Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th Edition By Barbara H. Estridge – Test Bank

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Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th Edition By Barbara H. Estridge – Test Bank

Lesson 6-1: Introduction to Clinical Chemistry

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In clinical chemistry, which of the following is true?
a. Substances in the body are always in balance.
b. Results of analysis can be used to diagnose, treat, and prevent disease.
c. Quality assessment policies are not very important.
d. Homeostasis is affected only by external factors.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The tests performed in clinical chemistry can be:
a. for normal substances d. all of the above
b. for drugs or other toxic substances e. none of the above
c. for waste products of metabolism

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning changes in concentration of substances in the body?
a. Changes, whether up or down, are permanent.
b. An elevation in glucose levels will stimulate the release of insulin.
c. The balance between the concentrations is referred to as hemostasis.
d. Electrolytes have little importance in the acid-base balance in the body.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. To assess liver function, which of the following test(s) can be helpful?
a. creatine kinase c. ALT
b. BUN d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning enzymes?
a. All enzymes are widely distributed in the body.
b. Enzyme levels are always very specific for certain organs.
c. LDH is one enzyme that can be used to assess liver damage.
d. ALP was formerly known as SGOT.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Excessive amount of fat in the blood is known as ____________________.

 

ANS:  hyperlipidemia

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An anion has a(n) ____________________ charge.

 

ANS:  negative

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A chemical substance that is the subject of chemical analysis is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  analyte

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. HDL is the high density lipoprotein fraction of blood ____________________.

 

ANS:  cholesterol

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Hypocalcemia is a condition in which the blood level of ____________________ is below normal.

 

ANS:  calcium

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The thyroid hormone, T3, is also commonly known as ____________________.

 

ANS:  triiodothyronine

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A deficiency in the function of the thyroid is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  hypothyroidism

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Creatine kinase (CK) is often measured to aid in diagnosing ____________________.

 

ANS:  heart attack

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The group of cations and anions important in maintaining fluid and acid-base balance are the ____________________.

 

ANS:  electrolytes

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. AST is the enzyme present in cardiac, muscle, and liver tissue that is measured to assess the function of the ____________________.

 

ANS:  liver

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. anion g. 8.7–10.5 mg/dL
b. Technicon Corp. h. the 1600s
c. cation i. quality control
d. Hippocrates j. transferrin
e. lipid profile k. 0.7–1.4 mg/dL
f. U/L l. creatinine

 

 

  1. reference range for calcium

 

  1. sodium

 

  1. kidney function

 

  1. iron

 

  1. tasting the patient’s urine

 

  1. enzyme activity units per liter

 

  1. AutoAnalyzer

 

  1. Levey-Jennings chart

 

  1. invention of the microscope

 

  1. triglycerides

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  L                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-2: Chemistry Specimen Collection and Processing

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Plasma is the liquid from blood that has been allowed to clot.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Standard policy is to draw blood from a vein above an intravenous line.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. If plasma is to be used in a test, it should be removed from the cellular portion of blood as soon as possible after collection.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. For chemistry analysis, blood must be free of hemolysis.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The red/gray stopper tube contains a polymer gel and a silica activator.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In the CLSI order of draw, the red-top clot tubes are drawn first.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Mistakes occurring when blood is drawn contibute to preanalytical error.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which is true of hemolysis of red blood cells?
a. It can be caused by overcentrifugation.
b. It releases potassium into the plasma or serum.
c. It can be caused by excess shaking of the blood sample.
d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. How does the time of specimen collection affect certain tests?
a. Concentrations of iron are constant throughout the day.
b. Triglycerides do not change after eating.
c. Glucose and cholesterol usually change after eating.
d. Corticosteroids are not affected by the time of collection.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is true of plasma and/or serum?
a. Plasma is formed when a tube of blood is allowed to clot.
b. Plasma contains all of the dissolved chemical constituents.
c. Serum contains all of the dissolved chemical constituents plus the coagulation proteins.
d. none of the above

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. To avoid accidental needlesticks during specimen collection:
a. collect the majority of specimens by capillary puncture
b. carefully recap needles
c. use self-sheathing or safety needles
d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is true of blood collection to obtain serum?
a. Blood can be collected into a red/yellow serum separator tube.
b. A red-top collection tube can be used.
c. A green-top tube should be used.
d. A purple-top tube should be used.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. A chemical that prevents blood coagulation is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  anticoagulant

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Something that has a daily cycle is said to be ____________________.

