)  E
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  hard

 

89. Where is the clavicular notch?
A)  A    B)  C    C)  D    D)  B    E)  F
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

90. Where is the sternal angle?
A)  A    B)  C    C)  D    D)  E    E)  F
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

91. Describe all the regions of the adult vertebral column including how many bones are in each region.
Ans: There are seven cervical vertebrae in the neck region. There are twelve thoracic vertebrae posterior to the thoracic cavity. The five lumbar vertebrae support the lower back. There is one fused sacrum vertebrae consisting of five fused bones. There is one coccyx consisting of four fused bones.
Difficulty:  medium

 

92. Briefly describe the bones of the of the eye orbits. Include the areas formed by each bone.
Ans: Parts of the frontal and sphenoid bones comprise the roof of the orbit. Parts of the zygomatic and sphenoid bones form the lateral wall of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, zygomatic and palatine bones make up the floor of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones form the medial wall of the orbit.
Difficulty:  medium

 

93. Briefly describe the location each of the four sutures by identifying the bones that they connect.
Ans: The coronal suture unites the frontal bone and both parietal bones. The sagittal suture unites the two parietal bones on the superior midline of the skull. The lambdoid suture unites the two parietal bones with the occipital bone. The squamous suture unites the parietal and temporal bones on the lateral aspects of the skull.
Difficulty:  medium

 

94. Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.
Ans: The fontanels are important in allowing flexibility of the skull during childbirth and allow for brain growth.
Difficulty:  medium

 

95. Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
Ans: The sinuses lighten the skull and contain a mucus membrane that cleans inspired air.
Difficulty:  medium
1. This type of joint is held together by fibrous connective tissue.
A) Fibrous joint D) Both fibrous and cartilaginous joints
B) Cartilaginous joint E) All of the above
C) Synovial joint
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  Easy

 

2. Which of the following factors is FALSE regarding the stability of the “hip” joint?
A) The articular capsule is very dense and strong tissue that extends from the rim of the acetabulum to the neck of the femur.
B) The acetabular labrum is a rim of fibrocartilage that increases the depth of the socket, thus making dislocation rare.
C) Several strong reinforcing ligaments include the iliofemoral and ischiofemoral ligaments, which are made of dense regular connective tissue and provide support to the joint.
D) The hip joint is formed by the extremely stable articulation of the femur to the coxal bone via a cartilaginous joint consisting of hyaline cartilage.
E) Several large muscles cross the joint and contribute to its stability.
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

3. Synovial membranes are found lining the cavities of synovial joints, and are made of areolar connective tissue and simple squamous epithelium.
Ans:  False     Difficulty:  medium

 

4. Which of the following synovial structural sub-classifications best describes the joint found between your carpal bone and the metacarpal of your thumb?
A)  Condyloid    B)  Plane    C)  Hinge    D)  Saddle    E)  Symphysis
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

5. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the medial meniscus of the knee joint?
A) It is made of elastic cartilage.
B) It has a ligamentous attachment to the fibula.
C) It is firmly attached to the tibial collateral ligament.
D) It is easily healed if injured.
E) It is firmly attached to the femoral condyles.
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

6. Which of the following terms best describes the structural classification of the joint found between the first rib and the sternum?
A) Synovial D) Synarthrotic
B) Symphysis E) Gomphosis
C) Synchondrosis
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

7. Which of the following terms best describes the functional classification of the joint found between the epiphysis and diaphysis of a growing bone?
A) Synchondrosis D) Synovial
B) Symphysis E) Synostosis
C) Synarthrotic
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

8. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the synovial membrane?
A) It produces synovial fluid, which acts to reduce friction, absorb shock, and supply oxygen and nutrients to the chondrocytes within the articular cartilage.
B) It is composed of dense irregular connective tissue, with abundant collagen fibers.
C) It is the deepest layer of the articular capsule.
D) It is a component of all synovial joints.
E) It has no epithelial component.
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

9. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding synovial joints?
A) All synovial joints are diarthrotic joints.
B) Synovial joints are characterized by a joint cavity.
C) The fibrous layer of the articular capsule associated with synovial joints is made of areolar connective tissue.
D) Synovial fluid is rich in hyaluronic acid and serves to reduce friction by lubricating the joint.
E) An example of a synovial joint is the proximal radioulnar joint.
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

