Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th edition By Barbara H. -Test Bank

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Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th edition By Barbara H. -Test Bank

Lesson 6-1: Introduction to Clinical Chemistry

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In clinical chemistry, which of the following is true?
a. Substances in the body are always in balance.
b. Results of analysis can be used to diagnose, treat, and prevent disease.
c. Quality assessment policies are not very important.
d. Homeostasis is affected only by external factors.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The tests performed in clinical chemistry can be:
a. for normal substances d. all of the above
b. for drugs or other toxic substances e. none of the above
c. for waste products of metabolism

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning changes in concentration of substances in the body?
a. Changes, whether up or down, are permanent.
b. An elevation in glucose levels will stimulate the release of insulin.
c. The balance between the concentrations is referred to as hemostasis.
d. Electrolytes have little importance in the acid-base balance in the body.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. To assess liver function, which of the following test(s) can be helpful?
a. creatine kinase c. ALT
b. BUN d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning enzymes?
a. All enzymes are widely distributed in the body.
b. Enzyme levels are always very specific for certain organs.
c. LDH is one enzyme that can be used to assess liver damage.
d. ALP was formerly known as SGOT.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Excessive amount of fat in the blood is known as ____________________.

 

ANS:  hyperlipidemia

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An anion has a(n) ____________________ charge.

 

ANS:  negative

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A chemical substance that is the subject of chemical analysis is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  analyte

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. HDL is the high density lipoprotein fraction of blood ____________________.

 

ANS:  cholesterol

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Hypocalcemia is a condition in which the blood level of ____________________ is below normal.

 

ANS:  calcium

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The thyroid hormone, T3, is also commonly known as ____________________.

 

ANS:  triiodothyronine

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A deficiency in the function of the thyroid is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  hypothyroidism

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Creatine kinase (CK) is often measured to aid in diagnosing ____________________.

 

ANS:  heart attack

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The group of cations and anions important in maintaining fluid and acid-base balance are the ____________________.

 

ANS:  electrolytes

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. AST is the enzyme present in cardiac, muscle, and liver tissue that is measured to assess the function of the ____________________.

 

ANS:  liver

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. anion g. 8.7–10.5 mg/dL
b. Technicon Corp. h. the 1600s
c. cation i. quality control
d. Hippocrates j. transferrin
e. lipid profile k. 0.7–1.4 mg/dL
f. U/L l. creatinine

 

 

  1. reference range for calcium

 

  1. sodium

 

  1. kidney function

 

  1. iron

 

  1. tasting the patient’s urine

 

  1. enzyme activity units per liter

 

  1. AutoAnalyzer

 

  1. Levey-Jennings chart

 

  1. invention of the microscope

 

  1. triglycerides

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  L                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-2: Chemistry Specimen Collection and Processing

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Plasma is the liquid from blood that has been allowed to clot.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Standard policy is to draw blood from a vein above an intravenous line.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. If plasma is to be used in a test, it should be removed from the cellular portion of blood as soon as possible after collection.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. For chemistry analysis, blood must be free of hemolysis.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The red/gray stopper tube contains a polymer gel and a silica activator.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In the CLSI order of draw, the red-top clot tubes are drawn first.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Mistakes occurring when blood is drawn contibute to preanalytical error.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which is true of hemolysis of red blood cells?
a. It can be caused by overcentrifugation.
b. It releases potassium into the plasma or serum.
c. It can be caused by excess shaking of the blood sample.
d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. How does the time of specimen collection affect certain tests?
a. Concentrations of iron are constant throughout the day.
b. Triglycerides do not change after eating.
c. Glucose and cholesterol usually change after eating.
d. Corticosteroids are not affected by the time of collection.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is true of plasma and/or serum?
a. Plasma is formed when a tube of blood is allowed to clot.
b. Plasma contains all of the dissolved chemical constituents.
c. Serum contains all of the dissolved chemical constituents plus the coagulation proteins.
d. none of the above

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. To avoid accidental needlesticks during specimen collection:
a. collect the majority of specimens by capillary puncture
b. carefully recap needles
c. use self-sheathing or safety needles
d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is true of blood collection to obtain serum?
a. Blood can be collected into a red/yellow serum separator tube.
b. A red-top collection tube can be used.
c. A green-top tube should be used.
d. A purple-top tube should be used.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. A chemical that prevents blood coagulation is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  anticoagulant

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Something that has a daily cycle is said to be ____________________.

 

ANS:  diurnal

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The liquid obtained from blood that has been allowed to clot is ____________________.

 

ANS:  serum

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  plasma

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The viscous fluid secreted by membranes lining the joints is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  synovial fluid

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A lipemic sample has a cloudy appearance due to the presence of excess ____________________.

 

ANS:

lipids

fats

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Blood specimens should remain capped until they are ready to be tested to prevent concentration of some constituents due to ____________________.

 

ANS:  evaporation

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. When collecting blood into both serum (clot) tubes and anticoagulant tubes, the light-blue-top tube is drawn first, if ordered; otherwise, serum tubes must be filled ____________________.

 

ANS:  first

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The fluid surrounding the spinal cord and bathing the ventricles of the brain is called ____________________.

 

ANS:

cerebrospinal fluid

CSF

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Blood cannot be drawn from a site above a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

intravenous line

i.v. line

IV line

i.v.

IV

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Match the stopper color with its use or anticoagulant. Answers can be used more than once.

a. red/gray e. royal blue
b. lavender f. green
c. red g. light blue
d. yellow h. gray

 

 

  1. glycolytic inhibitor

 

  1. trace metals

 

  1. EDTA

 

  1. coagulation testing

 

  1. serum separation

 

  1. no additive

 

  1. lithium heparin

 

  1. ACD solution

 

  1. sodium citrate

 

  1. polymer gel/silica activator

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-3: Principles of Chemistry Instrumentation

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The amount of light that passes through a solution to be analyzed is the absorbance.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Absorbance is indicated by the letter A.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Since very small amounts of chemicals are used in test cassettes, there are no hazards in using them.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The technology in which the reagents are in the dried form is called solid phase chemistry.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The test cartridges used in solid phase chemistry filter red blood cells out of whole blood, leaving only the serum to mix with the test reagents.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Ion-selective electrodes are especially useful for measuring electrolyte levels.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Some analyzers (meters) use the principle of amperometry to measure blood glucose levels.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. When required maintenance and quality assessment procedures are performed, most instruments in the POL provide reliable results.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning using a photometer for analysis?
a. Photometers can measure the amount of light that passes through a solution.
b. The amount of light that passes through a solution is the absorbance.
c. Solutions measured by a photometer do not follow Beer’s law.
d. Photometers cannot be integrated into the small, handheld devices.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. What is the most important consideration in choosing an instrument?
a. price c. size
b. quality of results d. must be one all the technicians like

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A good quality assessment program is essential for instrumentation in the laboratory because:
a. it ensures accuracy of patient results
b. it checks the reliability of reagents
c. it checks the operating status of instruments
d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A reflectance photometer provides analysis of samples by measuring the:
a. transmittance of light through a colored solution
b. electron flow created by a reaction
c. amount of light reflected by a colored end product in a reaction
d. amount of light that is absorbed by a colored solution

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Chemistry analyzers and instruments in the clinical laboratory present:
a. biological and physical hazards
b. chemical and physical hazards
c. biological and chemical hazards
d. biological, physical, and chemical hazards
e. no hazards to the worker

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. An electrode manufactured to respond to the concentration of a specific ion is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

ion specific electrode

ion-specific electrode

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A logarithmic expression of the amount of light absorbed by a substance containing colored molecules is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  absorbance

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The technology used when a reaction produces a stream of electrons is _____________________.