 

ANS:  diurnal

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The liquid obtained from blood that has been allowed to clot is ____________________.

 

ANS:  serum

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  plasma

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The viscous fluid secreted by membranes lining the joints is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  synovial fluid

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A lipemic sample has a cloudy appearance due to the presence of excess ____________________.

 

ANS:

lipids

fats

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Blood specimens should remain capped until they are ready to be tested to prevent concentration of some constituents due to ____________________.

 

ANS:  evaporation

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. When collecting blood into both serum (clot) tubes and anticoagulant tubes, the light-blue-top tube is drawn first, if ordered; otherwise, serum tubes must be filled ____________________.

 

ANS:  first

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The fluid surrounding the spinal cord and bathing the ventricles of the brain is called ____________________.

 

ANS:

cerebrospinal fluid

CSF

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Blood cannot be drawn from a site above a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

intravenous line

i.v. line

IV line

i.v.

IV

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Match the stopper color with its use or anticoagulant. Answers can be used more than once.

a. red/gray e. royal blue
b. lavender f. green
c. red g. light blue
d. yellow h. gray

 

 

  1. glycolytic inhibitor

 

  1. trace metals

 

  1. EDTA

 

  1. coagulation testing

 

  1. serum separation

 

  1. no additive

 

  1. lithium heparin

 

  1. ACD solution

 

  1. sodium citrate

 

  1. polymer gel/silica activator

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-3: Principles of Chemistry Instrumentation

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The amount of light that passes through a solution to be analyzed is the absorbance.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Absorbance is indicated by the letter A.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Since very small amounts of chemicals are used in test cassettes, there are no hazards in using them.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The technology in which the reagents are in the dried form is called solid phase chemistry.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The test cartridges used in solid phase chemistry filter red blood cells out of whole blood, leaving only the serum to mix with the test reagents.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Ion-selective electrodes are especially useful for measuring electrolyte levels.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Some analyzers (meters) use the principle of amperometry to measure blood glucose levels.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. When required maintenance and quality assessment procedures are performed, most instruments in the POL provide reliable results.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning using a photometer for analysis?
a. Photometers can measure the amount of light that passes through a solution.
b. The amount of light that passes through a solution is the absorbance.
c. Solutions measured by a photometer do not follow Beer’s law.
d. Photometers cannot be integrated into the small, handheld devices.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. What is the most important consideration in choosing an instrument?
a. price c. size
b. quality of results d. must be one all the technicians like

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A good quality assessment program is essential for instrumentation in the laboratory because:
a. it ensures accuracy of patient results
b. it checks the reliability of reagents
c. it checks the operating status of instruments
d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A reflectance photometer provides analysis of samples by measuring the:
a. transmittance of light through a colored solution
b. electron flow created by a reaction
c. amount of light reflected by a colored end product in a reaction
d. amount of light that is absorbed by a colored solution

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Chemistry analyzers and instruments in the clinical laboratory present:
a. biological and physical hazards
b. chemical and physical hazards
c. biological and chemical hazards
d. biological, physical, and chemical hazards
e. no hazards to the worker

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. An electrode manufactured to respond to the concentration of a specific ion is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

ion specific electrode

ion-specific electrode

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A logarithmic expression of the amount of light absorbed by a substance containing colored molecules is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  absorbance

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The technology used when a reaction produces a stream of electrons is _____________________.

 

ANS:  amperometry

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The time elapsed between the physician’s ordering a test and receiving the results is called the ____________________.

 

ANS:

turn-around-time

turn-around time

turn around time

turnaround time

TAT

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The most important factor in choosing an instrument is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

quality of results

accuracy of results

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An instrument that measures intensity of light in different parts of the light spectrum is a ____________________.

