Anatomy of Orofacial Structures 7th Edition by Brand – Test Bank

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Anatomy of Orofacial Structures 7th Edition by Brand – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

 

Chapter 03: Fundamental and Preventive Curvatures

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Embrasures are spillways between the teeth that allow food to be shunted away from contact areas. While effective embrasures are self-cleaning, poorly contoured embrasures lead to gingival irritation and breakdown.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true; the second is false.
c. The first statement is false; the second is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   A

Both statements correctly describe features of embrasures. The terms embrasure and spillway are often used synonymously. In addition to shunting food and self-cleansing aspects, effective embrasures permit a slight amount of gingival stimulation by frictionally massaging food. Poorly contoured embrasures decrease the beneficial aspects of embrasures and lead to accumulation of plaque, debris, and food.

 

REF:    pp. 30-31

 

  1. Each of the following statements is true of the curvature of the CEJ EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. The curvature of the cervical line, or CEJ, depends on the height of the contact area.
b. The curvature of the cervical line, or CEJ, depends on the diameter of the crown.
c. The mandibular anterior teeth show the greatest amount of curvature of the cervical line.
d. The more anterior the tooth, the greater is the curvature of the cervical line.

 

 

ANS:   C

The maxillary anterior teeth show the greatest amount of curvature of the cervical line. The more anterior the tooth, then the greater is the curvature. The remaining statements are correctly stated.

 

REF:    p. 33

 

  1. Height of contour is the same as
a. Embrasure
b. Crest of curvature
c. Alignment
d. Proximal contact
e. Width of tooth

 

 

ANS:   B

Height of contour is also called crest of curvature and relates to the curvature of the cervical line, or the CEJ. The height of the contour impacts periodontal attachment in that a higher contoured cervical line affords more cementum on which the bone can attach itself. The periodontal attachment follows the cervical line and connects the gingiva to the cementum.

 

REF:    p. 33

 

  1. Each of the following is a function of embrasures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Provide self-cleansing from the contact area.
b. Reduce occlusal trauma.
c. Discourage food impaction.
d. Prevent gingival stimulation.

 

 

ANS:   D

Embrasures, also called spillways, permit a slight amount of stimulation to the gingiva by frictional massage of food while at the same time protecting the gingiva from undue trauma. Embrasures provide the remaining protective features, which promote periodontal health and preserve the dentition.

 

REF:    pp. 30-31

 

  1. Posterior teeth have contact areas slightly buccal to the center of the teeth. Lingual embrasures of posterior teeth are wider than buccal embrasures.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true; the second is false.
c. The first statement is false; the second is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   A

Posterior teeth have contact areas slightly buccal to the center of the teeth. Consequently, buccolingually the lingual embrasures are wider than the facial embrasures The reason is that from their contact point outward, teeth are narrower on the lingual side than on the facial side. These relationships are apparent when viewed occlusally.

 

REF:    p. 31

 

  1. Each of the following is a characteristic of contact areas EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Stabilize teeth
b. Discourage food impaction
c. Are located in middle third of tooth
d. Protect interdental papilla
e. All of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:   C

Contact areas are located in different positions on the proximal surfaces depending upon the location of the teeth. A helpful rule: the more posterior the tooth, then the more cervical is the location of its contact area. From a facial view the contact areas of anterior teeth are located closer to the incisal surfaces of the teeth whereas the posterior teeth have their contact areas nearer to the middle third of the teeth. Viewed occlusally, the contact areas of anterior teeth are located in the center between the labial and lingual surfaces of the tooth. Also viewed occlusally, posterior teeth have contact areas slightly buccal to the center of the teeth. Functional contact areas perform a multitude of protective functions including those listed in the question.

 

REF:    pp. 31-32

 

  1. A molar with little or no curvature on the buccal surface would result in
a. Open contact area
b. Overstimulation of gingiva
c. Inadequate stimulation of gingiva
d. Difficult oral hygiene access

 

 

ANS:   B

Curvature of the buccal and lingual surfaces provides the right amount of gingival stimulation by deflecting food. Inadequate curvature results in too much deflection of food, which causes overstimulation of the gingival tissues. This action, combined with food being forced into the gingival crevice, contributes to gingival inflammation, periodontal disease, or tissue recession. The shapes of the teeth aid greatly in prevention of periodontal disease.

 

REF:    p. 32

 

  1. Interproximal spaces lie between the teeth and the bone on one side and the proximal surfaces and their contact area on the other side. Interproximal spaces are U-shaped in posterior regions and more rounded in anterior regions.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
c. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   B

Interproximal spaces are triangular-shaped in all regions of the mouth. The contact area forms the apex of the triangle, the proximal surfaces form the sides, and the alveolar bone makes up the base.

 

REF:    p. 29

 

  1. Each of the following can be damaged by an overhanging restoration EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Contact point
b. Marginal gingiva
c. Plaque retention
d. Alveolar bone
e. Contact area

 

 

ANS:   A

A contact point is where the occlusal cusp of one tooth touches the occlusal portion of the opposing arch. Although an overhanging restoration would not affect the contact point, the health and position of the marginal gingiva; plaque retention and accumulation; integrity of the alveolar bone; and the contact AREA would all be affected. Note that the contact point and the contact area differ significantly. Also note that with time and progressive periodontal damage, teeth may drift and ultimately may also affect the contact point!

