Brain And Behavior An Introduction to Biological 4th Edition -Test Bank

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Brain And Behavior An Introduction to Biological 4th Edition -Test Bank

Chapter 6

 

Multiple Choice

 

  1. Prader-Willi syndrome involves:
    1. An inability to stop eating (*)
    2. An inability to stop sleeping
    3. The overwhelming desire to yell obscenities
    4. None of the above
  2. Motivation means:
    1. There is a consequence to the behavior
    2. To set in motion (*)
    3. An alive, behaving organism
    4. Increases in behavior rates
  3. The concept of motivation is used to explain:
    1. How we view our own behavior
    2. Behavioral control other than by external stimuli (*)
    3. What processes we use to organize our thoughts and behaviors
    4. The differences between animal and human behavior
  4. An instinct is a(n):
    1. Mechanism for maintaining balance in the body
    2. Incentive to behave in a particular manner
    3. Complex behavior that is automatic and unlearned and occurs in all members of a species (*)
    4. Complex behavior that is learned, or not automatic and occurs in all members of a species
  5. According to your text, one of the reasons that concepts such as motivation are arbitrary is that:
    1. Motivations are different for animals and humans.
    2. Motivations differ across cultures.
    3. Motivations change from day to day.
    4. Motivation sometimes cannot be distinguished from other behaviors, such as emotions. (*)
  6. William McDougall proposed a theory of human motivation that was based on:
    1. Instincts (*)
    2. Drives
    3. Incentives
    4. Arousal
  7. The view of modern psychologists regarding instincts is that:
    1. They do not exist in humans.
    2. Through evolution, instincts either have dropped out or became weakened. (*)
    3. They are a major motivator of human behavior.
    4. None of the above is true.
  8. Drive theory concerns mostly explaining:
    1. Emotions
    2. Cognitive behaviors
    3. The human need to succeed
    4. Physical conditions such as hunger and thirst (*)
  9. Which of the following is most consistent with drive theory?
    1. Once we reach homeostasis, we are happy and content.
    2. We can never reach homeostasis with all drives at any one time.
    3. Humans can be motivated by external stimuli as well as internal.
    4. None of the above is true. (*)
  10. Critics of drive theory state that:
    1. Many behaviors are not related to satisfying needs. (*)
    2. External stimuli do not show an ability to alter behavior.
    3. Only lower animals can be shown to have drives.
    4. All of the above are true.
  11. Some examples of incentives are:
    1. Hunger, thirst, and cold (*)
    2. Money, grades, and approval
    3. Thrills, danger, and challenges
    4. All of the above are incentives.
  12. According to incentive theory, one way to motivate a child to keep a clean room would be:
    1. To withhold dinner until the room is cleaned
    2. For the parent to keep a clean room as an example
    3. To wait until the child felt like cleaning the room
    4. With a weekly allowance for keeping a clean room (*)
  13. Sensation seeking is an essential component of:
    1. Arousal theory (*)
    2. Incentive theory
    3. Homeostatic theory
    4. Set-point theory
  14. In homeostasis, the set point is:
    1. The maximum amount of incentive that could be obtained
    2. The maximum amount of arousal that could be obtained
    3. The maximal level of arousal that can be obtained given the current conditions
    4. A level of equilibrium to which the system strives to return (*)
  15. When the current condition does not equal the set point, then:
    1. Motivation will decrease and the organism will wait until the current situation changes.
    2. Motivation will decrease so the organism is more likely to behave randomly.
    3. The organism will be motivated to behave to return the drive to the set point. (*)
    4. The organism will be in a temporary state of satisfaction until the drive returns to the set point and motivates directed behavior.
  16. Endothermic animals:
    1. Do not have to regulate body temperature
    2. Cannot regulate body temperatures internally
    3. Regulate body temperature through the use of energy reserves (*)
    4. Have a very wide range of acceptable body temperatures
  17. An ectothermic animal, if cold, will not be able to:
    1. Regulate body temperature through the use of energy reserves (*)
    2. Detect the presence of cold in the body
    3. Burrow in the ground to get warmer
    4. Crawl onto a rock to gain solar heat
  18. Which of the following is not a method used to decrease body temperature in hot weather?
    1. Sweating
    2. Decrease metabolism
    3. Dilation of blood vessels
    4. Increase food intake (*)
  19. To maintain body temperature in cold weather an organism may:
    1. Increase metabolism
    2. Constrict blood vessels
    3. Move to a sunny location
    4. All of the above (*)
  20. Warmth-sensitive and cold-sensitive cells that help mammals regulate their body temperature are found in the ___ of the hypothalamus.
    1. preoptic area (*)
    2. area postrema
    3. ventromedial nucleus
    4. nucleus of the solitary tract
  21. Robert could not get used to the changing seasons; he felt hot so he wanted the air conditioning on, then he felt chilled. His sensations of being either too hot or too cold resulted from the actions of his:
    1. Hypothalamus
    2. Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus
    3. Postoptic area of the hypothalamus
    4. Preoptic area of the hypothalamus (*)
  22. Jamie had a stroke, and as a result, she lost her preoptic area of the hypothalamus. What would be the most significant change in her behavior?
    1. She will be unable to tell if she is hungry.
    2. She will not stop eating even when full.
    3. She will not realize that she is getting frostbite after being in the cold too long. (*)
    4. She will be unable to tell if she is thirsty.
  23. We might complain about feeling hot and then drink something cool or loosen our clothing with the desired intent of cooling ourselves but we cannot properly say that these behaviors are:
    1. Premeditated
    2. Conscious
    3. Intentional (*)
    4. Involuntary
  24. We lose water through:
    1. Sweating
    2. Urination