 

ANS:  spectrophotometer

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An instrument that is CLIA waived and is useful for community health fairs is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

Cholestech LDX

Cholestech cholesterol instrument

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. nephelometry g. centrifugal analysis
b. photometer h. percent transmittance
c. CLIA ’88 i. monochromator
d. amperometry j. reflectance photometer
e. Beer’s law k. cuvette
f. ion-specific electrode l. solid phase chemistry

 

 

  1. device that isolates a narrow portion of the light spectrum

 

  1. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

 

  1. electrode manufactured to respond to certain specific ions

 

  1. percentage of light that passes through a solution

 

  1. measures light scatter by particles in a solution

 

  1. measures light of a specific wavelength that is reflected by a colored product

 

  1. instrument that measures light intensity

 

  1. for colored solutions, absorbance increases proportionally with concentration

 

  1. all reagents for the reaction are contained on a strip or slide

 

  1. use of electrodes and electrical potential to measure electron generation

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  L                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-4: Point-of-Care Testing

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Point-of-care testing (POCT) can be performed in the ER, OR, CCU, patient’s hospital room or home, or in a POL.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The overall responsibility for the POCT site’s compliance with regulations lies with the individual site and its director.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Most point-of-care tests require large samples of blood.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. There are no POCT instruments to perform coagulation testing.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A short turnaround time benefits the patient, who can receive required therapy sooner.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Establishment of POCT sites requires:
a. that the personnel at all sites receive the same training
b. frequent communication between the central laboratory and the sites
c. a director for each site with ultimate responsibility for patient results
d. All of the above (a–c) are true.
e. None of the above (a–c) are true.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of testing performed at POCT sites?
a. The quality of results is always lower than at the central lab.
b. The turnaround time for results is shortened.
c. The test menus are limited to glucose and cholesterol.
d. All of the above (a–c) is true.
e. None of the above (a–c) is true.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. POCT sites can be:
a. in the intensive care unit (ICU) c. independent of CLIA ’88 regulations
b. inconvenient for the patient d. operated without a director

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is true of quality assessment in POCT sites?
a. Some instruments have internal, electronic quality control systems.
b. All quality assessment policies set up for the site by the central laboratory must be followed.
c. Quality control checks must be performed at regular intervals.
d. None of the above (a–c) are true.
e. All of the above (a–c) are true.

 

 

ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Safety regulations in POCT sites are:
a. not necessary since there are fewer patients
b. not as stringent as in the central laboratory
c. important for the safety and welfare of patients and staff
d. determined by the staff working there

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. POCT began when blood glucose monitors were developed for home use by ____________________.

 

ANS:

diabetics

diabetic patients

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. POCT programs in hospitals can lead to shorter ____________________.

 

ANS:

hospital stays

stays in the hospital

turnaround times

TATs

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Increased patient participation in health care is one benefit of ____________________.

 

ANS:

point-of-care testing

POCT

near-patient testing

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. In POCT, the overall responsibility for compliance lies with the individual site and its ____________________.

 

ANS:

CLIA director

director

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Internal controls included in many instruments and kits has lessened the need to run ____________________.

 

ANS:

frequent controls

controls

as many controls

external controls

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each term. Every answer must be used, but some answers can be used more than once.

a. POL-registered medical assistant e. an example of a hospital POCT site
b. example of a nonhospital POCT site f. glucose monitors for home use
c. POCT g. CLIA ’88
d. training personnel

 

 

  1. reduced need for specimen transport

 

  1. beginning of POCT

 

  1. less traumatic testing method

 

  1. critical care unit

 

  1. one role of the laboratory in POCT

 

  1. one-day cholesterol screening program

 

  1. emergency room

 

  1. monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy

 

  1. law that regulates POCT

 

  1. multitrained personnel

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-5: Blood Glucose and Hemoglobin A1c

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The reference values for blood glucose are also the recommended values.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Insulin lowers blood glucose levels by increasing glucose uptake by cells.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Type 1 diabetes usually appears in children and young adults.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Hyperglycemia is the term for the blood glucose level being below normal.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The glucose bound to the beta chains of hemoglobin is measured in the Hgb A1c  test.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In glucose testing, postprandial refers to:
a. a blood glucose test performed after fasting 6–8 hours
b. a random blood glucose test
c. glucose testing performed 2 hours after eating
d. glucose testing every hour for 3 hours, after drinking a glucose drink