 

REF:    p. 29 | pp. 34-35

 

  1. Each of the following is part of the periodontium EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Enamel
b. Cementum
c. Free gingiva
d. Alveolar mucosa
e. Alveolar bone

 

 

ANS:   A

The periodontium consists of the free gingiva, attached gingiva, alveolar mucosa, cementum, periodontal ligament, and the alveolar bone. Enamel is not part of the periodontium; it forms the outer surface of the anatomic crown.

 

REF:    p. 15 | p. 34

 

  1. Deep pits and fissures on the occlusal surface
a. Serve as spillways
b. Help to grind and pulverize food
c. Promote plaque retention
d. Allow for interdigitation during chewing
e. All of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:   E

While it may seem that deep pits, fissures, or holes in the enamel make cleaning difficult, these structures have numerous beneficial aspects. By serving as spillways during mastication, pits and fissures enable food to pass around the teeth. This action prevents food from being forced interproximally. Pits and fissures facilitate interdigitation of opposing cusps during grinding of food, which dissipates extreme occlusal forces. Along with these beneficial aspects, deep pits and fissures promote plaque retention.

 

REF:    p. 30 | pp. 33-34

 

  1. Which illustration in depicts an overcontoured restoration?
a.
b.
c.

 

 

ANS:   C

Illustration “c” depicts an overcontoured restoration. The arrows indicate that food is being deflected in such a way that the gingival tissue is neither stimulated nor cleaned by the frictional action of food. Also apparent are mesial and distal contours that do not replicate the natural shape of the tooth.

 

REF:    p. 34

 

  1. What are the arrows pointing to in the illustration below?
a. Contact areas
b. Height of curvature
c. Buccal contour
d. Excess curvature
e. None of the above

 

 

ANS:   B

The arrows are pointing to the buccal and lingual crests of the height of the curvature of the crown. The buccal height of curvature is at the cervical third; the lingual height of curvature is at the middle third on maxillary and mandibular premolars and molars.

 

REF:    p. 32

 

  1. An oral examination of Mrs. Connors, a new patient, reveals numerous restorations and two porcelain crowns. Mrs. Connors has been concerned about two maxillary molars where floss shreds or breaks. She also mentions that her gums “always hurt around my big crown.” The MOST likely cause for Mrs. Connors’s difficulty in flossing is
a. Rough enamel
b. Rough cementum
c. An overhanging restoration
d. Improper flossing technique

 

 

ANS:   C

The “big crown” described in the question is likely poorly contoured and extends beyond the natural tooth contours. Such overhanging restorations cause numerous challenges to interproximal cleaning including increased retention of plaque, bacteria, and food. Because the restoration does not properly adapt to tooth contours, maneuvering floss is difficult and ineffective. These difficulties result in damage to the gingival tissues.

 

REF:    pp. 34-35

 

  1. An oral examination of Mrs. Connors, a new patient, reveals numerous restorations and two porcelain crowns. Mrs. Connors has been concerned about two maxillary molars where floss shreds or breaks. She also mentions that her gums “always hurt around my big crown.” The painful gingiva surrounding her overcontoured crown is caused by
a. Inadequate stimulation of gingiva
b. Gingival recession
c. Periodontal disease
d. Food impaction

 

 

ANS:   C

The “big crown” described by Mrs. Connors was overcontoured by the restorative dentist. The extreme curvature of such restorations results in food being deflected in such a way that the gingival tissue is inadequately stimulated and cleaned by frictional action. This causes bacterial accumulation and proliferation at the free gingival margin with resultant gingival damage. Edematous, puffy, inflamed tissues contribute to breakdown of supporting periodontal structures.

 

REF:    p. 34

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. An overhanging restoration extends above the occlusal surface and prevents normal occlusal contact between the arches.

 

ANS:   F

An overhanging restoration extends into the interproximal area, promoting retention and buildup of plaque, bacteria, and food. Such a response is damaging to surrounding gingival and periodontal tissues.

 

REF:    p. 35

 

  1. The facial crest of curvature for all teeth is located at the cervical third.

 

ANS:   T

The facial height, or crest, of tooth contour allows for maximum cleaning of the lips and cheeks. In general the location of the facial (buccal and labial) height of contour of both anterior and posterior teeth is always at the cervical third of the tooth. The crest/height of curvature refers to the widest part of the crown of the tooth.

 

REF:    p. 32

 

  1. The curvature of the CEJ is generally greater on the mesial surfaces.

 

ANS:   T

The mesial curvature of a tooth is greater than the distal curvature of the same tooth. Also pertinent, the maxillary anterior teeth show the greatest amount of curvature of the cervical line. The cervical line is also called the cementoenamel junction or CEJ.

