Biology Science For Life With Physiology 4th Edition by Belk – Test Bank

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Biology Science For Life With Physiology 4th Edition by Belk – Test Bank

 

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk)

Chapter 6   Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis

 

1) What term describes a harmless, noncancerous or precancerous tumor?

  1. A) benign
  2. B) carcinogenic
  3. C) malignant
  4. D) metastatic

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.1

Skill:  Factual

 

2) Which term describes a cancerous tumor?

  1. A) benign
  2. B) carcinogenic
  3. C) malignant
  4. D) oncogenic

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.1

Skill:  Factual

 

3) What is the name of the process by which cancer cells break off of tumors and spread to other parts of the body?

  1. A) angiogenesis
  2. B) carcinogenesis
  3. C) metastasis
  4. D) mutagenesis

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.1

Skill:  Factual

 

4) ________ is the cause of about one-third of all cancer deaths.

  1. A) Smoking tobacco
  2. B) Exposure to viruses
  3. C) Exposure to ultraviolet light
  4. D) Exposure to high-energy radiation

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.1

Skill:  Factual

 

5) The process by which cells of a malignant tumor can break away and start new cancers at distant locations is called ________.

Answer:  metastasis

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.1

Skill:  Factual

 

6) Cancer cells within which of the following biopsy samples would be the best indicator that the cancer has metastasized and is circulating through the bloodstream?

  1. A) liver
  2. B) lymph node
  3. C) pancreas
  4. D) ovary

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Topic:  6.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

7) Which of the following is not a known carcinogen?

  1. A) certain viruses
  2. B) ultraviolet light
  3. C) cigarette smoke
  4. D) pet dander

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.1

Skill:  Factual

 

8) Free radicals remove ________ from other molecules.

  1. A) protons
  2. B) neutrons
  3. C) electrons
  4. D) photons

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.1

Skill:  Factual

9) Which of the following can neutralize dangerous free radicals within the body?

  1. A) nucleotides from DNA
  2. B) antioxidants from dietary fruits and vegetables
  3. C) carbohydrates from dietary rice and pasta
  4. D) hormones from the ovaries and testes

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.1

Skill:  Factual

 

 

10) Which of the following is a risk factor for colon cancer?

  1. A) advanced age
  2. B) high-fiber diet
  3. C) asbestos inhalation
  4. D) male gender

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.1

Skill:  Factual

 

11) What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome called?

  1. A) alleles
  2. B) centromeres
  3. C) homologous chromosomes
  4. D) sister chromatids

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Factual

 

12) Consider a strand of DNA with the sequence GAATTCGGCA. What is the sequence of the complementary strand?

  1. A) ACGGCTTAAG
  2. B) AGGCCTAATG
  3. C) CTTAAGCCGT
  4. D) GAATTCGGCA

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Applied

13) What is the name for the region toward the middle of a replicated chromosome where sister chromatids are connected?

  1. A) centriole
  2. B) centromere
  3. C) karyotype
  4. D) chromatid

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

14) Which of the following is a feature of DNA?

  1. A) Adenine (A) forms a base pair with cytosine (C).
  2. B) The backbone of each strand is composed of alternating sugar and phosphate groups.
  3. C) Complementary strands are held together by ionic bonds.
  4. D) DNA remains condensed in a short linear form both before and after cell division.

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Factual

 

15) In a certain species of animal, 33% of the bases in its DNA are A. What percent of the bases are C?

  1. A) 8.5%
  2. B) 17%
  3. C) 33%
  4. D) 34%

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Applied

 

16) The two halves of a duplicated chromosome are called ________ (two words).

Answer:  sister chromatids

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Factual

 

17) ________ (two words) is the enzyme that assists in DNA synthesis.

Answer:  DNA polymerase

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Factual

18) In a bacterial species, 20% of the bases in its DNA are C. What percent of the bases are G?