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Glucose oxidase is the enzyme used in many analytical methods to:
a. convert glucose to gluconolactone
b. promote the conversion of glycogen to glucose
c. convert glucose to gluconic acid
d. convert glucose to glucose-6-phosphate

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of insulin?
a. It is a vitamin.
b. It lowers blood glucose.
c. Its action is similar to that of glucagon.
d. Its action is similar to that of cortisol.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A blood glucose measurement on a sample taken when the patient has not eaten for 8 hours is:
a. an OGTT c. a 2-hour postprandial test
b. a postprandial test d. a fasting glucose

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of type 1 diabetes?
a. It usually appears in children and young adults.
b. It is also known as insulin resistance.
c. It appears later in life.
d. It results when the body fails to properly use insulin.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The enzyme that converts glucose to gluconic acid and is used in glucose analytical methods is ____________________.

 

ANS:  glucose oxidase

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Glucagon is the pancreatic hormone that increases blood concentration by promoting the conversion of glycogen to ____________________.

 

ANS:  glucose

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The enzyme used in glucose analytical methods to convert glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is ____________________.

 

ANS:  hexokinase

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The storage form of glucose found in high concentrations in the liver is ____________________.

 

ANS:  glycogen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The condition in which the blood glucose concentration is above normal is called _____________________.

 

ANS:  hyperglycemia

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The disorder of carbohydrate metabolism characterized by a state of hyperglycemia due to insulin deficiency is ____________________.

 

ANS:

diabetes mellitus

diabetes

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Hemoglobin that has glucose bound to the beta globin chains is called ____________________.

 

ANS:

hemoglobin A1c

Hb A1c

Hgb A1c

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The condition in which the blood glucose concentration is below normal is ____________________.

 

ANS:  hypoglycemia

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The pancreatic hormone essential for proper metabolism of blood glucose and maintenance of blood glucose levels is ____________________.

 

ANS:  insulin

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. In glycolysis, energy production is a result of the metabolic breakdown of ____________________.

 

ANS:  glucose

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. glucose oxidase d. Hb A1c
b. glucagon e. diabetes mellitus
c. insulin

 

 

  1. glycated hemoglobin

 

  1. conversion of glycogen to glucose

 

  1. hyperglycemia due to insulin deficiency

 

  1. conversion of glucose to gluconic acid

 

  1. pancreatic hormone essential for proper metabolism of glucose

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-1: Introduction to Clinical Microbiology

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Another designation for rod-shaped bacteria is cocci.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Bacteria that retain the crystal violet stain are said to be gram-negative.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Sheep’s blood agar (BA) supports the growth of most bacteria.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Organisms that live in, on, or at the expense of another organism are parasites.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Fastidious organisms will grow on most types of media.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Minimum inhibitory concentration:
a. is the area around an antibiotic disk
b. is a diagnostic method using antigen-antibody reactions
c. is the concentration of an antibiotic required to inhibit the growth of a microorganism
d. is the same as the Bauer-Kirby method

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A growth medium that supports the growth of most organisms is:
a. EMB c. “chocolate” agar
b. Thayer-Martin d. 5% sheep’s blood agar (BA)

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Organisms that live in, on, or at the expense of another organism:
a. are called host organisms
b. are parasites
c. are always unicellular
d. are found only in blood and bone marrow

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In microbiology, which of the following is true?
a. Hyphae are filaments of mold that make up the mycelium.
b. The parasite spends its entire life cycle in one host.
c. A bacillus is a spherical organism.
d. A culture is a defined mass of microorganisms.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In the POL, which of the following would be most likely to be performed?
a. parasitology procedures c. fungal cultures
b. bacterial cultures d. virus cultures

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Another name for spiral- or helical-shaped bacteria is:
a. bacillus c. coccobacillus
b. spirochete d. gram-negative

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. According to international rules of nomenclature, regarding the scientific names of living things:
a. the first part of the name is the family name
b. the second part of the name is the genus name
c. the first and second parts of the name are capitalized
d. scientific names must be italicized if typed or underlined if handwritten

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Microbiology includes:
a. only the study of bacteria
b. only bacteria and fungi
c. the study of organisms of microscopic size
d. the study of only pathogens