 

REF:    p. 33

 

  1. Contact point and contact area are synonymous terms; that is, they mean the same thing.

 

ANS:   F

A contact point differs from a contact area. A contact point is where the occlusal cusp of one tooth touches the occlusal portion of another tooth in the opposing arch. By contrast, contact areas of teeth are the areas where the proximal surfaces touch one another. The contact area, more formally called the proximal contact area, prevents food from packing between two adjacent teeth.

 

REF:    p. 29

 

  1. Alignment refers to the height or level of alveolar bone between the teeth.

 

ANS:   F

Alignment refers to the position of the teeth in each arch.

 

REF:    pp. 33-34

 

MATCHING

 

Characteristics of tooth shape and alignment protect the periodontium, preserve the dentition, and enhance self-cleaning mechanisms. Match each anatomic feature with its most closely related corresponding term.

a. Interdental space
b. Crest of curvature
c. Cervical line
d. Embrasure
e. Occlusal contact

 

 

  1. Spillway

 

  1. CEJ

 

  1. Contact point

 

  1. Height of contour

 

  1. Interproximal space

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    pp. 29-30 | pp. 32-33

MSC:   Embrasures are spillways between the teeth that are occlusal to the contact areas. They prevent food impaction. The CEJ, or more formally the cementoenamel junction, is demarcated by the cervical line. A contact point is where the occlusal cusp of one tooth touches the occlusal portion of a tooth in the opposing arch.  The height of contour, also called the crest of contour, depends upon the height of the contact area above the crown cervix as well as the diameter of the crown labiolingually or buccolingually. The interproximal spaces are triangular-shaped spaces between the teeth that are normally filled with papillary gingiva-also called the interdental papilla  Not in the question but pertinent, interdental space is the space between the teeth that provides a place for the bulk of the bone and affords nutritive vascular support and a stronger bony base.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    pp. 29-30 | pp. 32-33

MSC:   The CEJ, or more formally the cementoenamel junction, is demarcated by the cervical line. Embrasures are spillways between the teeth that are occlusal to the contact areas.  They prevent food impaction. A contact point is where the occlusal cusp of one tooth touches the occlusal portion of a tooth in the opposing arch. The height of contour, also called the crest of contour, depends upon the height of the contact area above the crown cervix as well as the diameter of the crown labiolingually or buccolingually. The interproximal spaces are triangular-shaped spaces between the teeth that are normally filled with papillary gingiva-also called the interdental papilla. Not in the question but pertinent, interdental space is the space between the teeth that provides a place for the bulk of the bone and affords nutritive vascular support and a stronger bony base.

 

  1. ANS:   E                     REF:    pp. 29-30 | pp. 32-33

MSC:   A contact point is where the occlusal cusp of one tooth touches the occlusal portion of a tooth in the opposing arch.  Embrasures are spillways between the teeth that are occlusal to the contact areas. They prevent food impaction. The CEJ, or more formally the cementoenamel junction, is demarcated by the cervical line. The height of contour, also called the crest of contour, depends upon the height of the contact area above the crown cervix as well as the diameter of the crown labiolingually or buccolingually. The interproximal spaces are triangular-shaped spaces between the teeth that are normally filled with papillary gingiva-also called the interdental papilla. Not in the question but pertinent, interdental space is the space between the teeth that provides a place for the bulk of the bone and affords nutritive vascular support and a stronger bony base.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    pp. 29-30 | pp. 32-33

MSC:   The height of contour, also called the crest of contour, depends upon the height of the contact area above the crown cervix as well as the diameter of the crown labiolingually or buccolingually. Embrasures are spillways between the teeth that are occlusal to the contact areas. They prevent food impaction. The CEJ, or more formally the cementoenamel junction, is demarcated by the cervical line. A contact point is where the occlusal cusp of one tooth touches the occlusal portion of a tooth in the opposing arch. The interproximal spaces are triangular-shaped spaces between the teeth that are normally filled with papillary gingiva-also called the interdental papilla. Not in the question but pertinent, interdental space is the space between the teeth that provides a place for the bulk of the bone and affords nutritive vascular support and a stronger bony base.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    pp. 29-30 | pp. 32-33

MSC:   The interproximal spaces are triangular-shaped spaces between the teeth that are normally filled with papillary gingiva which-also called the interdental papilla. Embrasures are spillways between the teeth that are occlusal to the contact areas. They prevent food impaction.  The CEJ, or more formally the cementoenamel junction, is demarcated by the cervical line. A contact point is where the occlusal cusp of one tooth touches the occlusal portion of a tooth in the opposing arch. The height of contour, also called the crest of contour, depends upon the height of the contact area above the crown cervix as well as the diameter of the crown labiolingually or buccolingually. Not in the question but pertinent, interdental space is the space between the teeth that provides a place for the bulk of the bone and affords nutritive vascular support and a stronger bony base.