  1. A) 80%
  2. B) 40%
  3. C) 20%
  4. D) 10%

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Applied

 

 

19) The term “semiconservative replication” refers to the fact that

  1. A) DNA is created from only four of nine available nucleotides.
  2. B) the DNA molecule includes a parental strand and newly created DNA strand.
  3. C) DNA is not just one strand but two complementary strands.
  4. D) the mode of DNA replication is only tentatively described.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

20) Nucleotides in opposing strands of DNA that bind to each other are called

  1. A) semiconservative.
  2. B) complementary.
  3. C) conjoined.
  4. D) sister chromatids.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Factual

 

21) The scientists that first described the structure of DNA were

  1. A) Frankford and Joules.
  2. B) Culbertson and Gallo.
  3. C) Watson and Crick.
  4. D) Cook and Wiley.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Factual

22) Bacteria are single cells that replicate themselves by binary fission, resulting in genetically identical daughter cells. These cells undergo

  1. A) sexual reproduction.
  2. B) asexual reproduction.
  3. C) fertilization.
  4. D) condensation.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

23) If a double-stranded DNA molecule is like a twisted rope ladder with handrails and steps, what would the steps in the ladder represent?

  1. A) phosphate groups
  2. B) sugar (deoxyribose) molecules
  3. C) nitrogenous bases
  4. D) DNA polymerase

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Conceptual

24) DNA polymerase moves along the length of the unwound helix, starting at the end of one strand and finishing at the end of the other strand. As shown in this figure, what is the result of this phenomenon?

  1. A) One resulting double strand of DNA is composed of new DNA, and one is composed of parental DNA.
  2. B) Free nucleotides are added to one strand of parental DNA but not to the other.
  3. C) The DNA polymerase moves toward the unwound helix on one strand of DNA and away from it on the other strand.
  4. D) DNA polymerase is destroyed as it binds nucleotides to form each daughter strand.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.2

Skill:  Conceptual

25) Which type of cell division produces daughter cells that are identical to the original cell?

  1. A) meiosis in animals
  2. B) meiosis in plants
  3. C) mitosis in animals
  4. D) meiosis in bacteria

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

 

26) Which of the following is a phase that occurs during mitosis?

  1. A) first gap phase
  2. B) metaphase
  3. C) second gap phase
  4. D) S phase

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

 

27) Which of the following is the correct order of events in the cell cycle?

  1. A) G1, G2, S, mitosis, cytokinesis
  2. B) G1, S, G2, mitosis, cytokinesis
  3. C) S, G1, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis
  4. D) S, G1, G2, mitosis, cytokinesis

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

 

28) During which part of mitosis does the nuclear envelope break down?

  1. A) anaphase
  2. B) metaphase
  3. C) prophase
  4. D) telophase

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

29) Which of the following is the correct order of events in mitosis?

  1. A) anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase
  2. B) anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
  3. C) metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase
  4. D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

 

30) Consider a cell that underwent mitosis but not cytokinesis. The result would be

  1. A) a cell with one nucleus containing twice the normal number of chromosomes.
  2. B) a cell with two nuclei.
  3. C) daughter cells with no nucleus.
  4. D) daughter cells with too few chromosomes.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Applied

 

31) A cell plate forms during which process?

  1. A) cytokinesis in an animal cell
  2. B) cytokinesis in a plant cell
  3. C) mitosis in an animal cell
  4. D) mitosis in a plant cell

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

 

32) Which carbohydrate is used to create the cell wall during cytokinesis in plant cells?

  1. A) cellulose
  2. B) sucrose
  3. C) glucose
  4. D) lactose

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

33) During which phase of mitosis are the replicated chromosome aligned in the middle of the cell?

  1. A) prophase
  2. B) anaphase
  3. C) metaphase
  4. D) telophase

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

 

34) During which phase of mitosis does the cytoplasm divide?

  1. A) prophase
  2. B) anaphase
  3. C) metaphase
  4. D) telophase

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

35) During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate to opposite poles of the cell?

  1. A) prophase
  2. B) anaphase
  3. C) metaphase
  4. D) telophase

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

 

36) Most cells spend most of their time in which phase?

  1. A) interphase
  2. B) prophase
  3. C) metaphase
  4. D) anaphase

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

37) Which of the following cells spends the most time in interphase?

  1. A) skin cells on the hands
  2. B) epithelial cells lining the intestine
  3. C) nerve cells in the brain
  4. D) mucous membrane cells in the mouth

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Applied

 

38) Why do chromosomes resemble the letter X when viewed during metaphase?