 

ANS:  amperometry

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The time elapsed between the physician’s ordering a test and receiving the results is called the ____________________.

 

ANS:

turn-around-time

turn-around time

turn around time

turnaround time

TAT

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The most important factor in choosing an instrument is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

quality of results

accuracy of results

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An instrument that measures intensity of light in different parts of the light spectrum is a ____________________.

 

ANS:  spectrophotometer

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An instrument that is CLIA waived and is useful for community health fairs is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

Cholestech LDX

Cholestech cholesterol instrument

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. nephelometry g. centrifugal analysis
b. photometer h. percent transmittance
c. CLIA ’88 i. monochromator
d. amperometry j. reflectance photometer
e. Beer’s law k. cuvette
f. ion-specific electrode l. solid phase chemistry

 

 

  1. device that isolates a narrow portion of the light spectrum

 

  1. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

 

  1. electrode manufactured to respond to certain specific ions

 

  1. percentage of light that passes through a solution

 

  1. measures light scatter by particles in a solution

 

  1. measures light of a specific wavelength that is reflected by a colored product

 

  1. instrument that measures light intensity

 

  1. for colored solutions, absorbance increases proportionally with concentration

 

  1. all reagents for the reaction are contained on a strip or slide

 

  1. use of electrodes and electrical potential to measure electron generation

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  L                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-4: Point-of-Care Testing

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Point-of-care testing (POCT) can be performed in the ER, OR, CCU, patient’s hospital room or home, or in a POL.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The overall responsibility for the POCT site’s compliance with regulations lies with the individual site and its director.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Most point-of-care tests require large samples of blood.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. There are no POCT instruments to perform coagulation testing.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A short turnaround time benefits the patient, who can receive required therapy sooner.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Establishment of POCT sites requires:
a. that the personnel at all sites receive the same training
b. frequent communication between the central laboratory and the sites
c. a director for each site with ultimate responsibility for patient results
d. All of the above (a–c) are true.
e. None of the above (a–c) are true.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of testing performed at POCT sites?
a. The quality of results is always lower than at the central lab.
b. The turnaround time for results is shortened.
c. The test menus are limited to glucose and cholesterol.
d. All of the above (a–c) is true.
e. None of the above (a–c) is true.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. POCT sites can be:
a. in the intensive care unit (ICU) c. independent of CLIA ’88 regulations
b. inconvenient for the patient d. operated without a director

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is true of quality assessment in POCT sites?
a. Some instruments have internal, electronic quality control systems.
b. All quality assessment policies set up for the site by the central laboratory must be followed.
c. Quality control checks must be performed at regular intervals.
d. None of the above (a–c) are true.
e. All of the above (a–c) are true.

 

 

ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Safety regulations in POCT sites are:
a. not necessary since there are fewer patients
b. not as stringent as in the central laboratory
c. important for the safety and welfare of patients and staff
d. determined by the staff working there

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. POCT began when blood glucose monitors were developed for home use by ____________________.

 

ANS:

diabetics

diabetic patients

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. POCT programs in hospitals can lead to shorter ____________________.

 

ANS:

hospital stays

stays in the hospital

turnaround times

TATs

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Increased patient participation in health care is one benefit of ____________________.

 

ANS:

point-of-care testing

POCT

near-patient testing

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. In POCT, the overall responsibility for compliance lies with the individual site and its ____________________.

 

ANS:

CLIA director

director

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Internal controls included in many instruments and kits has lessened the need to run ____________________.

 

ANS:

frequent controls

controls

as many controls

external controls

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each term. Every answer must be used, but some answers can be used more than once.

a. POL-registered medical assistant e. an example of a hospital POCT site
b. example of a nonhospital POCT site f. glucose monitors for home use
c. POCT g. CLIA ’88
d. training personnel

 

 

  1. reduced need for specimen transport

 

  1. beginning of POCT

 

  1. less traumatic testing method

 

  1. critical care unit

 

  1. one role of the laboratory in POCT

 

  1. one-day cholesterol screening program

 

  1. emergency room

 

  1. monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy

 

  1. law that regulates POCT

 

  1. multitrained personnel

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-5: Blood Glucose and Hemoglobin A1c

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The reference values for blood glucose are also the recommended values.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Insulin lowers blood glucose levels by increasing glucose uptake by cells.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Type 1 diabetes usually appears in children and young adults.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Hyperglycemia is the term for the blood glucose level being below normal.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The glucose bound to the beta chains of hemoglobin is measured in the Hgb A1c  test.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In glucose testing, postprandial refers to:
a. a blood glucose test performed after fasting 6–8 hours
b. a random blood glucose test
c. glucose testing performed 2 hours after eating
d. glucose testing every hour for 3 hours, after drinking a glucose drink

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Glucose oxidase is the enzyme used in many analytical methods to:
a. convert glucose to gluconolactone
b. promote the conversion of glycogen to glucose
c. convert glucose to gluconic acid
d. convert glucose to glucose-6-phosphate

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of insulin?
a. It is a vitamin.
b. It lowers blood glucose.
c. Its action is similar to that of glucagon.
d. Its action is similar to that of cortisol.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A blood glucose measurement on a sample taken when the patient has not eaten for 8 hours is:
a. an OGTT c. a 2-hour postprandial test
b. a postprandial test d. a fasting glucose

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of type 1 diabetes?
a. It usually appears in children and young adults.
b. It is also known as insulin resistance.
c. It appears later in life.
d. It results when the body fails to properly use insulin.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The enzyme that converts glucose to gluconic acid and is used in glucose analytical methods is ____________________.

 

ANS:  glucose oxidase

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Glucagon is the pancreatic hormone that increases blood concentration by promoting the conversion of glycogen to ____________________.

 

ANS:  glucose

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The enzyme used in glucose analytical methods to convert glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is ____________________.

 

ANS:  hexokinase

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The storage form of glucose found in high concentrations in the liver is ____________________.