Chapter 05: Development, Form, and Eruption

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Permanent mandibular central incisors are the first succedaneous teeth to erupt. The earliest visible portion of an anterior tooth is the cusp of Carabelli, the name for the lingual lobe of mandibular central incisors.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
c. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   B

Although the mandibular first molars are the first permanent teeth to erupt, they are NOT succedaneous because they do NOT replace primary teeth. It is important to remember that primary molars are replaced by permanent premolars. Therefore, the first succedaneous teeth to erupt are the permanent mandibular central incisors, which replace the primary mandibular central incisors. The cusp of Carabelli is a cusp-like elevation located on the maxillary first molar and occasionally on the maxillary second molar.

 

REF:    p. 46 | p. 50

 

  1. Maxillary molars have three major buccal cusps because the third buccal cusp develops from the lobe of Carabelli.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

ANS:   E

Maxillary molars have two major buccal cusps. The lobe, or cusp, of Carabelli is a small cusp-like elevation that develops into a tubercle. Most often seen on maxillary first molars, the cusp of Carabelli is considered a rudimentary lobe and is located on the lingual surface of the mesiolingual cusp.

 

REF:    p. 46

 

  1. Roots of primary teeth resorb and dissolve because odontoblasts destroy the surrounding bone.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

ANS:   C

The initial statement accurately describes steps in the exfoliation of primary teeth. The reasoning provided is incorrect because odontoblasts are cells that form dentin. The cells that destroy surrounding bone during exfoliation of primary teeth are osteoclasts. Note that “blasts” are formative cells whereas “clasts” are destructive cells.

 

REF:    p. 50

 

  1. Another name for the wearing away of the tooth through contact with an opposing tooth is
a. Exfoliation
b. Attrition
c. Impaction
d. Resorption

 

 

ANS:   B

Attrition is the wearing away of a tooth through contact of its functioning surfaces with an opposing tooth. Exfoliation is the process by which the roots of primary teeth are dissolved and resorbed. Impaction is a term descriptive of teeth that do not completely erupt but remain embedded in bone or soft tissue. Resorption, as it applies to exfoliation of teeth, is a phenomenon caused by osteoclastic cells, which destroy the roots of deciduous teeth. Note that “clasts” are destructive cells whereas “blasts” are formative cells.

 

REF:    p. 50

 

  1. Small clumps of cells that will later form teeth are called
a. Tooth germs
b. Ameloblasts
c. Lobes
d. Tubercles

 

 

ANS:   A

Tooth germs, which later form teeth, initially develop into growth centers and become developmental lobes. Ameloblasts are cells responsible for formation of enamel. Tubercles are cusp-like elevations.

 

REF:    pp. 45-46

 

  1. Bicuspid is not an accurate name for premolars. Premolars can have two, three, or four cusps.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
c. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   B

The term bicuspid is reserved for teeth that actually have two cusps. Premolars can have two or three cusps. Although patterns vary, in general the maxillary first and second premolars as well as the mandibular first premolars have two cusps. The mandibular second premolars can have two or three cusps.

 

REF:    p. 45

 

  1. Which choice best indicates the years of eruption for all of the premolars?
a. 8-10
b. 9-11
c. 10-12
d. 11-13

 

 

ANS:   C

The first premolars erupt at 10-11 years of age. The second premolars erupt at 10-12 years of age with eruption of the maxillary teeth preceding the mandibular. This unique pattern is the most common exception to the rule that mandibular teeth erupt prior to their maxillary counterparts.

 

REF:    pp. 49-50

 

  1. Exfoliation is the process by which the roots of a deciduous tooth are pushed together by the calcification process. Resorption is the phenomenon where osteoblasts destroy the roots of primary teeth.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
c. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   D

Exfoliation is the process by which the roots of a primary (deciduous) tooth are resorbed and dissolved until so little root remains that the primary tooth falls out. As a permanent tooth erupts, bone-destructive osteoclasts destroy the root of the deciduous tooth. This process is called resorption. Note that “clasts” are destructive cells whereas “blasts” are formative cells.

 

REF:    p. 50

 

  1. An impacted tooth is one that has
a. Not erupted fully
b. No tooth germs
c. Less cusps or roots
d. To be extracted
e. Both a and c

 

 

ANS:   A

Impacted teeth are those that do not completely erupt but remain embedded in bone or soft tissue. There are varying degrees of impaction.

 

REF:    p. 50

 

  1. Formation of teeth can be affected by nutritional deficiencies, fever, or childhood illnesses. While trauma to the dentition may delay eruption, it does not negatively impact formation of teeth.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
c. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   B

Formation of teeth can be affected by many factors including nutritional deficiencies, fever, childhood illness, and trauma to the dentition. Not only may tooth formation by altered by these factors, formation or mineralization may be stopped completely.

 

REF:    p. 47

 

  1. A 6-year-old has a space maintainer on the area of the deciduous mandibular left first molar. Which permanent tooth will erupt in the space?
a. First premolar
b. Second premolar
c. First molar
d. Second molar

 

 

ANS:   A

Deciduous molars are replaced by permanent premolars. The deciduous mandibular left first molar will be replaced by the permanent mandibular left first premolar. A space maintainer is an excellent device for preserving space in the event of premature loss of a deciduous tooth.