  1. A) Because they all appear and function as X chromosomes at that stage.
  2. B) Because there are two sister chromatids joined at a point in the middle (the centromere).
  3. C) Because microtubules encircle and attach pairs of chromosomes to each other at the centromere.
  4. D) Because each X-shaped structure is actually four chromosomes joined at the centromere.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

39) Most organelles duplicate during

  1. A) prophase of mitosis.
  2. B) telophase of mitosis.
  3. C) the S phase of interphase.
  4. D) the G1 phase of interphase.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

 

 

40) Use the diagram to complete this sentence. Microtubules connect centrioles to ________ during mitosis.

  1. A) the nuclear envelope
  2. B) uncondensed DNA
  3. C) cytoplasm
  4. D) centromeres

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.3

Skill:  Factual

 

41) During the metaphase checkpoint, the cell checks whether

  1. A) it is large enough to divide.
  2. B) its DNA has been replicated correctly.
  3. C) its chromosomes are properly attached to microtubules.
  4. D) there are sufficient nutrients available.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.4

Skill:  Factual

 

42) What is the difference between oncogenes and proto-oncogenes?

  1. A) Oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under favorable conditions; proto-oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under unfavorable conditions.
  2. B) Oncogenes encode proteins that prevent cell division under unfavorable conditions; proto-oncogenes encode proteins that allow cell division under unfavorable conditions.
  3. C) Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under favorable conditions; oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under unfavorable conditions.
  4. D) Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that prevent cell division under unfavorable conditions; oncogenes encode proteins that allow cell division under unfavorable conditions.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.4

Skill:  Factual

 

43) A gene that encodes a protein necessary for a cell to stop at checkpoints is an example of a(n)

  1. A) angiogenesis inhibitor.
  2. B) growth factor.
  3. C) oncogene.
  4. D) tumor-suppressor gene.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.4

Skill:  Conceptual

 

44) What is the process by which a tumor attracts and redirects blood vessels to keep it supplied with O2 and nutrients?

  1. A) angiogenesis
  2. B) carcinogenesis
  3. C) contact inhibition
  4. D) tumor suppression

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.4

Skill:  Factual

45) Which of the following is a common feature of cancer cells?

  1. A) anchorage dependence
  2. B) contact inhibition
  3. C) metastasis
  4. D) controlled division

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.4

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

46) The multiple-hit model of cancer means that

  1. A) most cancer-causing mutations are passed on to future generations.
  2. B) most cancers occur in many different tissues simultaneously.
  3. C) multiple mutations are required to cause most forms of cancer.
  4. D) a person gets cancer only if both of his or her parents had cancer.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.4

Skill:  Factual

 

47) ________ are places in the cell cycle where proteins survey the cell to make sure that conditions for a favorable cell division have been met.

Answer:  Checkpoints

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.4

Skill:  Factual

 

48) Which of the following is a protein that acts as a tumor suppressor by fixing damaged DNA in cancerous cells?

  1. A) HER2
  2. B) Trisomy X
  3. C) BRCA2
  4. D) CA125

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.4

Skill:  Factual

49) Mutations of the gene that encodes p53 result in

  1. A) damaged DNA proceeding through mitosis.
  2. B) damaged DNA being repaired.
  3. C) cells containing damaged DNA to “commit suicide.”
  4. D) a receptor protein with a different shape than usual.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.4

Skill:  Factual

 

50) The surgical removal of cells, tissue, or fluid that will be analyzed to determine whether they are cancerous is called a ________.

Answer:  biopsy

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.5

Skill:  Factual

 

 

51) The most common type of cancer that people in the United States die from is

  1. A) lung cancer.
  2. B) breast cancer.
  3. C) skin cancer.
  4. D) prostate cancer.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.5

Skill:  Factual

 

52) Most forms of chemotherapy target which feature of cancer cells?

  1. A) anchorage independence
  2. B) cell division
  3. C) invasiveness of surrounding tissues
  4. D) metastasis

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.5

Skill:  Factual

53) Radiation therapy works primarily by

  1. A) causing problems with microtubule formation, preventing chromosomes from aligning properly during mitosis.
  2. B) causing tumor cells to stick together, making them easier to remove.
  3. C) damaging DNA in cells so that cells can no longer grow and divide.
  4. D) making cancer cells divide so fast that they may develop extra mutations and die.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.5

Skill:  Factual

 

54) A scientist who observes cancer cells under a microscope would likely see

  1. A) orderly rows of cells.
  2. B) cells that are much smaller than normal cells.
  3. C) large growths containing fluid.
  4. D) disorganized cells.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.5

Skill:  Conceptual

 

55) A ________ is a surgical instrument used to perform biopsies.