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true EXCEPT:
a. Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms.
b. Bacteria usually multiply by fission.
c. All bacteria are pathogens.
d. A bacterium is a single organism.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning growth requirements of bacteria?
a. Anaerobic bacteria grow in the absence of oxygen.
b. Aerobic bacteria require CO2 to grow.
c. Fastidious organisms can grow on almost any medium.
d. Few organisms can grow on 5% sheep’s blood agar.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. A rod-shaped bacterium is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  bacillus

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A defined mass of bacteria assumed to have grown from a single organism is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  colony

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Bacteria that require special nutritional factors to survive are called ____________________.

 

ANS:

fastidious

fastidious bacteria

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A culture is growth of microorganisms in a special ____________________.

 

ANS:  medium

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Bacteria that lose the crystal violet stain and retain the safranin in the Gram stain procedure are designated ____________________ bacteria.

 

ANS:

gram-negative

gram negative

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Another name for a spherical bacterium is ____________________.

 

ANS:  coccus

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Organisms that will grow only in the absence of oxygen are referred to as ____________________.

 

ANS:

anaerobic

anaerobic organisms

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Microorganisms that are normally present in a specific site are the normal ____________________.

 

ANS:  flora

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An organism or agent that is capable of causing disease in a host is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  pathogen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A pathological condition caused by growth of microorganisms in the host is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  infection

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Answers can be used more than once.

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococcus d. Staphylococcus aureus

 

 

  1. infections, boils

 

  1. urinary tract infections

 

  1. chocolate agar

 

  1. EMB agar

 

  1. blood agar

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-2: Bacteriology Specimen Collection and Processing

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Aerobic bacteria grow only in the absence of oxygen.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. If antiseptic wipes are used by the patient when collecting urine for culture, the container does not have to be sterile.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The phlebotomist is required to wear sterile gloves when collecting a blood culture.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A stool specimen from an infant can be conveniently collected in a disposable diaper.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Anaerobic organisms will grow on most types of media.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A specimen from a wound is best collected using a swab.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The stool specimen from an adult can be collected from the toilet water.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A sputum specimen must be transported in a special transport medium.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In the POL, which of the following would most likely be performed?
a. parasitology procedures c. fungal cultures
b. bacterial cultures d. virus cultures

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning growth requirements of bacteria?
a. Anaerobic bacteria grow in the absence of oxygen.
b. Aerobic bacteria require CO2 to grow.
c. Fastidious organisms can grow on almost any medium.
d. Few organisms can grow on 5% sheep’s blood agar.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of blood culture collection?
a. The site is cleansed as in routine venipuncture.
b. The tops of the collection bottles are sterile.
c. Blood culture can be contaminated by skin flora
d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A nasal or nasopharyngeal culture can be ordered:
a. to check for septicemia
b. to rule out an infection by Bordatella pertussis
c. is collected using a cotton swab
d. to check for group A Streptococcus (strep A)

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Organisms that will grow only in the absence of oxygen are referred to as ____________________.

 

ANS:

anaerobic

anaerobic organisms

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Microorganisms that are normally present in a specific site are the normal ____________________.

 

ANS:  flora

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Salmonella species could be isolated from a ____________________.

 

ANS:  stool specimen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The patient should rinse the mouth with water before collecting a ____________________.

 

ANS:

sputum specimen

sputum

respiratory specimen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Cary-Blair is a medium that can be used for transport of ____________________.

 

ANS:

stool specimens

stools for culture

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Health care workers may be tested for being carriers of MRSA by having a(an) ____________________.