 

REF:    p. 48

 

  1. Which is the last permanent incisor to erupt?
a. Maxillary central
b. Maxillary lateral
c. Mandibular central
d. Mandibular lateral

 

 

ANS:   B

The first general rule concerning eruption is that individual mandibular teeth precede their maxillary counterparts. Eruption of central incisors precedes eruption of lateral incisors. Thus, the maxillary lateral incisor is the last permanent incisor to erupt.

 

REF:    p. 46

 

  1. Edentulous refers to
a. The final dentition period
b. A space maintainer
c. Absence of teeth
d. Unerupted third molars

 

 

ANS:   C

Edentulous means that all teeth are missing. A space maintainer is an appliance utilized to preserve space for either premature loss of a deciduous tooth or loss of any tooth. Unerupted third molars are considered impacted if they remain embedded in bone or soft tissue and fail to erupt.

 

REF:    pp. 50-52

 

  1. The most common exception to the rule of eruption that mandibular teeth precede eruption of maxillary teeth is the maxillary first premolar because this tooth often precedes eruption of its mandibular counterpart.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

ANS:   A

Eruption of the maxillary first premolar often precedes eruption of the mandibular first premolar. This is in direct contradiction to the first general rule of tooth eruption, which states that mandibular teeth usually precede the maxillary teeth.

 

REF:    p. 50

 

  1. The rounded protuberances on the incisal edge of a newly erupted incisor are called
a. Mamelons
b. Developmental grooves
c. Cusp tips
d. Tooth buds
e. Attrition

 

 

ANS:   A

Mamelons, rounded protuberances on the incisal edge of a newly erupted incisor, are incisal ridges of the three labial developmental lobes. Regarding the incorrect selections, developmental grooves separate tooth lobes and are visible on erupted teeth as grooves separating cusps. Cusp tips are the most coronal and pointed aspect of a cusp. Tooth buds, also called tooth germs, are early cellular precursors to teeth. Attrition is the wearing away of tooth surface by contact with opposing tooth surfaces.

 

REF:    p. 45 | pp. 50-51

 

  1. The first deciduous teeth, the mandibular central incisors, erupt at approximately 6.5 to 7 months. The first permanent teeth, the maxillary premolars, erupt at approximately 6 years of age.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
c. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   B

The first deciduous teeth are the mandibular central incisors, which erupt at approximately 6.5 to 7 months. Approximately 1 month later, the maxillary central incisors become visible. The first permanent teeth to erupt are the mandibular first molars, followed by the maxillary first molars within a few weeks. These teeth are often called the 6-year molars because they erupt at approximately 6 years of age. The maxillary premolars do not erupt until approximately 10-11 years of age.

 

REF:    p. 47 | p. 50

 

  1. It is unusual for a 3-year-old child to have all twenty primary teeth because second molars do not typically erupt until 4 years of age.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

ANS:   E

Both the initial statement and the reason provided are incorrect because all twenty deciduous teeth typically erupt by the time a child is  years of age. The second molars, often the last teeth to erupt, are called the 2-year-old molars. Their eruption is considered a factor in the somewhat cantankerous attitude of 2-year-olds.

 

REF:    p. 47

 

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

 

  1. Which of the following selections include teeth that should be present in the dentition of a 3-year-old child (select all that apply)?
a. Primary maxillary and mandibular canines
b. Primary maxillary and mandibular central incisors
c. Primary maxillary molars, but NOT primary mandibular molars
d. Primary mandibular central and lateral incisors, but NOT primary mandibular incisors
e. Primary mandibular and maxillary premolars

 

 

ANS:   A, B

In a 3-year-old child all primary teeth should be present. Selections C and D are incorrect because they exclude primary teeth. Selection E is incorrect because the primary dentition does NOT have premolars. The primary dentition consists of twenty teeth comprised of incisors, canines, and molars.

 

REF:    pp. 47-48 | pp. 51-52

 

  1. Which of the following selections include teeth that should have erupted or may be in the process of eruption in the dentition of an 8-year-old child (select all that apply)?
a. All deciduous teeth
b. Permanent maxillary central and lateral incisors
c. Permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars
d. Permanent canines

 

 

ANS:   B, C

The mixed dentition begins at about 6 years of age. The deciduous maxillary and mandibular central and lateral incisors will have been exfoliated in an 8-year-old child. At this age the central incisors of both arches should be present; the corresponding lateral incisors should be in the process of eruption. Permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars, appropriately called the 6-year molars, erupt at approximately 6 years of age. Permanent canines do not erupt until ages 9-12, with the mandibular canines preceding the maxillary.

 

REF:    p. 47 | pp. 49-50

 

  1. A 15-month-old toddler would generally have (select all that apply):
a. Central incisors
b. Lateral incisors
c. Canines
d. First molars
e. Second molars

 

 

ANS:   A, B, D

Deciduous central and lateral incisors typically erupt between  and 8 months. First molars typically erupt between 12 and 16 months. Regarding the incorrect selections, canines do not erupt until 16 to 21 months; they are followed by the second molars between the twenty-first and thirtieth months. Deciduous second molars are often called the 2-year-old molars.