Answer:  laparoscope

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.5

Skill:  Factual

 

 

56) Elevated CA125 in a patient’s blood may indicate ovarian cancer. However, routine screening of CA125 levels is not practical due to which of the following reasons?

  1. A) CA125 levels vary among individuals.
  2. B) CA 125 levels cannot be detected during certain portions of the menstrual cycle.
  3. C) Only ovaries secrete CA125.
  4. D) CA125 levels are elevated only at the beginning of cancer development and then cease abruptly.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.5

Skill:  Factual

57) The members of a pair of nonsex chromosomes are called

  1. A) alleles.
  2. B) diploids.
  3. C) gametes.
  4. D) homologous chromosomes.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

 

58) Different versions of the same gene are called

  1. A) alleles.
  2. B) diploids.
  3. C) homologous chromosomes.
  4. D) sister chromatids.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

 

59) Normal sperm or egg cells in a human

  1. A) are produced by mitosis.
  2. B) have one copy of each chromosome.
  3. C) have two copies of each chromosome.
  4. D) are genetically identical to every other sperm or egg cell made by that person.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

 

 

60) Tetraploid organisms have four copies of each chromosome instead of the two copies that humans have. How many copies of each chromosome end up in a gamete produced by a tetraploid organism?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Applied

61) A normal human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a(n)

  1. A) egg cell.
  2. B) somatic cell of a female.
  3. C) somatic cell of a male.
  4. D) sperm cell.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Applied

 

62) A normal human cell containing 44 autosomes and two X chromosomes is a(n)

  1. A) egg cell.
  2. B) somatic cell of a female.
  3. C) somatic cell of a male.
  4. D) sperm cell.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Applied

 

63) Homologous chromosomes separate during

  1. A) meiosis I.
  2. B) meiosis II.
  3. C) mitosis.
  4. D) cytokinesis.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

 

64) Sister chromatids separate during

  1. A) meiosis I and meiosis II.
  2. B) meiosis I and mitosis.
  3. C) mitosis and cytokinesis.
  4. D) meiosis II and mitosis.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

65) Crossing over occurs during

  1. A) anaphase I of meiosis I.
  2. B) anaphase II of meiosis II.
  3. C) prophase I of meiosis I.
  4. D) prophase II of meiosis II.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

 

66) Genes that are located on the same chromosome are called

  1. A) alleles.
  2. B) diploid genes.
  3. C) homologous genes.
  4. D) linked genes.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

 

67) How does crossing over increase genetic diversity?

  1. A) Crossing over increases the number of distinct combinations of genes that may be present in a gamete.
  2. B) Crossing over allows specific genes to travel together on one chromosome.
  3. C) Crossing over increases the incidence of mutations in genes.
  4. D) Crossing over prevents the inheritance of harmful mutations.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

 

68) ________ are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example) used for sexual reproduction.

Answer:  Gametes

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

69) Which of these conditions is caused by nondisjunction of autosomal chromosomes?

  1. A) XO — Turner syndrome
  2. B) Trisomy 21 — Down syndrome
  3. C) XXY — Kleinfelter syndrome
  4. D) Trisomy X — Meta female

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

 

 

70) Mutations are only passed from parent to child if the mutation occurs in the gonads that will be used to produce

  1. A) a gamete.
  2. B) an autosomal cell.
  3. C) a diploid cell.
  4. D) telomerase.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  6.6

Skill:  Factual

 

 

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk)

Chapter 7   Are You Only as Smart as Your Genes? Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics

 

1) Alternate forms of a gene are called

  1. A) alleles.
  2. B) chromosomes.
  3. C) gametes.
  4. D) homologues.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

2) A typical gene contains the instructions for making a

  1. A) chromosome.
  2. B) lipid.
  3. C) polysaccharide.
  4. D) protein.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

3) What causes the differences between two human cell types (for example, a skin cell and a brain cell)?