 

ANS:  glycogen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The condition in which the blood glucose concentration is above normal is called _____________________.

 

ANS:  hyperglycemia

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The disorder of carbohydrate metabolism characterized by a state of hyperglycemia due to insulin deficiency is ____________________.

 

ANS:

diabetes mellitus

diabetes

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Hemoglobin that has glucose bound to the beta globin chains is called ____________________.

 

ANS:

hemoglobin A1c

Hb A1c

Hgb A1c

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The condition in which the blood glucose concentration is below normal is ____________________.

 

ANS:  hypoglycemia

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The pancreatic hormone essential for proper metabolism of blood glucose and maintenance of blood glucose levels is ____________________.

 

ANS:  insulin

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. In glycolysis, energy production is a result of the metabolic breakdown of ____________________.

 

ANS:  glucose

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. glucose oxidase d. Hb A1c
b. glucagon e. diabetes mellitus
c. insulin

 

 

  1. glycated hemoglobin

 

  1. conversion of glycogen to glucose

 

  1. hyperglycemia due to insulin deficiency

 

  1. conversion of glucose to gluconic acid

 

  1. pancreatic hormone essential for proper metabolism of glucose

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-6: Blood Cholesterol and Triglycerides

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true?
a. An exogenous cholesterol level is an inherited tendency.
b. Most test methods for cholesterol measure only cholesterol from exogenous sources.
c. Exogenous cholesterol comes from foods such as egg yolks.
d. Cholesterol analyzers measure only endogenous cholesterol.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is true for cholesterol analytical methods?
a. Most instruments measure only total cholesterol.
b. One cholesterol fraction commonly reported is HDL.
c. Analytical methods to measure HDL and LDL have been available only since 2000.
d. The analysis of cholesterol is technically difficult.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is true of triglycerides?
a. They are the most common form of fat in the body.
b. Extra calories are converted to triglycerides.
c. Triglycerides are a storage form of energy.
d. All of the above (a–c) are true.
e. None of the above (a–c) are true.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of reference and recommended values?
a. The NCEP desirable level for total cholesterol is < 200 mg/dL.
b. Triglyceride levels greater than 200 mg/dL are classified as very high.
c. LDL optimal level is > 190 mg/dL.
d. Cholesterol values > 240 mg/dL are borderline high.
e. All of the above (a–d) are true.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of metabolic syndrome?
a. It is associated with a low LDL blood level.
b. It is associated with an elevated blood glucose and a low HDL blood level.
c. It is not thought to be related to insulin resistance.
d. It is associated with a normal blood triglyeride level and a high HDL level.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Exogenous refers to something originating from the ____________________.

 

ANS:  outside

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A heart attack caused by obstruction of the blood supply to or within the heart is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

myocardial infarction

MI

heart attack

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A condition in which lipids, calcium, and other substances deposit on the inner walls of the arteries is ____________________.

 

ANS:  atherosclerosis

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The low-density lipoprotein fraction of blood cholesterol is also called ____________________.

 

ANS:

LDL

LDL cholesterol

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. “Good” cholesterol is the cholesterol fraction commonly known as ____________________.

 

ANS:

HDL

HDL cholesterol

high-density lipoprotein cholesterol

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Animal fats and egg yolks are examples of ____________________ cholesterol, or cholesterol from outside the body.

 

ANS:  exogenous

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A lipid sterol that is an important component of all body tissues is ____________________.

 

ANS:  cholesterol

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. HDL transports cholesterol from the tissues to be broken down by the ____________________.

 

ANS:  liver

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Cholesterol serves as a precursor to bile salts and ____________________.

 

ANS:

steroid hormones

hormones

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Endogenous cholesterol can be synthesized in the body by the ____________________.

 

ANS:  liver

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Some answers can be used more than once.

a. LDL and HDL values
b. < 150 mg/dL
c. increased triglycerides and low HDL
d. high HDL
e. total cholesterol of 240 mg/dL and above
f. triglycerides
g. > 500 mg/dL
h. < 200 mg/dL
i. LDL
j. < 100 mg/dL

 

 

  1. reference value for triglycerides

 

  1. used to calculate the heart attack risk factor

 

  1. optimal LDL cholesterol

 

  1. largest portion of fats in the diet

 

  1. NCEP-recommended value for total cholesterol

 

  1. storage form of energy found in adipose tissue and muscle

 

  1. metabolic syndrome

 

  1. very high triglycerides

 

  1. > 60 mg/dL

 

  1. high risk of heart disease

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-7: Electrolytes

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Cations are the positively charged ions.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The anion gap (AG) is a calculation rather than a direct measurement.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The tests for electrolytes can be performed only on serum samples.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Since most electrolyte analysis is performed by ion-specific electrodes, it is not necessary to observe Standard Precautions.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Some electrolyte analyzers use a single-use test cartridge that contains a calibrator.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The major intracellular electrolyte is sodium.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The term for blood potassium levels above normal is ____________________.

 

ANS:  hyperkalemia

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The abnormal condition in which blood pH falls below 7.35 is ____________________.

 

ANS:  acidosis

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The term meaning blood sodium levels below normal is ____________________.

 

ANS:  hyponatremia

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Ions in the body are called ____________________.

 

ANS:  electrolytes

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Since electrolyte imbalances can be life threatening, the test for electrolytes is often ordered as a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

stat test

stat

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Potassium is important in maintaining the muscular activity of the ____________________.

 

ANS:  heart

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The SI unit for expressing electrolyte concentration is ____________________.

 

ANS:

millimoles per liter

mmol per liter

millimoles per L

mmol/L

mmol per L

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The major intracellular cation is ____________________.

 

ANS:

potassium

K+

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The cation that influences osmotic concentration and determines the extracellular fluid volume is ____________________.

 

ANS:

sodium

Na+

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Decreased serum potassium due to diarrhea vomiting or use of diuretics is known as ____________________.

 

ANS:  hypokalemia

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. acidosis f. alkalosis
b. HCO3 g. 135–148 mmol/L
c. 22–28 mmol/L h. 3.8–5.5 mmol/L
d. ion-specific electrodes i. electrolyte balance
e. 98–108 mmol/L j. K+

 

 

  1. reference range for serum chloride

 

  1. essential to normal cellular functions

 

  1. measurement of electrolytes

 

  1. bicarbonate ion

 

  1. abnormal condition in which blood pH rises above 7.45

 

  1. sodium reference range

 

  1. potassium reference range

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

Lesson 6-8: Fecal Occult Blood Test

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Standard Precautions are not required when handling fecal occult blood slides since the specimen is dried.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The fecal occult blood tests must be prepared and read in the physician’s office.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A disadvantage of the ICT is that it mainly detects colon bleeding.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The ICT endpoint is a definite colored line.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Guaiac used in the fecal occult blood test is derived from a tree resin.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Both the guaiac and ICT tests are CLIA waived.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The ICT test has high sensitivity, which means that it detects only high levels of occult blood.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Because the fecal occult blood test is so simple, it is not necessary to provide the patient with instructions on how or when to collect the sample and prepare the slides.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The chemical that is derived from the resin of the Guaiacum tree and is used in the occult blood test is ____________________.