 

REF:    p. 47

 

  1. A 10-year-old will generally have which of the following permanent teeth (select all that apply)?
a. Maxillary lateral incisors
b. Maxillary canines
c. Mandibular canines
d. Mandibular second premolars
e. Mandibular first molars

 

 

ANS:   A, C, E

Maxillary lateral incisors erupt at 7 to 9 years of age. The mandibular canines erupt at 9 to 10 years of age. The mandibular first molars erupt at 6 to 7 years of age. Regarding the incorrect selections, the maxillary canines do not erupt until 11 to 12 years of age. The mandibular second premolars do not erupt until 10 to 12 years of age.

 

REF:    pp. 50-52

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. A tooth with two cusps, such as a maxillary premolar, was formed from two lobes.

 

ANS:   F

Premolars are formed from four lobes: three facial lobes and one lingual lobe.

 

REF:    p. 45

 

  1. The crypt will become the tooth socket.

 

ANS:   T

Primary and secondary teeth develop from tooth germs, which form in small holes within the bone. Crypts later become tooth sockets, which house the root of the tooth.

 

REF:    p. 45

 

  1. Third molars are the most unpredictable of all teeth.

 

ANS:   T

Development of third molars is the most unpredictable of all teeth. It is highly possible for mandibular third molars to be extremely well developed, better proportioned, and larger than the first molars in the same mouth. However, they are more likely to be poorly formed and can vary from three to eight cusps. The third molars are also the most common teeth to be congenitally missing.

 

REF:    p. 46 | p. 50

 

  1. Calcification of all deciduous teeth begins near the end of the sixth month in utero.

 

ANS:   F

Calcification of the primary teeth begins to by about the fourth or fifth month of fetal life. This process continues until about the third or fourth year after birth, when the deciduous roots become fully formed.

 

REF:    p. 44

 

  1. A developmental groove separates one cusp from another.

 

ANS:   T

Developmental grooves separate developmental lobes from each other. Cusps, which originate from lobes, are visibly separated after eruption by developmental grooves.

 

REF:    p. 45

 

  1. Third molar roots continue to calcify until about 25 years of age.

 

ANS:   T

Calcification of permanent teeth begins soon after birth and continues until about the twenty-fifth year, when roots of the third molars become calcified. The last area of any tooth to become calcified is the apex of the root.

 

REF:    p. 45

Chapter 07: Dental Anomalies

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Supernumerary maxillary teeth are more common than supernumerary mandibular teeth because metabolic intrinsic factors within the palate produce more hyperdontia.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

ANS:   C

Hyperdontia, an anomaly resulting in formation of too many teeth (called supernumerary teeth), occurs more commonly in the midline and molar regions of the maxillae. Maxillary supernumerary teeth outnumber mandibular nine to one. Extra teeth are less commonly formed in the premolar region of the mandible. Other sites are rarely involved. The reason provided is entirely false.

 

REF:    pp. 68-69

 

  1. A distomolar is attached to the distal surface of a maxillary molar. Maxillary distomolars are the most common supernumerary teeth.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true, the second is false.
c. The first statement is false, the second is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   B

More specifically, distomolars are located distal to the maxillary third molars. They are called fourth molars. Mandibular distomolars do occur, but with much less frequency than in the maxillae.

 

REF:    pp. 69-70

 

  1. Fusion involves the joining of two adjacent teeth at the cementum because this process is associated with excessive production of cementum.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

ANS:   E

This question incorrectly combines aspects of tooth fusion with hypercementosis. Very importantly, fusion involves the joining of two adjacent teeth at the dentin. If teeth are only connected at the cementum, concrescence has occurred. Further, cementoma is a form of hypercementosis associated with localized destruction of bone.

 

REF:    pp. 71-73

 

  1. The canines are LEAST likely of all permanent teeth to be congenitally missing because unlike other permanent teeth, canines begin to calcify by about the fourth of fifth month of fetal life.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

ANS:   C

Canines are the least likely of all permanent teeth to be congenitally missing. However, the calcification timeline provided in the question applies to primary teeth. Calcification of all permanent teeth begins soon after birth.

 

REF:    p. 44 | p. 69

 

  1. The MOST commonly missing permanent teeth are the maxillary premolars. The next teeth MOST likely to be missing are the permanent maxillary lateral incisors.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true, the second is false.
c. The first statement is false, the second is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   C

The most commonly missing permanent teeth are the third molars, with maxillary thirds the most frequently absent. The teeth next most likely to be missing are the permanent maxillary lateral incisors. Between 1% and 2% of the population are missing at least one permanent maxillary lateral incisor.

 

REF:    pp. 68-69

 

  1. Dens in dente, or dwarfed roots, is a developmental variation that occurs because the outer surface of the tooth crown invaginates by turning itself inward prior to mineralization.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

ANS:   D

The initial statement is incorrect because dens in dente and dwarfed roots are two separate anomalies. The reason provided correctly describes the cause of dens in dente. Dwarfed roots is a condition in which the roots are extremely short in comparison with their crowns.