  1. A) Different cell types begin with the same genes but eliminate certain genes as they develop.
  2. B) Different cell types contain different genes.
  3. C) Different cell types contain different proteins that give each cell a different function.
  4. D) Different cell types contain the same genes but use different combinations of them.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

4) Half of the gametes produced by an organism with the genotype Aa will receive the A allele, while half will receive the a allele. This is a demonstration of

  1. A) independent assortment.
  2. B) mutation.
  3. C) random fertilization.
  4. D) segregation.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Applied

 

5) Assuming that the genes are on separate chromosomes, an organism with the genotype AaBb will make gametes in the following proportions: 1/4 AB, 1/4 Ab, 1/4 aB, and 1/4 ab. This is an example of

  1. A) independent assortment.
  2. B) mutation.
  3. C) random fertilization.
  4. D) segregation.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Applied

 

6) Which of these produces genetic diversity in a population?

  1. A) independent assortment
  2. B) random fertilization
  3. C) segregation
  4. D) mutation

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

7) The members of a pair of chromosomes (for example, the two copies of chromosome 1) are called

  1. A) alleles.
  2. B) gametes.
  3. C) homologous chromosomes.
  4. D) sister chromatids.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

8) Which of the following is a true statement about chromosomes?

  1. A) Only eukaryotic cells contain chromosomes.
  2. B) Chromosomes are made of carbohydrates.
  3. C) Genes are found on chromosomes.
  4. D) The most complex organisms have the largest number of chromosomes.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Conceptual

9) Which of the following is true about genes that are located on different chromosomes?

  1. A) These genes are inherited independently of each other.
  2. B) Only the dominant alleles of these genes tend to be inherited together.
  3. C) These genes are always inherited together.
  4. D) These genes are more likely to undergo mutation.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

10) A mistake made during copying of genetic information is called a

  1. A) genotype.
  2. B) mutation.
  3. C) variance.
  4. D) zygote.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

11) Gametes fuse together during

  1. A) embryonic development.
  2. B) fertilization.
  3. C) meiosis.
  4. D) mitosis.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

12) Monozygotic (identical) twins are the result of

  1. A) one sperm fertilizing two different eggs.
  2. B) one egg being fertilized by two different sperm.
  3. C) one embryo splitting to become two embryos.
  4. D) two different sperm fertilizing two different eggs.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

13) Segregation of alleles occurs when

  1. A) homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis.
  2. B) homologous chromosomes separate during mitosis.
  3. C) sister chromatids separate during meiosis.
  4. D) sister chromatids separate during mitosis.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

14) Specialized cells used for sexual reproduction (for example, sperm cells) are called ________.

Answer:  gametes

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

 

15) Segments of DNA that generally code for proteins are called ________.

Answer:  genes

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

16) Prokaryotes, like bacteria, contain a single ________ that is circular.

Answer:  chromosome

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

17) The growth and reproduction of an individual is called its

  1. A) life cycle.
  2. B) genotype.
  3. C) phenotype.
  4. D) normal distribution.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

18) Which if the following is the correct sequence of how an animal is “built”?

  1. A) fertilization → meiosis → zygote → embryo
  2. B) meiosis → fertilization → zygote → embryo
  3. C) fertilization → zygote → meiosis → embryo
  4. D) meiosis → fertilization → embryo → zygote

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

19) Which of the following is a true statement about chromosome number?

  1. A) Among all known living creatures, humans have the most chromosomes.
  2. B) Animals have more chromosomes than plants.
  3. C) Eukaryotes have more chromosomes than prokaryotes.
  4. D) All organisms have pairs of chromosomes.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

20) If the DNA contained in the chromosomes of an organism is similar to an instruction manual, then what are the genes “instructing” the cell to do?

  1. A) grow in size until a certain point is reached, then reproduce itself
  2. B) convert carbohydrates into enzymes
  3. C) change shape and structure to meet the demands of the local environment
  4. D) synthesize specific proteins from amino acids

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

21) Which of the following would be expected in normal eye cells but not in normal heart cells?