 

ANS:  guaiac

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Something that is cancerous is not benign, but is instead ____________________.

 

ANS:  malignant

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Another word for concealed or hidden is ____________________.

 

ANS:  occult

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The fecal occult blood test detects amounts of blood too small to be ____________________.

 

ANS:

visible

seen

noticed

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The fecal occult blood test detects bleeding in the ____________________.

 

ANS:

gastrointestinal tract

GI tract

colon

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The fecal occult blood test is widely used as a screening test for ____________________.

 

ANS:

colon cancer

bleeding in the GI tract

bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. In the guaiac fecal occult blood test, a false positive test can be caused by the enzyme peroxidase, which is found in foods such as turnips and ____________________.

 

ANS:  horseradish

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Excess vitamin C can inhibit the reaction in the guaiac test and cause a false ____________________ test.

 

ANS:  negative

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The Hemoccult ICT test uses a(n) ____________________ reaction to detect hemoglobin in the fecal specimen.

 

ANS:  immunochemical

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. In the guaiac test, it is the ____________________ in the hemoglobin that catalyzes the reaction to form a blue color.

 

ANS:

iron

Fe

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The ICT test method detects the ____________________ portion of hemoglobin.

 

ANS:

globin

globin chain

protein

protein chain

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The developer solution used in the guaiac test contains ______________________________.

 

ANS:

hydrogen peroxide

H2O2

peroxide

H2O2

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Match the terms with the descriptions. Use an answer only once.

a. no dietary restrictions d. peroxidase in turnips and horseradish
b. the guaiac test e. ICT
c. CLIA waived

 

 

  1. uses an antibody to detect the globin chain in hemoglobin

 

  1. guaiac test and ICT

 

  1. false positive guaiac test

 

  1. ICT

 

  1. temporarily eliminate red meat or large doses of vitamin C from diet

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

Lesson 7-1: Introduction to Clinical Microbiology

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Another designation for rod-shaped bacteria is cocci.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Bacteria that retain the crystal violet stain are said to be gram-negative.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Sheep’s blood agar (BA) supports the growth of most bacteria.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Organisms that live in, on, or at the expense of another organism are parasites.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Fastidious organisms will grow on most types of media.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Minimum inhibitory concentration:
a. is the area around an antibiotic disk
b. is a diagnostic method using antigen-antibody reactions
c. is the concentration of an antibiotic required to inhibit the growth of a microorganism
d. is the same as the Bauer-Kirby method

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A growth medium that supports the growth of most organisms is:
a. EMB c. “chocolate” agar
b. Thayer-Martin d. 5% sheep’s blood agar (BA)

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Organisms that live in, on, or at the expense of another organism:
a. are called host organisms
b. are parasites
c. are always unicellular
d. are found only in blood and bone marrow

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In microbiology, which of the following is true?
a. Hyphae are filaments of mold that make up the mycelium.
b. The parasite spends its entire life cycle in one host.
c. A bacillus is a spherical organism.
d. A culture is a defined mass of microorganisms.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In the POL, which of the following would be most likely to be performed?
a. parasitology procedures c. fungal cultures
b. bacterial cultures d. virus cultures

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Another name for spiral- or helical-shaped bacteria is:
a. bacillus c. coccobacillus
b. spirochete d. gram-negative

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. According to international rules of nomenclature, regarding the scientific names of living things:
a. the first part of the name is the family name
b. the second part of the name is the genus name
c. the first and second parts of the name are capitalized
d. scientific names must be italicized if typed or underlined if handwritten

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Microbiology includes:
a. only the study of bacteria
b. only bacteria and fungi
c. the study of organisms of microscopic size
d. the study of only pathogens

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true EXCEPT:
a. Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms.
b. Bacteria usually multiply by fission.
c. All bacteria are pathogens.
d. A bacterium is a single organism.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning growth requirements of bacteria?
a. Anaerobic bacteria grow in the absence of oxygen.
b. Aerobic bacteria require CO2 to grow.
c. Fastidious organisms can grow on almost any medium.
d. Few organisms can grow on 5% sheep’s blood agar.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. A rod-shaped bacterium is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  bacillus

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A defined mass of bacteria assumed to have grown from a single organism is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  colony

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Bacteria that require special nutritional factors to survive are called ____________________.

 

ANS:

fastidious

fastidious bacteria

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A culture is growth of microorganisms in a special ____________________.

 

ANS:  medium

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Bacteria that lose the crystal violet stain and retain the safranin in the Gram stain procedure are designated ____________________ bacteria.

 

ANS:

gram-negative

gram negative

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Another name for a spherical bacterium is ____________________.

 

ANS:  coccus

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Organisms that will grow only in the absence of oxygen are referred to as ____________________.

 

ANS:

anaerobic

anaerobic organisms

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Microorganisms that are normally present in a specific site are the normal ____________________.

 

ANS:  flora

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An organism or agent that is capable of causing disease in a host is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  pathogen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A pathological condition caused by growth of microorganisms in the host is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  infection

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Answers can be used more than once.

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococcus d. Staphylococcus aureus

 

 

  1. infections, boils

 

  1. urinary tract infections

 

  1. chocolate agar

 

  1. EMB agar

 

  1. blood agar

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-2: Bacteriology Specimen Collection and Processing

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Aerobic bacteria grow only in the absence of oxygen.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. If antiseptic wipes are used by the patient when collecting urine for culture, the container does not have to be sterile.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The phlebotomist is required to wear sterile gloves when collecting a blood culture.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A stool specimen from an infant can be conveniently collected in a disposable diaper.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Anaerobic organisms will grow on most types of media.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A specimen from a wound is best collected using a swab.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The stool specimen from an adult can be collected from the toilet water.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A sputum specimen must be transported in a special transport medium.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In the POL, which of the following would most likely be performed?
a. parasitology procedures c. fungal cultures
b. bacterial cultures d. virus cultures

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning growth requirements of bacteria?
a. Anaerobic bacteria grow in the absence of oxygen.
b. Aerobic bacteria require CO2 to grow.
c. Fastidious organisms can grow on almost any medium.
d. Few organisms can grow on 5% sheep’s blood agar.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of blood culture collection?
a. The site is cleansed as in routine venipuncture.
b. The tops of the collection bottles are sterile.
c. Blood culture can be contaminated by skin flora
d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A nasal or nasopharyngeal culture can be ordered:
a. to check for septicemia
b. to rule out an infection by Bordatella pertussis
c. is collected using a cotton swab
d. to check for group A Streptococcus (strep A)

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Organisms that will grow only in the absence of oxygen are referred to as ____________________.