 

REF:    pp. 70-71

 

  1. Tetracycline staining is an enamel dysplasia that occurs because an expectant mother or young child with tooth crowns still developing takes the antibiotic tetracycline.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

ANS:   D

Tetracycline staining is a developmental disturbance of the dentin. Because dentin forms the body of the tooth, the discoloration is typically visible through the enamel. Tetracycline staining occurs when tetracycline is taken by an expectant mother or a young child with developing tooth crowns. Staining ranges from yellow to brown or grayish blue.

 

REF:    p. 77

 

  1. Each of the following is true of dentinogenesis imperfecta EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
a. The pulp is filled with dentin.
b. The tooth appears translucent.
c. The enamel cannot develop over defective dentin.
d. It is a hereditary developmental anomaly.
e. All of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:   C

Although enamel formation occurs in the presence of dentinogenesis imperfecta, it often chips away. The poorly developed underlying dentin does not adequately support enamel. The remaining statements correctly describe aspects of dentinogenesis imperfecta.

 

REF:    pp. 76-77

 

  1. Enamel dysplasia is associated with each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Fluorosis
b. Amelogenesis imperfecta
c. Turner’s tooth
d. Enamel hypocalcification
e. Dilaceration

 

 

ANS:   E

Enamel dysplasia is a broad term that includes both enamel hypoplasia and enamel hypocalcification. Dilaceration, a sharp bend or curve of more than 40 degrees in the root or crown, is NOT an enamel anomaly. Regarding the remaining selections, fluorosis is one of the most common types of hypocalcification. Turner’s tooth, a hypocalcification of a single tooth, can occur in a permanent tooth that is affected by infection or trauma.

 

REF:    p. 71 | pp. 73-75

 

  1. Which permanent tooth is the LEAST likely to be congenitally missing?
a. Maxillary lateral incisor
b. Mandibular second premolar
c. Maxillary third molar
d. Mandibular third molar

 

 

ANS:   B

Of the listed teeth the mandibular second premolar is the least likely to be congenitally missing. The most commonly missing permanent teeth are third molars, with maxillary absent more than mandibular. The second most likely are the permanent maxillary lateral incisors.

 

REF:    pp. 68-69

 

  1. Each of the following is an example of microdontia EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Mesiodens
b. Paramolar
c. Distomolar
d. Tubercle
e. Enamel pearl

 

 

ANS:   E

Enamel pearls are small masses of excess enamel on the surface of the teeth located apically to the cementoenamel junction (CEJ). Enamel pearls are formed by a small, misplaced group of ameloblasts. The remaining selections are all variations of microdontia, which is an anomaly associated with teeth that are too small.

 

REF:    pp. 68-70 | p. 73

 

  1. Gemination occurs most frequently in the permanent dentition. It is the splitting of the tooth into two crowns and separate roots.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true, the second is false.
c. The first statement is false; the second is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   B

Gemination, an anomaly that arises when a tooth attempts to divided itself by splitting its tooth germ, occurs most often in the permanent dentition. While gemination can result in formation of two crowns and separate roots, the second statement is incorrect because numerous variations can occur. For example, a tooth split into two crowns with one root would be termed a bifid tooth or bifurcated crown. The type of gemination described in the question is called twinning.

 

REF:    p. 71

 

  1. A dilacerated root is one that exhibits
a. Bifurcated roots
b. Twisted roots
c. A sharp bend in the root
d. Short, fused roots

 

 

ANS:   C

A dilacerated root is one that exhibits a sharp bend or curve of more than 40 degrees in the root. Although curved roots commonly occur, the term dilaceration is reserved for teeth with very sharp bends. Dilaceration can also occur in the crown. Another term, flexion, is often used to describe a sharp curvature or twist of a tooth root only.

 

REF:    p. 71 | p. 77

 

  1. A clinical characteristic of dens in dente is a(n)
a. Extremely deep pit
b. Tubercle
c. Tiny tooth attached to a lingual surface of a molar
d. Hypoplastic enamel surface

 

 

ANS:   A

Dens in dente, meaning tooth within a tooth, results from invagination of the crown prior to mineralization. This anomaly allows communication between the oral cavity and the inner enamel-lined cavity, which is often described as an extremely deep pit. Regarding the incorrect selections, a tubercle is a small elevation. A supernumerary tiny tooth (microdont) attached to a lingual surface is a paramolar. Hypoplastic enamel is one type of enamel dysplasia.

 

REF:    p. 70 | p. 73

 

  1. An anomaly common to mandibular second premolars is
a. Dwarfed roots
b. Buccal tubercles
c. Accessory roots
d. Large lingual cusps

 

 

ANS:   C

The maxillary second premolars often have two bifurcated roots, although more frequently only one is present. It is not uncommon for these teeth to have accessory, or additional, roots. When present, accessory roots sometimes bifurcate at the apical third only.

 

REF:    p. 77

 

  1. Fusion of roots of adjacent teeth at the cementum is called concrescence and is primarily caused by dilaceration. Gemination is the deposition of excessive secondary cementum.
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true, the second is false.
c. The first statement is false, the second is true.
d. Both statements are false.