  1. A) the protein rhodopsin
  2. B) light-detecting mitochondria
  3. C) DNA that codes for the conversion of mitochondria into rhodopsin
  4. D) genes for the production of rhodopsin

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Applied

22) DNA is often likened to an instruction manual. According to this analogy, the typographical errors that would inevitably result when the DNA “manual” is transcribed would be similar to

  1. A) dominant alleles.
  2. B) recessive alleles.
  3. C) mutations.
  4. D) homologous chromosomes.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

23) Homologous chromosomes

  1. A) almost always contain identical alleles.
  2. B) generally contain the same genes.
  3. C) are inherited together because they don’t separate during meiosis.
  4. D) are fewer in body cells than in gametes.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

 

24) Combined, your parents could have produced as many as ________ different types of children, genetically speaking.

  1. A) 46
  2. B) 285
  3. C) 8 million
  4. D) 64 trillion

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

 

25) Fraternal twins are also referred to as

  1. A) dizygotic.
  2. B) identical.
  3. C) monozygotic.
  4. D) heterozygous.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.1

Skill:  Factual

26) Gregor Mendel’s genetic research

  1. A) was not appreciated by the scientific community until after he died.
  2. B) focused on pea plants because they have fewer than four different heritable traits.
  3. C) produced results that can be used to predict heritability in plants but not animals.
  4. D) included detailed studies on the phenomena of codominance and incomplete dominance.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

 

27) A typical recessive allele codes for a

  1. A) lethal protein.
  2. B) nonfunctional protein.
  3. C) functional protein.
  4. D) mutant protein.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

28) In humans, heterozygotes are referred to as ________, particularly when the recessive allele is associated with a genetic disease.

  1. A) vectors
  2. B) dizygotic
  3. C) carriers
  4. D) qualitative

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

 

29) If you’re interested in studying one gene within a human, and each gene has two alleles, then the Punnett square that you would use to predict the inheritance of the alleles would contain how many total boxes?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 16

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Applied

30) CFTR/CFTR-ΔF508 refers to the

  1. A) dominant allele that causes cystic fibrosis.
  2. B) recessive allele that causes cystic fibrosis.
  3. C) homozygous genotype of a cystic fibrosis victim.
  4. D) heterozygous genotype of a carrier of cystic fibrosis.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

 

31) How many different types of offspring (genotypes) are possible as a result of this cross, according to the Punnett square?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

 

32) A heterozygous organism

  1. A) always shows a recessive trait.
  2. B) can’t produce gametes.
  3. C) has two identical alleles of a gene.
  4. D) has two different alleles of a gene.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

33) Which of the following situations most likely describes a recessive genetic disorder?

  1. A) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a completely nonfunctional protein.
  2. B) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein that has both the normal function and a new, harmful function.
  3. C) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein that has a new, harmful function.
  4. D) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein with the normal function but twice the normal activity.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Applied

 

 

34) A dominant genetic disorder occurs when

  1. A) only one allele of the gene is the mutant allele.
  2. B) both alleles of the gene are the mutant allele.
  3. C) neither allele of the gene is the mutant allele.
  4. D) either one or both alleles of the gene are mutant.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

35) In a certain plant species, thick-shelled seeds are caused by the dominant allele T, while thin-shelled seeds are caused by the recessive allele t. Consider an individual plant that has thin-shelled seeds. What is the genotype of this individual?

  1. A) TT
  2. B) tt
  3. C) Tt
  4. D) tt or Tt

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

36) A mutation in a gene

  1. A) might have no effect on the protein encoded by the gene.
  2. B) must result in the creation of a nonfunctional protein.
  3. C) cannot result in a protein with a new function.
  4. D) invariably results in a change in the phenotype of an organism.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

37) Because of the law of independent assortment,

  1. A) an individual will get most of their alleles from one parent.
  2. B) monozygotic twins will have about 50% of their alleles in common.
  3. C) two typical siblings will have about 50% of their alleles in common.
  4. D) dizygotic twins will have 100% of their alleles in common.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

38) If a certain recessive allele can cause a change in cellular proteins that ultimately leads to circulatory problems and premature death, then

  1. A) any homozygous individual will always have an advantage over any heterozygous individual.
  2. B) any heterozygous individual will always have an advantage over any homozygous individual.
  3. C) any homozygous individual will always have a disadvantage compared to any heterozygous individual.
  4. D) any heterozygous individual will have an advantage over any homozygous recessive individual.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

39) Cystic fibrosis is caused by the allele f, which is completely recessive to the normal dominant allele F. Consider a couple with the genotype Ff. What is the chance that their first child will develop cystic fibrosis?