 

ANS:

anaerobic

anaerobic organisms

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Microorganisms that are normally present in a specific site are the normal ____________________.

 

ANS:  flora

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Salmonella species could be isolated from a ____________________.

 

ANS:  stool specimen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The patient should rinse the mouth with water before collecting a ____________________.

 

ANS:

sputum specimen

sputum

respiratory specimen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Cary-Blair is a medium that can be used for transport of ____________________.

 

ANS:

stool specimens

stools for culture

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Health care workers may be tested for being carriers of MRSA by having a(an) ____________________.

 

ANS:

Lesson 7-3: Culture Techniques for Bacteriology

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The majority of laboratory-acquired infections are transmitted by respiratory route.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. An antiseptic is used to kill organisms on living tissues.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A selective medium supports the growth of most organisms.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The use of an open flame to sterilize the loop can produce aerosols.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. When primary media is being inoculated, the swab containing infectious material is used to inoculate the first quadrant.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A growth medium that allows growth of some organisms while inhibiting growth of others is called:
a. a primary medium c. a transport medium
b. an indicator medium d. a selective medium

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. An antiseptic is:
a. a chemical that eliminates all living microorganisms from an article or an area
b. a chemical used to control the growth of microorganisms on living tissues
c. a chemical used to sterilize a surface
d. all measures used to prevent contamination

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true concerning aseptic technique EXCEPT:
a. It prevents bacteria from infecting humans.
b. It prevents contamination of a culture by unwanted organisms.
c. It prevents contamination of surfaces.
d. It protects only the technician.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning laboratory-acquired infections?
a. They increase when disposable inoculating loops are used.
b. The majority occur by respiratory route.
c. Aerosol formation plays no role.
d. To prevent them, an open flame should be used to sterilize loops.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Concerning microbiological safety cabinets, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
a. They are not required for routine bacteriological work.
b. All work performed with fungi and certain other highly infectious agents requires the use of a Class I cabinet.
c. Work performed on Mycobacterium requires a Class II cabinet.
d. Class II cabinets contain a HEPA filter.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The seaweed derivative used to solidify microbiological media is ____________________.

 

ANS:  agar

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A chemical used to control the growth of microorganisms on inanimate surfaces such as benchtops is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

disinfectant

surface disinfectant

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A mass of bacteria being transferred from one medium to another is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  inoculum

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The process of transferring a population of microorganisms to a growth medium is ____________________.

 

ANS:

inoculation

inoculating

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The act of eliminating all living microorganisms from an article or area is ____________________.

 

ANS:  sterilization

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A bacteriological medium that detects certain chemical reactions of organisms growing on it is called a(n) ____________________ medium.

 

ANS:  indicator

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. One-fourth of an agar plate is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  quadrant

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A medium used to recover an organism from infectious material is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

primary medium

primary

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An antiseptic is a chemical used on ____________________ to control the growth of microorganisms.

 

ANS:

living tissue

tissue

skin

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Bacteria are streaked on an agar plate using a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

inoculating loop

loop

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. indicator medium f. transport medium
b. inoculum g. aseptic technique
c. Mycoplasma h. respiratory route
d. agar i. HEPA
e. 10% chlorine bleach j. inoculating loop

 

 

  1. measures used to prevent contamination when working with microorganisms

 

  1. seaweed derivative used to solidify media

 

  1. instrument used to pick up and transfer bacteria

 

  1. mass of bacteria being transferred from one medium to another

 

  1. differential medium

 

  1. medium that provides the proper environment during transport

 

  1. high-efficiency particulate air filter

 

  1. tiny microorganisms lacking a cell wall

 

  1. laboratory-acquired infections

 

  1. effective against viruses

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

nasopharyngeal culture

nasal swab performed

nasopharyngeal swab performed

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. Bordatella pertussis
b. Streptococcus
c. Escherichia coli
d. Staphylococcus aureus such as MRSA
e. anaerobic organisms

 

 

  1. HAIs

 

  1. urinary tract infections

 

  1. nasal or nasopharyngeal swab

 

  1. wound cultures

 

  1. throat culture

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-4: The Gram Stain

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Organisms that retain the primary stain are said to be gram-positive.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The steps in the Gram stain procedure can be completed in less than 4 minutes.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Heat-fixing the smear causes the stain to adhere to the microorganisms.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The slide for a bacterial smear that has been correctly heat-fixed should be too hot to touch.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The counterstain in the Gram stain procedure is safranin.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. If the slide becomes too hot during heat-fixing, the morphology of the microorganism can be distorted.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. A dye that adds a contrasting color is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  counterstain

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A substance that fixes a dye or stain to an object is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  mordant

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The special absorbent paper used to dry slides is called ____________________ paper.

 

ANS:  bibulous

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Before disposal, all bacteriological specimens and materials must be sterilized by ____________________.

 

ANS:

autoclaving

autoclave

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. To prepare a smear of the microorganisms on a swab, a clean microscope slide is labeled and the swab is gently rolled across the surface of the ____________________.

 

ANS:  slide

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. During the preparation of a bacteriological smear, the film on the slide must be completely dry before the smear is ____________________.

 

ANS:

heat-fixed

heat fixed

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The most frequently performed stain in the bacteriology laboratory is the ____________________.

 

ANS:  Gram stain

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The primary stain in the Gram stain process is a dye called ____________________.

 

ANS:  crystal violet

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The mordant used in the Gram stain is ____________________.

 

ANS:  Gram’s iodine

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. When viewed under the microscope on a stained smear the color of Escherichia coli will appear ____________________.

 

ANS:

pink-red

pink

pinkish-red

pinkish red

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Escherichia coli should give a gram-____________________ reaction with the Gram stain.

 

ANS:

negative

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-____________________ organism.