 

 

ANS:   D

Concrescence, fusion of the roots of adjacent teeth at the cementum, is thought to occur sometimes as a result of trauma. It is NOT caused by dilaceration. Gemination is an anomaly arising when a tooth attempts to divide itself or partially twin itself by splitting its tooth germ. Deposition of excess cementum is an anomaly called hypercementosis.

 

REF:    pp. 71-73

 

  1. An unusually large tooth is an example of
a. Hyperdontia
b. Fusion
c. Gemination
d. Macrodontia

 

 

ANS:   D

Macrodontia is a developmental anomaly resulting in teeth that are too large. Hyperdontia results in an increase in the number of teeth. Fusion occurs when two adjacent tooth germs unite. Gemination is an anomaly arising when a tooth attempts to divide itself or partially twin itself by splitting its tooth germ.

 

REF:    p. 68 | p. 71

 

  1. An odontoma is composed of each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Dentin
b. Pulp
c. Enamel
d. Cementum

 

 

ANS:   B

An odontoma, a tumorous anomaly, does not contain pulpal tissue. There are two types of odontoma: complex and compound. A complex odontoma consists of a single mass of dentin, cementum, and enamel. It appears as a large blob or unspecified shape. Conversely, a compound odontoma consists of several small masses that resemble rudimentary teeth.

 

REF:    p. 70

 

  1. Turner’s tooth results in notched incisors and mulberry molars because prenatal syphilis disturbs normal tooth formative processes.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

ANS:   D

Turner’s tooth is a hypocalcification of a single tooth, usually a maxillary incisor. It is caused by local infection or trauma that disturbs the ameloblastic layer, resulting in hypoplastic enamel. The initial statement correctly describes another anomaly, Hutchinson’s incisors, which are caused by prenatal syphilis. Such incisors appear notched and screwdriver shaped. Also characteristic of congenital syphilis are mulberry molars, which are irregularly shaped and have poorly formed cusps.

 

REF:    p. 73 | pp. 76-77

 

  1. A fourth molar may be described by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Macrodont
b. Distomolar
c. Supernumerary tooth
d. Supplemental tooth
e. Hyperdont

 

 

ANS:   A

While there are many terms to describe a fourth molar, macrodont is not applicable. Macrodontia refers to formation of teeth that are too large. A fourth molar is technically a supernumerary tooth. Other applicable terms include distomolar because of the location distal to the third molars. Hyperdont and supplemental tooth are also applicable terms. Hyperdontia refers to formation of excess teeth while supplemental, in a general sense, means additional.

 

REF:    pp. 68-70

 

  1. A patient, Suzanne, is 4 months pregnant. She is concerned about her recent sinus infection that required penicillin therapy. She is worried that her baby’s teeth will be discolored. She is also concerned that her baby will have a missing maxillary lateral incisor because her father and aunt do not have these teeth. Penicillin can cause
a. Stained teeth
b. Malformed teeth
c. Hypocalcification
d. None of the above

 

 

ANS:   D

Although all medications should be avoided during pregnancy, penicillin does not have a specific concern. Suzanne is most likely thinking of tetracycline staining, a condition that occurs when an expectant mother or young child with developing tooth crowns takes the antibiotic tetracycline. The teeth of the developing fetus or young child discolor, ranging from yellow to brown or grayish blue.

 

REF:    p. 77

 

  1. A patient, Suzanne, is 4 months pregnant. She is concerned about her recent sinus infection that required penicillin therapy. She is worried that her baby’s teeth will be discolored. She is also concerned that her baby will have a missing maxillary lateral incisor because her father and aunt do not have these teeth. The baby may be missing one or both of the permanent maxillary lateral incisors due to
a. A conditional factor
b. A hereditary factor
c. An extrinsic factor
d. Maternal stress

 

 

ANS:   D

Maxillary lateral incisors are more likely to be congenitally missing than any other teeth except the third molars. Between 1% and 2% of the population are missing at least one permanent maxillary lateral incisor. A hereditary condition is one that occurs because of an individual’s genetic makeup. If the condition occurs before birth it is termed congenital.

 

REF:    pp. 68-69

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Anomalies are caused by intrinsic factors only.

 

ANS:   F

Anomalies are caused by intrinsic as well as extrinsic factors.

 

REF:    p. 68

 

  1. A child who has congenitally missing maxillary canines will have congenitally missing permanent canines.

 

ANS:   T

Anodontia is the formation of too few teeth. If primary teeth are congenitally missing, their permanent replacements will also be absent. True anodontia is the term for congenitally missing teeth. The extent of true anodontia ranges from one tooth to the full dentition. This may involve the permanent dentition, the primary dentition, or both.

 

REF:    p. 68

 

  1. A patient who has had four teeth extracted for orthodontia has true partial anodontia.

 

ANS:   F

True anodontia applies only to congenitally missing teeth. This term does not apply to teeth that have been extracted. Such teeth are considered “missing due to extraction.”

 

REF:    pp. 68-69