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) 25%
  3. C) 50%
  4. D) 75%

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Applied

40) Cystic fibrosis is caused by the allele f, which is completely recessive to the normal dominant allele F. Consider a couple with the genotype Ff. What is the chance that their second child will develop cystic fibrosis?

  1. A) 25%
  2. B) 50%
  3. C) 75%
  4. D) 100%
  5. E) It depends on which alleles were inherited by their first child.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Applied

 

41) Huntington’s disease is caused by the allele H, which is completely dominant to the normal recessive allele h. Consider a couple where the man has the genotype Hh, and the woman has the genotype hh. What is the chance that their first child will develop Huntington’s disease?

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) 25%
  3. C) 50%
  4. D) 75%

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Applied

 

 

42) In humans, straight thumbs are caused by the dominant allele T, while individuals who are tt have thumbs that curve backward (“hitchhiker’s thumb”). Consider a family in which the father has straight thumbs, and both the mother and their only child have curved thumbs. What is the chance that their next child will have curved thumbs?

  1. A) 25%
  2. B) 50%
  3. C) 75%
  4. D) 100%

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Applied

43) In pea plants, the allele for purple flowers (P) is dominant to the allele for white flowers (p). In a cross between a purple-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant, all 73 of the offspring plants had purple flowers. Which of the following most likely describes the cross above?

  1. A) pp x pp
  2. B) Pp x Pp
  3. C) PP x PP
  4. D) PP x pp

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Applied

 

44) An individual who is a carrier for a recessive genetic disorder but does not have symptoms of the disorder is

  1. A) heterozygous.
  2. B) homozygous for the recessive allele.
  3. C) homozygous for the dominant allele.
  4. D) either homozygous for the recessive allele or heterozygous.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

 

45) How many different kinds of gametes can be made by an individual with the genotype AaBb?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 16

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Applied

 

 

46) Which of the following is a cross between parents who each have two different alleles for each of two different genes?

  1. A) AAbb x aaBB
  2. B) aabb x AABB
  3. C) AaBb x AaBb
  4. D) AaBB x AABb

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Conceptual

47) A ________ cross is a genetic cross involving two traits.

Answer:  dihybrid

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

 

48) The ________ of an organism is the genetic makeup of that organism.

Answer:  genotype

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

 

49) The ________ of an organism refers to its physical traits.

Answer:  phenotype

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

 

50) An individual who has two copies of the same allele is ________ for that allele.

Answer:  homozygous

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.2

Skill:  Factual

 

51) Which of the following is an example of a qualitative trait in humans?

  1. A) height
  2. B) skin color
  3. C) Huntington’s disease
  4. D) intelligence

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

52) Which of the following is an example of a quantitative trait in humans?

  1. A) cheek dimples
  2. B) number of toes
  3. C) musical ability
  4. D) cystic fibrosis

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Conceptual

53) Typical quantitative traits

  1. A) are easy to follow using Punnett squares.
  2. B) are not affected by the environment.
  3. C) are usually influenced by only one gene.
  4. D) show continuous variation.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Factual

 

54) What is the term used to describe a trait that is controlled by many genes?

  1. A) dihybrid
  2. B) dominant
  3. C) heritable
  4. D) polygenic

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Factual

 

55) A trait that shows continuous variation is typically influenced by

  1. A) genes only.
  2. B) environmental factors only.
  3. C) both genes and environmental factors.
  4. D) neither genes nor environmental factors.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Factual

 

56) Which of these describes influence on a trait that is due to genes and not environment?