 

ANS:

positive

+

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. gram-negative f. gram-positive
b. excess heat fixing g. inoculating loop and a drop of water
c. used slides h. bibulous paper
d. properly made smear i. decolorizer
e. insufficient heating during heat fixing j. Standard Precautions

 

 

  1. alcohol-acetone

 

  1. one method of drying stained smears

 

  1. Staphylococcus aureus

 

  1. Escherichia coli

 

  1. distorted morphology of bacteria

 

  1. methods used when handling cultures and patient specimens

 

  1. sharps container

 

  1. making a smear from a culture growing on an agar plate

 

  1. specimen washing off the slide

 

  1. barely visible on the slide

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-5: Tests for Group A Streptococcus

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The ICON SC group A Streptococcus (strep A) test is CLIA waived.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A negative group A Streptococcus test in a symptomatic patient should be confirmed by performing a throat culture.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In the latex agglutination tests for group A Streptococcus, microscopic beads are coated with antibodies to group A Streptococcus.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. High specificity in a rapid strep test indicates that it will react only with group A Streptococcus.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. High sensitivity in a rapid test for group A Streptococcus indicates that the test can be positive for other bacteria.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of group A Streptococcus?
a. It grows in clusters. d. It is inhibited by bacitracin.
b. It causes a hemolysis on BA. e. It is gram-negative.
c. It grows best in 5%–10% O2

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Typical morphology of strep is:
a. growth in grapelike clusters c. organisms appear singly
b. growth in chains d. none of above

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a proper quality assessment procedure?
a. Test media to see that it supports growth of the microorganism.
b. Follow manufacturer’s instructions when using rapid test kits.
c. Test media to see that it will demonstrate hemolysis.
d. Use rapid test kits beyond expiration date.
e. Results cannot be reported unless controls give proper reactions.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is correct concerning gamma (g) hemolysis?
a. incomplete hemolysis
b. absence of hemolysis
c. complete hemolysis
d. hemolysis producing a green color around the colony
e. hemolysis producing almost transparent agar

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The typical positive reaction observed with a rapid test for group A Streptococcus is:
a. beta hemolysis
b. organisms are gram-positive
c. organisms are growing in chains
d. organisms growing in increased CO2
e. the appearance of a colored line or product

 

 

ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The shallow depressions where the tonsils were located before surgical removal are called the ____________________.

 

ANS:  fossae

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The destruction of RBCs resulting in the release of hemoglobin from the cells is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  hemolysis

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Pharyngeal is having to do with the ___________________________________, or pharynx.

 

ANS:  back of the throat

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Group A Streptococcus is just one of several ____________________ groups of streptococci.

 

ANS:  Lancefield

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Streptococcus pyogenes belongs to Lancefield group ____________________.

 

ANS:  A

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An untreated group A Streptococcus infection can result in serious complications, especially for those under the age of ____________________.

 

ANS:

twenty-five

25

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Confirmation of group A Streptococcus can be made either by identifying the organism after growing it in a culture or by performing a rapid ____________________ test.

 

ANS:

immunoassay

EIA

enzyme immunoassay

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. When performing the throat swab, the technician must avoid touching the inside of the mouth or the ____________________.

 

ANS:  tongue

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The growth of most streptococci is enhanced by incubation in an increased concentration of ____________________.

 

ANS:

CO2

carbon dioxide

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The medium used to culture a throat swab is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

blood agar plate

BA plate

BA

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. group A Streptococcus d. alpha hemolysis
b. invalid test e. rapid tests for group A Streptococcus
c. blood agar

 

 

  1. beta hemolysis

 

  1. incomplete hemolysis, green coloration

 

  1. bacitracin sensitive

 

  1. antigen-antibody reaction

 

  1. no reaction in the control region

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-6: Urine Culture and Colony Count

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The primary medium is used to observe for chemical reactions.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The urine culture should be performed on urine collected before the patient begins antibiotic therapy.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Urinary tract infections are more common in females.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All calibrated loops used to inoculate urine culture media are 0.001 mL capacity.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The colony count for the urine culture is made from the EMB or MAC plate.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Agar plates for urine culture are streaked in four quadrants for isolated colonies.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Inoculating loops of 0.01 mL or 0.001 mL capacity can be used to streak urine for colony counts.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. If a urine colony count was streaked with a 0.001 mL loop and 70 colonies were counted on the blood agar plate after incubation, which of the following is true?
a. The count cannot be calculated from the blood agar plate.
b. 70,000/ mL is the colony count.
c. The 0.001 mL loop should not be used.
d. The count should be done on the EMB or MAC plate.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following are UTI symptoms?
a. fever d. all of the above
b. backache e. only (a) and (b)
c. blood in urine

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true concerning a urine culture EXCEPT:
a. Only calibrated loops should be used.
b. The specimen must be cultured before a urinalysis is performed.
c. If three or more colony types are present, each is counted separately for the colony count.
d. The media should not be used beyond its expiration date.
e. The specimen for culture must be collected before the patient begins antibiotic therapy.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true?
a. The routine urinalysis should be performed before the urine culture is set up.
b. For quality assessment, media should be tested once every 3 months.
c. If a calibrated loop is not available, a regular platinum loop can be used for urine culture.
d. All (a–c) are true.
e. None (a–c) are true.

 

 

ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true EXCEPT:
a. Urine culture is one of the most frequently requested tests.
b. UTIs are more frequent in male patients.
c. Standard Precautions must be observed when performing a urine culture.
d. Pseudomonas can be a cause of UTIs.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. One of the most frequently requested tests in the bacteriology laboratory is the ____________________ culture.

 

ANS:

urine

urine C&S

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The method of estimating the number of organisms in urine by enumerating the colonies is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  colony count

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An abbreviation for a urinary tract infection is ____________________.

 

ANS:  UTI

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The number of colonies counted is multiplied by ____________________ if a 0.01 mL inoculating loop was used to streak the culture.

 

ANS:

100

one hundred

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The microorganism most commonly responsible for a UTI is ____________________.

 

ANS:

Escherichia coli

  1. coli

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. For colony count, the specimen is inoculated to a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

blood agar plate

BA plate

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Urine is inoculated to EMB or MAC, which supports the growth of gram-negative organisms and inhibits growth of ____________________.

 

ANS:

gram positives

gram-positive organisms

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. After working with bacterial cultures, and any time a spill or splash occurs, the technician must wipe all work surfaces with surface ____________________.

 

ANS:  disinfectant

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A gram-positive organism frequently found as a causative agent in UTI is ____________________.

 

ANS:

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

  1. saprophyticus

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The specimen required for a urine culture is a(n) ____________________ urine specimen.

 

ANS:

clean-catch

clean catch

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Some answers can be used more than once.

a. EMB and MAC d. selective media
b. colony count e. clean-catch specimen
c. contaminated specimen

 

 

  1. EMB

 

  1. blood agar plate

 

  1. three or more colony types on BA

 

  1. MAC

 

  1. inhibit growth of gram positives

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-7: Bacterial Identification and Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The endpoint reaction of the catalase test is a color change.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The catalase test is used to differentiate gram positives from gram negatives.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Most identification schemes for gram negatives is based on biochemical reactions.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The Mueller-Hinton antibiotic susceptibility test uses Bauer-Kirby agar.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Zones of inhibition:
a. are present when organisms are resistant
b. are estimated by comparison to other zones
c. are measured using a template or rule
d. contain bacterial growth

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are methods of bacterial identification EXCEPT:
a. MIC c. Enterotube
b. API d. Vitek-Two

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The coagulase test:
a. cannot be performed in tubes d. uses rabbit plasma
b. is a 10-minute test e. None of the above (a–d) are correct.
c. is positive for strep

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Before setting up a bacterial identification test, it is most important to know:
a. the organism’s gram reaction
b. the antibiotic susceptibility of the organism
c. the colony appearance on BA
d. the zone of inhibition

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which statement is NOT correct?
a. The catalase test uses H2O2 reagent.
b. The endpoint of the coagulase test is a clot.
c. Staph bacteria grow in clusters.
d. Blood agar will not react in the catalase test.
e. The endpoint of the catalase test is bubble formation.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In the Bauer-Kirby antibiotic susceptibility test:
a. the plate is streaked in four quadrants for isolation
b. antibiotic disks are embedded into the agar before inoculation
c. the plate is inoculated with a swab rather than a loop
d. test results are available in 2–4 hours
e. the test is performed in a microplate

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The catalase test differentiates between Streptococcus species and ____________________ species.