 

ANS:

nasal culture

nasopharyngeal culture

nasal swab performed

nasopharyngeal swab performed

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. Bordatella pertussis
b. Streptococcus
c. Escherichia coli
d. Staphylococcus aureus such as MRSA
e. anaerobic organisms

 

 

  1. HAIs

 

  1. urinary tract infections

 

  1. nasal or nasopharyngeal swab

 

  1. wound cultures

 

  1. throat culture

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-3: Culture Techniques for Bacteriology

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The majority of laboratory-acquired infections are transmitted by respiratory route.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. An antiseptic is used to kill organisms on living tissues.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A selective medium supports the growth of most organisms.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The use of an open flame to sterilize the loop can produce aerosols.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. When primary media is being inoculated, the swab containing infectious material is used to inoculate the first quadrant.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A growth medium that allows growth of some organisms while inhibiting growth of others is called:
a. a primary medium c. a transport medium
b. an indicator medium d. a selective medium

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. An antiseptic is:
a. a chemical that eliminates all living microorganisms from an article or an area
b. a chemical used to control the growth of microorganisms on living tissues
c. a chemical used to sterilize a surface
d. all measures used to prevent contamination

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true concerning aseptic technique EXCEPT:
a. It prevents bacteria from infecting humans.
b. It prevents contamination of a culture by unwanted organisms.
c. It prevents contamination of surfaces.
d. It protects only the technician.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning laboratory-acquired infections?
a. They increase when disposable inoculating loops are used.
b. The majority occur by respiratory route.
c. Aerosol formation plays no role.
d. To prevent them, an open flame should be used to sterilize loops.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Concerning microbiological safety cabinets, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
a. They are not required for routine bacteriological work.
b. All work performed with fungi and certain other highly infectious agents requires the use of a Class I cabinet.
c. Work performed on Mycobacterium requires a Class II cabinet.
d. Class II cabinets contain a HEPA filter.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The seaweed derivative used to solidify microbiological media is ____________________.

 

ANS:  agar

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A chemical used to control the growth of microorganisms on inanimate surfaces such as benchtops is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

disinfectant

surface disinfectant

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A mass of bacteria being transferred from one medium to another is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  inoculum

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The process of transferring a population of microorganisms to a growth medium is ____________________.

 

ANS:

inoculation

inoculating

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The act of eliminating all living microorganisms from an article or area is ____________________.

 

ANS:  sterilization

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A bacteriological medium that detects certain chemical reactions of organisms growing on it is called a(n) ____________________ medium.

 

ANS:  indicator

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. One-fourth of an agar plate is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  quadrant

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A medium used to recover an organism from infectious material is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

primary medium

primary

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An antiseptic is a chemical used on ____________________ to control the growth of microorganisms.

 

ANS:

living tissue

tissue

skin

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Bacteria are streaked on an agar plate using a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

inoculating loop

loop

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. indicator medium f. transport medium
b. inoculum g. aseptic technique
c. Mycoplasma h. respiratory route
d. agar i. HEPA
e. 10% chlorine bleach j. inoculating loop

 

 

  1. measures used to prevent contamination when working with microorganisms

 

  1. seaweed derivative used to solidify media

 

  1. instrument used to pick up and transfer bacteria

 

  1. mass of bacteria being transferred from one medium to another

 

  1. differential medium

 

  1. medium that provides the proper environment during transport

 

  1. high-efficiency particulate air filter

 

  1. tiny microorganisms lacking a cell wall

 

  1. laboratory-acquired infections

 

  1. effective against viruses

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-4: The Gram Stain

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Organisms that retain the primary stain are said to be gram-positive.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The steps in the Gram stain procedure can be completed in less than 4 minutes.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Heat-fixing the smear causes the stain to adhere to the microorganisms.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The slide for a bacterial smear that has been correctly heat-fixed should be too hot to touch.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The counterstain in the Gram stain procedure is safranin.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. If the slide becomes too hot during heat-fixing, the morphology of the microorganism can be distorted.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. A dye that adds a contrasting color is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  counterstain

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A substance that fixes a dye or stain to an object is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  mordant

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The special absorbent paper used to dry slides is called ____________________ paper.

 

ANS:  bibulous

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Before disposal, all bacteriological specimens and materials must be sterilized by ____________________.

 

ANS:

autoclaving

autoclave

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. To prepare a smear of the microorganisms on a swab, a clean microscope slide is labeled and the swab is gently rolled across the surface of the ____________________.

 

ANS:  slide

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. During the preparation of a bacteriological smear, the film on the slide must be completely dry before the smear is ____________________.

 

ANS:

heat-fixed

heat fixed

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The most frequently performed stain in the bacteriology laboratory is the ____________________.

 

ANS:  Gram stain

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The primary stain in the Gram stain process is a dye called ____________________.