10. An immovable joint found between skull bones is called a:
A) Condyle D) Synovial joint
B) Cartilaginous joint E) Synchondrosis
C) Suture
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  easy

 

11. This type of joint lacks a cavity.
A) Fibrous D) Both fibrous and cartilaginous joints
B) Cartilaginous E) All of the above
C) Synovial
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

12. This type of joint is freely movable.
A) Synarthrosis D) Both amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis
B) Amphiarthrosis E) All of the above
C) Diarthrosis
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

13. How is a suture classified functionally?
A) Synarthrotic D) Synovial
B) Amphiarthrotic E) Cartilaginous
C) Diarthrotic
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

14. In this type of fibrous joint, the connective tissue is arranged either as a bundle or as a sheet.
A) Suture D) Both suture and gomphosis
B) Gomphosis E) Both gomphosis and syndesmosis
C) Syndesmosis
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

15. Another term for this joint is dentoalveolar joint.
A) Syndesmosis D) Symphysis
B) Gomphosis E) Suture
C) Synchondrosis
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

16. The epiphyseal plate is an example of this type of joint.
A)  Gomphosis    B)  Suture    C)  Symphysis    D)  Synovial    E)  Synchondrosis
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

17. The joint between the first rib and the manubrium of the sternum is classified as a
A) Synchondrosis D) All of the above
B) Synarthrosis E) None of the above
C) Cartilaginous joint
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

18. Where do symphyses occur?
A) Upper limbs D) Ankles
B) Lower limbs E) Knees
C) Midline of the body
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

19. Which of the following is FALSE regarding synovial joints?
A) are characterized by a joint cavity.
B) are freely moveable.
C) have bones covered in hyaline cartilage at their articulating ends.
D) include elastic cartilage.
E) have reinforcing ligaments.
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

20. Which of the following is made from dense regular connective tissue?
A) Ligaments D) Synovial membrane
B) articular E) Synovial fluid
C) Articular fat pads
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  easy

 

21. Examples of these include the fibular and tibial collateral ligaments of the knee joint.
A) Synovial membranes D) accessory ligaments
B) Articular fat pads E) Tendon sheath
C) Menisci
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  hard

 

22. Another term for menisci are
A) Articular fat pads D) Capsular fat pads
B) Articular discs E) Capsular discs
C) Articular spaces
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  easy

 

23. Articular discs
A) maintain the stability of a joint
B) may be found in a synovial joint
C) are made of hyaline cartilage
D) are only found in the vertebral column
E) both a and b
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

24. These reduce friction in joints.
A) Bursae D) Elastic fibers
B) Synovial fluid E) Both a and b
C) Accessory ligaments
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

25. Which of the following is NOT used to reduce friction at joints?
A) Tendon sheaths D) Menisci
B) Synovial fluid E) All of the above reduce friction
C) Bursae
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  hard

 

26. This type of motion results from relatively flat bone surfaces moving back and forth and from side to side with respect to one another.
A)  Flexion    B)  Extension    C)  Gliding    D)  Circumduction    E)  Hyperextension
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  easy

 

27. Type of movement where there is a decrease in the angle between articulating bones.
A)  Flexion    B)  Extension    C)  Gliding    D)  Circumduction    E)  Rotation
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  easy

 

28. Bending the trunk forward at the intervertebral discs is an example of what type of angular movement?
A) Flexion D) Hyperextension
B) Extension E) None of the above
C) Lateral flexion
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

29. Flexion and extension usually occur along which plane?
A)  Frontal    B)  Transverse    C)  Sagittal    D)  Oblique    E)  None of the above
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

30. Examples of this type of movement include moving the humerus away from the midline of the body.
A) Lateral flexion D) Abduction
B) Hyperextension E) Gliding
C) Adduction
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

31. This type of movement is a continuous sequence of flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction.
A) Gliding D) Circumduction
B) Lateral flexion E) Elevation
C) Hyperextension
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

32. Which of the following is not considered a special movement?
A)  Depression    B)  Protraction    C)  Elevation    D)  Supination    E)  Flexion
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  easy

 

33. Which of the following bones can NOT be elevated or depressed?
A)  Hyoid    B)  Clavicle    C)  Ribs    D)  Maxilla    E)  Mandible
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  hard

 

34. This special movement occurs when you roll back on your heels.
A)  Inversion    B)  Eversion    C)  Dorsiflexion    D)  Plantar flexion    E)  Supination
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