 

ANS:  Staphylococcus

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The minimum inhibitory concentration is abbreviated as ____________________.

 

ANS:  MIC

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Pleomorphic means having ____________________.

 

ANS:  varied shapes

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Coliform bacteria includes the ____________________ intestinal bacteria such as Escherichia coli.

 

ANS:

gram negative

gram-negative

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The test that differentiates between Staphylococcus aureus and other Staphylococcus species is the ____________________ test.

 

ANS:  coagulase

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Gram-negative organisms will grow on BA as well as EMB and ____________________.

 

ANS:

MAC

MacConkey

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The growth of gram-____________________ organisms is inhibited on MAC or EMB.

 

ANS:

positive

+

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The Gram stain reveals the gram reaction and reveals or confirms the shape, or ____________________.

 

ANS:

morphology

bacterial morphology

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The ____________________ tests should be performed to be sure the causative agent is not resistant to antibiotics.

 

ANS:  antibiotic susceptibility

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. In the 1940s, the incidence of streptococcal infections declined with the discovery of ____________________.

 

ANS:

penicillin

the antibiotic penicillin

penicillin antibiotic

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. Escherichia coli
b. API STAPH
c. cause of methicillin resistance
d. determining resistance or susceptibility
e. Enterotube II
f. improperly collected urine
g. MRSA
h. MicroScan Walk-Away, VITEK-2
i. Bauer-Kirby
j. Klebsiella species

 

 

  1. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

 

  1. penicillin-binding proteins in cell wall

 

  1. distinctive bubble-gum pink mucoid colonies on indicator media

 

  1. a green metallic sheen on EMB

 

  1. manual bacterial identification system

 

  1. biochemical reactions of Staphylococcus

 

  1. automated instruments for bacterial identification

 

  1. manual susceptibility test

 

  1. measuring the zones around the antibiotic disks

 

  1. three or more different organisms cultured from a specimen

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-8: Tests for Sexually Transmitted Diseases

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Testing for STDs is performed only in state public health laboratories.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Venereal disease is another name for sexually transmitted disease.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Some rapid diagnostic tests can detect the organisms responsible for vaginitis in less than 10 minutes.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The three-slide test is a CLIA-waived PPM test.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Chlamydia trachomatis rarely causes urethritis in males.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A vaccine is available for both males and females to prevent HPV.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Some over-the-counter kits are available to help diagnose vaginitis.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Syphilis is no longer a public health problem.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. All of the following are true of STDs EXCEPT:
a. They can be caused by bacteria.
b. They infect the genitourinary tract and other sites in the body.
c. They can be caused by protozoa.
d. They are caused only by viruses.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true of STDs in female patients EXCEPT:
a. STDs are not a factor in infertility in females.
b. Females are often asymptomatic.
c. They can cause vaginitis.
d. They can be passed from a positive partner.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true of vaginitis?
a. It is commonly caused by strep group A.
b. One causative agent is Chlamydia trachomatis.
c. It can be caused by Mobiluncus species.
d. Candida albicans can be a cause.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The three-slide test is an important part of discovering the cause of vaginitis. Which of the following is true of the test?
a. The KOH preparation is used to look for Trichomonas.
b. The KOH preparation is used to look for “clue” cells.
c. A Gram stain can detect bacteria or yeasts.
d. Any properly trained technician can perform the test.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
a. It grows best on blood agar.
b. The colonies are tiny, shiny, and grayish.
c. It is negative by the oxidase test.
d. It causes STDs in males but not in females

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Treponema pallidum causes the STD ____________________.

 

ANS:  syphilis

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The oxidase test is used to identify certain bacteria such as ____________________.

 

ANS:

Neisseria

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  1. gonorrhoeae

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A sexually transmitted virus that can cause cervical cancer is ____________________.

 

ANS:

HPV

human papilloma virus

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Untreated STDs in females can cause women of childbearing age to be ____________________.

 

ANS:

infertile

barren

unable to conceive

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The saline wet mount preparation is for detection of Trichomonas and ____________________.

 

ANS:  clue cells

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. syphilis f. spirochetes
b. p24 antigen g. parasitic protozoan
c. cancer of the cervix h. oxidase test
d. HSV-1 i. CLIA waived
e. hepatocarcinoma j. venereal

 

 

  1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

 

  1. usual cause of oral herpes

 

  1. motile bacteria with a helical or spiral shape

 

  1. Treponema pallidum

 

  1. having to do with sexual contact

 

  1. test for HIV infection

 

  1. Trichomonas vaginalis

 

  1. genital human papilloma virus

 

  1. hepatitis B virus

 

  1. PPM tests

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

Lesson 7-9: Infection Prevention in Health Care Settings

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. If gloves are worn, handwashing is not required after their removal.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Contact Precautions are important to prevent transmission of skin infections.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Droplet Precautions are important in suspected cases of streptococcal pharyngitis.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The source of infection can be an infected person or animal, the environment, or fomites.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In 1996, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) issued Standard Precautions to augment Universal Precautions.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. A CDC isolation category designed to prevent transmission of diseases spread by close or direct contact is ____________________.

 

ANS:

contact precautions

Contact Precautions

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A person who harbors an organism, has no symptoms or signs of disease, but is capable of spreading the organism to others is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  carrier

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Inanimate objects such as bed rails, linens, or eating utensils that can be contaminated are referred to as ____________________.

 

ANS:  fomites

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A pathological condition caused by growth of microorganisms in the host is a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  infection

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The practice of limiting the movement and social contact of a patient who is potentially infectious or who must be protected from exposure to infectious agents is ____________________.

 

ANS:  isolation

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An infection acquired in a hospital or other health care facility is called a(n) ____________________ infection.

 

ANS:

nosocomial

health-care associated

health care associated

health-care-associated

HAI

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Standard Precautions is a set of CDC guidelines designed to protect patients and health care workers by regarding all patients and body substances as potentially ____________________.