 

ANS:  crystal violet

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The mordant used in the Gram stain is ____________________.

 

ANS:  Gram’s iodine

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. When viewed under the microscope on a stained smear the color of Escherichia coli will appear ____________________.

 

ANS:

pink-red

pink

pinkish-red

pinkish red

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Escherichia coli should give a gram-____________________ reaction with the Gram stain.

 

ANS:

negative

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-____________________ organism.

 

ANS:

positive

+

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. gram-negative f. gram-positive
b. excess heat fixing g. inoculating loop and a drop of water
c. used slides h. bibulous paper
d. properly made smear i. decolorizer
e. insufficient heating during heat fixing j. Standard Precautions

 

 

  1. alcohol-acetone

 

  1. one method of drying stained smears

 

  1. Staphylococcus aureus

 

  1. Escherichia coli

 

  1. distorted morphology of bacteria

 

  1. methods used when handling cultures and patient specimens

 

  1. sharps container

 

  1. making a smear from a culture growing on an agar plate

 

  1. specimen washing off the slide

 

  1. barely visible on the slide

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-5: Tests for Group A Streptococcus

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The ICON SC group A Streptococcus (strep A) test is CLIA waived.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A negative group A Streptococcus test in a symptomatic patient should be confirmed by performing a throat culture.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In the latex agglutination tests for group A Streptococcus, microscopic beads are coated with antibodies to group A Streptococcus.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. High specificity in a rapid strep test indicates that it will react only with group A Streptococcus.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. High sensitivity in a rapid test for group A Streptococcus indicates that the test can be positive for other bacteria.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of group A Streptococcus?
a. It grows in clusters. d. It is inhibited by bacitracin.
b. It causes a hemolysis on BA. e. It is gram-negative.
c. It grows best in 5%–10% O2

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Typical morphology of strep is:
a. growth in grapelike clusters c. organisms appear singly
b. growth in chains d. none of above

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a proper quality assessment procedure?
a. Test media to see that it supports growth of the microorganism.
b. Follow manufacturer’s instructions when using rapid test kits.
c. Test media to see that it will demonstrate hemolysis.
d. Use rapid test kits beyond expiration date.
e. Results cannot be reported unless controls give proper reactions.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is correct concerning gamma (g) hemolysis?
a. incomplete hemolysis
b. absence of hemolysis
c. complete hemolysis
d. hemolysis producing a green color around the colony
e. hemolysis producing almost transparent agar

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The typical positive reaction observed with a rapid test for group A Streptococcus is:
a. beta hemolysis
b. organisms are gram-positive
c. organisms are growing in chains
d. organisms growing in increased CO2
e. the appearance of a colored line or product

 

 

ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The shallow depressions where the tonsils were located before surgical removal are called the ____________________.

 

ANS:  fossae

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The destruction of RBCs resulting in the release of hemoglobin from the cells is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  hemolysis

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Pharyngeal is having to do with the ___________________________________, or pharynx.

 

ANS:  back of the throat

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Group A Streptococcus is just one of several ____________________ groups of streptococci.

 

ANS:  Lancefield

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Streptococcus pyogenes belongs to Lancefield group ____________________.

 

ANS:  A

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An untreated group A Streptococcus infection can result in serious complications, especially for those under the age of ____________________.

 

ANS:

twenty-five

25

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Confirmation of group A Streptococcus can be made either by identifying the organism after growing it in a culture or by performing a rapid ____________________ test.

 

ANS:

immunoassay

EIA

enzyme immunoassay

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. When performing the throat swab, the technician must avoid touching the inside of the mouth or the ____________________.

 

ANS:  tongue

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The growth of most streptococci is enhanced by incubation in an increased concentration of ____________________.

 

ANS:

CO2

carbon dioxide

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The medium used to culture a throat swab is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

blood agar plate

BA plate

BA

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. group A Streptococcus d. alpha hemolysis
b. invalid test e. rapid tests for group A Streptococcus
c. blood agar

 

 

  1. beta hemolysis

 

  1. incomplete hemolysis, green coloration

 

  1. bacitracin sensitive

 

  1. antigen-antibody reaction

 

  1. no reaction in the control region

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

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