35. This special movement includes the ability of your thumb to move across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers on the same hand.
A)  Pronation    B)  Supination    C)  Eversion    D)  Retraction    E)  Opposition
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

36. Which of the following is not a structural category of synovial joint?
A)  Planar    B)  Hinge    C)  Condyloid    D)  Inversion    E)  Saddle
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

37. In this type of joint, the rounded or pointed surface of one bone articulates with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by a ligament.
A) Pivot joint D) Ball-and-socket joint
B) Planar joint E) Saddle joint
C) Hinge joint
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

38. Which structural subclass best describes the tarsometatarsal joints?
A)  planar    B)  pivot    C)  ball and socket    D)  condyloid    E)  saddle
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

39. What structural subclass best describes the atlanto-axial joint between the dens of the axis and the anterior arch of the atlas?
A)  planar    B)  pivot    C)  ball and socket    D)  condyloid    E)  symphysis
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

40. In anatomical position, the antebrachium is:
A) pronated D) medially rotated
B) laterally flexed E) opposed
C) supinated
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  easy

 

41. This refers to the range through which the bones of a joint can be moved.
A)  Axial    B)  Biaxial    C)  Multiaxial    D)  Range of motion    E)  Disuse
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

42. Which of the following structures is associated with the glenohumeral joint?
A) Subacromial bursa D) Iliofemoral ligament
B) Radial collateral ligament E) Acetabular labrum
C) Medial meniscus
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

43. Which of the following structures is associated with the coxal joint?
A) Subacromial bursa D) Iliofemoral ligament
B) Radial collateral ligament E) Glenoid labrum
C) Medial meniscus
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

44. This structure is the:
A) Pubofemoral ligament D) Oblique Popliteal ligament
B) Coracohumeral ligament E) Ischiofemoral ligament
C) Iliofemoral ligament
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

45. Which of the following structures is NOT associated with the glenohumeral joint?
A) Subacromial bursa D) Articular capsule
B) Coracohumeral ligament E) Glenoid labrum
C) Oblique Popliteal ligament
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

46. This structure is the:
A) Pubofemoral ligament D) Oblique Popliteal ligament
B) Coracohumeral ligament E) Ischiofemoral ligament
C) Iliofemoral ligament
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

47. This structure is the:
A) Pubofemoral ligament D) Oblique Popliteal ligament
B) Coracohumeral ligament E) Ischiofemoral ligament
C) Iliofemoral ligament
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

48. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding this structure?
A) It is called the acetabular labrum.
B) It is composed primarily of fibrocartilage.
C) It contributes to the stability of the hip joint.
D) It is enclosed within the articular capsule.
E) It is a bony lip that extends around the head of the femur.
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

49. Identify this structure.
A) Subdeltoid bursa D) Subacromial bursa
B) Subcoracoid bursa E) Suprapatellar bursa
C) Subscapular bursa
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

50. Identify this structure.
A) Acetabulum D) Coracoid process
B) Glenoid cavity E) Humeral head
C) Acromion
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

51. Which one of these muscles is NOT part of the rotator cuff muscle group?
A) Supraspinatus D) Teres minor
B) Infraspinatus E) Teres major
C) Subscapularis
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

52. Which of the following structures is NOT associated with the coxal joint?
A) Iliofemoral ligament D) Ligament of the head of the femur
B) Glenoid labrum E) Ischiofemoral ligament
C) Pubofemoral ligament
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

53. Which of the following structures is associated with the elbow?
A) Subacromial bursa D) Iliofemoral ligament
B) Radial collateral ligament E) Acetabular labrum
C) Medial meniscus
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

54. Bending the foot at the ankle joint such as when you stand on your toes is called:
A) Plantar flexion D) Dorsiflexion
B) Pronation E) Opposition
C) Inversion
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  easy

 

55. This structure is the:
A) Annular ligament of the radius D) Oblique Popliteal ligament
B) Coracohumeral ligament E) Ulnar collateral ligament
C) Radial collateral ligament
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

56. This structure is the:
A) Patellar ligament D) Oblique Popliteal ligament
B) Fibular collateral ligament E) Arcuate popliteal ligament
C) Tibial collateral ligament
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

57. This structure is the:
A) Patellar ligament D) Oblique Popliteal ligament
B) Fibular collateral ligament E) Arcuate popliteal ligament
C) Tibial collateral ligament
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