  1. A) Hair dye turns Angela’s brown hair to red.
  2. B) Sandy’s hair becomes blonder when she spends time out in the sun.
  3. C) Jen has brown hair, just like her mother and father.
  4. D) Identical twins Kiera and Tanya have different colored hair.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Factual

57) A scientist studying the heritability of IQ would expect to find the highest correlation between the IQ scores of

  1. A) two unrelated children.
  2. B) a child and his mother.
  3. C) monozygotic twins.
  4. D) dizygotic twins.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

58) The IQ test developed by Alfred Binet was designed to

  1. A) measure intelligence based on the most accepted theory of the time.
  2. B) compare the intelligence of different cultural subpopulations in the general population.
  3. C) determine the relative effects of genes and environment on intelligence.
  4. D) identify school children in need of remedial help.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Factual

 

59) Consider a trait that shows continuous variation. If the variance is low, then

  1. A) the majority of individuals will be far above the mean.
  2. B) the majority of individuals will be very close to the mean.
  3. C) the majority of individuals will be far below the mean.
  4. D) relatively few individuals will be very close to the mean.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Factual

 

60) A ________ trait has an “off-or-on” character, where individuals have either one phenotype or another (for example, purple vs. white flowers).

Answer:  qualitative

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Factual

 

61) A ________ trait shows continuous variation, where there is a large range of phenotypes in a population (for example, height or skin color).

Answer:  quantitative

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Factual

62) The estimated influence of genes (as opposed to environment) on a trait is called ________.

Answer:  heritability

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Factual

 

63) The large variation in shoe size among humans is due to a trait that is

  1. A) dizygotic.
  2. B) qualitative.
  3. C) quantitative.
  4. D) polygenic.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

64) The difference between the lowest and highest values on the x-axis of a normal distribution curve represents the ________ for the population that is being studied.

  1. A) bell-shaped curve
  2. B) mean value
  3. C) variance
  4. D) frequency distribution

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

65) According to this graph, what can be concluded about immunity in these birds?

  1. A) The heritability value is approximately 0.50.
  2. B) Genes explain all the variation in immunity among birds in this population.
  3. C) Environment still plays a role in these birds’ immunity, even though heritability is high.
  4. D) The heritability of immunity follows a bell-shaped curve, indicating a normal distribution.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Applied

 

 

66) The highest point on a bell-shaped curve represents the

  1. A) maximum amount of variation in a trait.
  2. B) heritability value of a trait.
  3. C) number of people in the population who are heterozygous.
  4. D) mean of the population.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Factual

 

67) If the estimated heritability of a trait is approximately 0.50, then

  1. A) the environment must have little to no influence over the expression of the trait.
  2. B) genes exclusively control the expression of the trait in at least 50% of the population.
  3. C) at least 50% of the variation in the trait in the population is due to genetic differences.
  4. D) the environment completely controls the variation in the trait in the population.

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Conceptual

68) Which of the following pairs of people would provide the most useful information to geneticists, regarding the heritability of a certain trait?

  1. A) non-twin siblings separated into different households soon after birth
  2. B) monozygotic twins separated into different households soon after birth
  3. C) non-twin siblings raised in the same household since birth
  4. D) monozygotic twins raised in the same household since birth

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.3

Skill:  Applied

 

69) According to one study, the heritability of IQ score in humans has a value of 0.52. What does this tell us about the role of “nature” vs. “nurture” in determining intelligence in humans?

  1. A) Intelligence is a qualitative trait, affected by both genetics and the environment, and it can’t be predicted by heritability scores.
  2. B) Children of highly intelligent parents will likely be very intelligent, regardless of the environment in which they’re raised.
  3. C) There is an approximately equal chance that children of intelligent parents will be as intelligent as their parents, depending on the environment in which they’re raised.
  4. D) High heritability values don’t mean that the intelligence of children can be accurately predicted because the environment plays a strong role.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  7.4

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

70) Which of the following was a conclusion based on experiments with “maze-bright” and “maze-dull” rats?

  1. A) An enriched environment increases maze-running ability only in dull rats.
  2. B) A poor environment adversely affects maze-running ability in both bright and dull rats.
  3. C) Maze-running ability is highly heritable and unaffected by environment.
  4. D) Maze-running ability is based entirely on environment and unaffected by genes.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.4

Skill:  Factual

71) What can be concluded about the ability of doctorate-category sperm to help produce children that are smarter than average?

  1. A) Because intelligence has no genetic basis, there’s no real reason to expect children produced by this type of sperm to be smarter than average.
  2. B) Children produced by this type of sperm have an approximately 72% chance of being more intelligent than average.
  3. C) Children produced by this type of sperm will be smarter than average only if the mother has a high IQ.
  4. D) There is currently no way to predict whether children produced by this type of sperm will be smarter than average.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  7.4

Skill:  Conceptual