 

ANS:  infectious

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. After glove removal, the health care provider must wash the hands with a hand ____________________.

 

ANS:

antiseptic

antiseptic soap

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Protective isolation is also called ____________________ isolation.

 

ANS:  reverse

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An organism not normally causing disease in a healthy individual is referred to as ____________________.

 

ANS:

nonpathogenic

non-pathogenic

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Some answers can be used more than once.

a. nosocomial infections, often drug resistant
b. pulmonary tuberculosis
c. proper handwashing
d. infection
e. 90,000 deaths annually
f. OPIM
g. Droplet Precautions
h. exposure control practices
i. Airborne Precautions
j. surface disinfectant
k. all patients

 

 

  1. handwashing, use of gloves, masks, and gowns

 

  1. first and last step of all procedures

 

  1. statistic associated with health-care-associated infections (HAIs)

 

  1. Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium difficile

 

  1. other potentially infectious material

 

  1. process should last at least 1–2 minutes

 

  1. airborne precautions

 

  1. prevent transmission of disease spread through the air over short distances

 

  1. pathological condition caused by growth of microorganisms in the host

 

  1. fomites

 

  1. Standard Precautions

 

  1. influenza

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  K                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

Lesson 7-10: Emerging Infectious Diseases

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Reemergence of a previously known pathogen can occur because of mutations or adaptations in the organism.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Emerging infectious diseases have the potential to develop into pandemics.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. West Nile virus is spread geographically by infected humans.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Zoonotic refers to infection or disease that can be transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Epizootic refers to outbreak of disease in an animal population.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Mad cow disease is also known as:
a. avian influenza c. SARS
b. bovine spongiform encephalopathy d. Ebola

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Public health crises can be caused by:
a. hurricanes disrupting wastewater treatment plants
b. natural disasters creating environments where insects and pathogens can grow
c. hurricanes causing cholera by contamination of food and water supplies
d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true of West Nile virus EXCEPT:
a. It was first isolated in Uganda.
b. It causes mild febrile illness in about 20% of patients.
c. It causes severe meningitis in less than 1% of patients.
d. It is not known to cause fatalities.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true of viral hemorrhagic fevers EXCEPT:
a. The onset is abrupt.
b. The symptoms result from multiple organ damage.
c. They usually are not fatal.
d. The symptoms include fatigue and bleeding under the skin.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The filovirus family includes which of the following?
a. Ebola and Rift Valley fever viruses c. Lassa and Marburg viruses
b. Rift Valley fever virus and hantavirus d. Ebola and Marburg viruses

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The national network of laboratories organized by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), and the Association of Public Health Laboratories is known as the ____________________.

 

ANS:

Laboratory Response Network

LRN

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Avian influenza is a problem for humans because humans have no natural ____________________.

 

ANS:  immunity

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The family of viruses that cause Ebola hemorrhagic fever and Marburg hemorrhagic fever is called ____________________.

 

ANS:

filovirus

filovirus family

filoviruses

Filoviridae

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is caused by an unconventional transmissible agent called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  prion

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Development of multidrug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium has allowed the reemergence of the disease ____________________.

 

ANS:

tuberculosis

TB

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. After the 2010 earthquake in Haiti, 100,000 people were eventually hospitalized because of a reemerging disease ____________________.

 

ANS:  cholera

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. In Africa in 2010 there was an outreak of ____________________.

 

ANS:  Rift Valley fever

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each time. Use an answer only once.

a. RNA viruses g. Marburg virus
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis h. West Nile virus
c. malaria 2010 i. avian influenza virus
d. SARS j. cholera
e. Ebola virus k. Haiti
f. found in animals or arthropods l. prion

 

 

  1. discovered in Uganda in 1937

 

  1. bovine spongiform encephalopathy

 

  1. natural disasters, such as flooding

 

  1. viral hemorrhagic fevers

 

  1. zoonotic

 

  1. first recognized in the Democratic Republic of Congo

 

  1. laboratory workers in Europe acquired it from research monkeys

 

  1. caused by a variant of the coronavirus

 

  1. multidrug-resistant bacterium

 

  1. bird flu

 

Lesson 7-11: Biological Threat Agents

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Plague is transmitted to humans by flea bites.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Bubonic plague is characterized by swollen lymph glands, usually in the groin.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, is also called rabbit fever.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Francisella tularensis is very difficult to grow in culture.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The neurotoxins produced by the gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium, Clostridium botulinum, are not very potent.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following Class A agents have been recognized by the CDC as potential biological weapons?
a. Yersinia pestis c. variola virus
b. Francisella tularensis d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true of potential bioterrorism agents EXCEPT:
a. easily disseminated
b. not usually fatal
c. ease of person-to-person transmission
d. might disrupt society

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of anthrax?
a. It only causes inhalation or pulmonary disease.
b. Its spores are easily destroyed in the environment.
c. It could have been one of the plagues described in the book Exodus.
d. It is a relatively new disease.
e. It only exists in research, government, and military laboratories.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are functions of the Department of Homeland Security EXCEPT:
a. planning for natural disasters
b. establishing the LRN
c. working to eliminate potential terror threats
d. planning for human-made disasters

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Terrorism threats could come in the form of:
a. chemical agents c. biological agents
b. radioactive agents d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Acts of terrorism involving threats to agricultural products such as food, animals, and crops are known as ____________________.

 

ANS:  agroterrorism

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Botulinum toxin is produced by the microorganism ____________________.

 

ANS:

Clostridium botulinum

  1. botulinum

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The infectious form of a virus is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  virion

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The disease caused by Bacillus anthracis is ____________________.

 

ANS:  anthrax

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Variola virus causes the disease ____________________.

 

ANS:  smallpox

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Botulinum toxin is a(n) ____________________ toxin.

 

ANS:

neuro

nerve

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The U.S. governmental agency charged with planning for natural and human-made disasters as well as preventing potential terror threats is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

Department of Homeland Security

Homeland Security

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. In 1972, ____________________ was considered eradicated and routine vaccinations were discontinued.

 

ANS:  smallpox

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The three forms of the plague are pneumonic, septicemic, and ____________________.

 

ANS:  bubonic

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The most potent neurotoxins known are the neurotoxins produced by  ____________________.

 

ANS:

Clostridium botulinum

  1. botulinum

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. Class A agents e. variola virus
b. Yersinia pestis f. botulinum toxin
c. anthrax g. VHF
d. agroterrorism h. tularemia

 

 

  1. affects animals, food, and crops

 

  1. CDC’s high-priority list

 

  1. disease caused by a spore-forming bacterium

 

  1. smallpox

 

  1. plague

 

  1. rabbit fever

 

  1. neurotoxic

 

  1. Ebola and Marburg

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. reemergence of cholera in 2010 and 2011

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  L                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  K                    PTS:   1

 

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