58. This structure is the:
A) Patellar ligament D) Oblique Popliteal ligament
B) Fibular collateral ligament E) Arcuate popliteal ligament
C) Tibial collateral ligament
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

59. This structure is the:
A) Medial meniscus D) Posterior cruciate ligament
B) Transverse ligament of the knee E) Fibular collateral ligament
C) Anterior cruciate ligament
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

60. This structure is the:
A) Medial meniscus D) Posterior cruciate ligament
B) Transverse ligament of the knee E) Fibular collateral ligament
C) Anterior cruciate ligament
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

61. The anterior cruciate ligament has an attachment to the:
A) posterior intercondylar area of the tibia
B) lateral surface of the medial condyle of the femur
C) tibial tuberosity
D) head of the fibula
E) medial surface of the lateral condyle of the femur
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  hard

 

62. The posterior cruciate ligament has an attachment to the:
A) posterior intercondylar area of the tibia
B) medial surface of the medial condyle of the femur
C) tibial tuberosity
D) head of the fibula
E) lateral surface of the lateral condyle of the femur
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  hard

 

63. What type of tissue makes up the fibrous portion of a synovial joint’s articular capsule?
A) Hyaline cartilage D) Areolar connective tissue
B) Dense irregular connective tissue E) Simple squamous epithelium
C) Dense regular connective tissue
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

64. In the above diagram of a suture joint, where is the spongy bone?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  Both a and c    E)  Both a and b
Ans:  B     Difficulty:  easy

 

Use the following to answer questions 65-66:

 

 

65. In the diagram, which type of joint is represented?
A)  Suture    B)  Syndesmosis    C)  Symphysis    D)  Cartilaginous    E)  Synovial
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  easy

 

66. In the diagram, which type of joint is represented?
A)  Suture    B)  Syndesmoses    C)  Symphysis    D)  Synovial    E)  Synchondrosis
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  easy

 

Use the following to answer questions 67-73:

 

 

67. In the figure, which represents a saddle joint?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  easy

 

68. In the diagram, which one represents a pivot joint?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  easy

 

69. In the figure, which one represents a multiaxial joint?
A)  B    B)  C    C)  D    D)  E    E)  F
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

70. In the figure, which represents a biaxial joint?
A)  B    B)  C    C)  D    D)  E    E)  Both D and E
Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

71. In the figure, which one is not monoaxial?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  E    E)  All are monoaxial
Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

72. In the figure shown, which one represents a condyloid joint?
A)  B    B)  C    C)  D    D)  E    E)  F
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

73. In the figure, which one permits only side to side, and back and forth gliding movements?
A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  Both a and b    E)  Both b and c
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

74. Which type of joint permits this type of movement?
A)  Synovial    B)  Cartilaginous    C)  Fibrous    D)  Both a and b    E)  Both b and c
Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

75. Which of the following shows a movement only seen in the intervertebral joints?
A)  B    B)  F    C)  G    D)  D    E)  A
Ans:  C     Difficulty:  easy

 

76. Briefly describe the structural classifications of joints.
Ans: Joints can be classified structural based on two criteria: 1) the presence or absence of a space between the articulating bones called a synovial cavity and 2) the type of connective tissue that binds the bones together. The structural types of joints include fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial.
Difficulty:  medium

 

77. Describe the functions of synovial fluid
Ans: Synovial fluid reduces friction and absorbs shock. It also carries nutrients to and wastes away from the articular cartilage’s cell population.
Difficulty:  easy

 

78. Briefly describe what is happening when a person “cracks their knuckles”.
Ans: When the synovial cavity expands, the pressure of the synovial fluid decreases, creating a partial vacuum. The suction draws carbon dioxide and oxygen out of the blood vessels in the synovial membrane, forming bubbles in the fluid. When the bubbles are forced to burst, as when the fingers are hyperflexed, the cracking or popping sound is heard.
Difficulty:  medium

 

79. Briefly describe the three types of functional classifications of joints.
Ans: Joints can be classified functionally as synarthrosis, which is totally immovable, amphiarthrosis that has slight movement, and diarthrosis, which is a freely moveable joint.
Difficulty:  medium

 

0.0/5
0 reviews
0
0
0
0
0

There are no reviews yet.

Be the first to review “Anatomy And Physiology From Science to Life, 2nd Edition by Jenkins, Gail – Test Bank”