    3. Defecation
    4. All of the above (*)
  25. There are two types of thirst:
    1. One with respect to water levels in the cells and one with respect to water content in the blood (*)
    2. One with respect to water levels in the cells and one with respect to water content in the urine
    3. One with respect to water content in the blood and one with respect to water content in the urine
    4. One with respect to water content in the skin and one with respect to water levels in the cells
  26. Osmotic thirst occurs:
    1. When the fluid content inside cells decreases (*)
    2. When the individual has taken in more food than water
    3. When a salty meal has been ingested
    4. All of the above
  27. Hypovolemic thirst occurs when:
    1. There has been excessive blood loss (*)
    2. A salty meal was just consumed
    3. A large meal was just consumed
    4. All of the above
  28. Corporal Phillips was bleeding heavily from a gunshot in his leg. Phillips was desperate for something to drink because of ___ thirst, due to decreased blood flow signals sent to the ___.
    1. osmotic; nucleus of the solitary tract (NST)
    2. hypervolemic; nucleus of the solitary tract (NST)
    3. hypovolemic; nucleus of the solitary tract (NST) (*)
    4. hypovolemic; subfornical organ
  29. Excessive drinking is most likely to be observed in rats if:
    1. They have not consumed any salt in their diet
    2. They are male
    3. They have been given a high salt diet (*)
    4. It has been several hours since their last meal
  30. Osmotic thirst and hypovolemic thirst:
    1. Are interchangeable names for the same thirst drive
    2. Can vary independently (*)
    3. Always vary together
    4. Are names for the thirst drive in homeothermic and endothermic animals, respectively
  31. Which of the following procedures induces drinking?
    1. Increasing blood volume
    2. Increasing fluid retention in the kidney
    3. Lesioning the organum vasculosum lamina terminalis
    4. Injecting angiotensin into the subfornical organ (*)
  32. Jimmy drinks a bottle of water, and therefore does not feel thirsty anymore. This is because the receptors in his ___ have detected the presence of water and triggered the feeling of satiety for water.
    1. Brain stem
    2. Kidney
    3. Stomach (*)
    4. Subfornical organ
  33. In selecting diets:
    1. Herbivores get all nutrients from a single source, plants.
    2. Carnivores get all nutrients from a single source, meat.
    3. Omnivores get all nutrients from a variety of sources.
    4. All of the above are true. (*)
  34. The “wisdom of the body” in reference to hunger refers to:
    1. How the body regulates the amount of food consumed
    2. The ability to maintain a particular weight under normal conditions
    3. The ability to choose a relatively balanced diet (*)
    4. None of the above
  35. The five primary tastes include:
    1. Sour, salty, sweet, bitter, and metallic
    2. Sour, salty, sweet, bitter, and spicy
    3. Sour, salty, sweet, bitter, and umami (*)
    4. Sour, savory, salty, sweet, and umami
  36. The taste receptor that steers us from eating toxic substances is:
    1. Umami
    2. Bitter (*)
    3. Sour
    4. Salty
  37. When eating a well-balanced dinner, the taste receptor most active is:
    1. Sweet, since many nutritious foods taste somewhat sweet
    2. Salty, because salt is a critical nutrient
    3. Umami, which responds to needed amino acids
    4. All taste receptors will be active (*)
  38. The main benefit of consumption of salty foods is:
    1. They are high in several nutrients
    2. The benefit for neural function (*)
    3. They tend to be associated with protein
    4. They are rarely toxic
  39. You take a sip of milk from the carton and find that it has spoiled. For saving you from drinking the spoiled milk you should thank your:
    1. Sweet taste receptors
    2. Sour taste receptors (*)
    3. Salty taste receptors
    4. Bitter taste receptors
  40. Which of the following taste receptors is least likely to be activated when you eat a pizza with sausage and pineapple?
    1. Umami
    2. Salty
    3. Sour
    4. Bitter (*)
  41. Papillae are:
    1. Bumps on the tongue that contain taste buds (*)
    2. Another name for taste buds
    3. The taste receptor found in the taste buds
    4. A group of taste buds all sensitive to the same taste
  42. If you are suffering from a swollen and painful bump on your tongue, contrary to what you’ve been told you have an infected:
    1. Taste bud
    2. Papillae (*)
    3. Villus
    4. Inguination
  43. If you had the inability to taste your food, which brain area might be having a problem?
    1. Insular area of the frontal lobe (*)
    2. Median preoptic area of the hypothalamus
    3. Organum vasculosum lamina terminalis (OVLT) bordering the third ventricle
    4. Preoptic area of the hypothalamus
  44. The last bite of that large pizza you ate by yourself is not as good as the first bite because of:
    1. Sensory-specific satiety (*)
    2. Learned taste aversion
    3. Learned taste preference
    4. Overload to the taste receptors
  45. Sensory-specific satiety has important survival value because:
    1. It is a mechanism which prevents us from eating too much of a toxic substance
    2. It is a mechanism which produces a wide and more varied diet (*)
    3. Our sensory receptors sometimes need to be “reset”
    4. It is not valuable, it’s actually a hindrance for mammals
  46. In the study reported in your text, when left to choose their own diets, human infants:
    1. Chose a balanced diet over the long run (*)
    2. Favored a few food items
    3. Favored food items of only one primary taste
    4. Favored only sweet foods
  47. When compared to the first bite, the last bit of pizza produces:
    1. Less of a neural response from the nucleus accumbens
    2. More of a neural response from the nucleus accumbens
    3. Less of a neural response from the nucleus recepticus
    4. Less of a neural response from the nucleus of the solitary tract (*)
  48. Learned taste aversion is:
    1. When an organism samples a new food in small amounts to test for safety
    2. When an organism avoids specific tastes that have been associated with illness (*)
    3. When an organism finds the taste of the last bites of a food item less appealing than the first bites
    4. When you eat so much of one specific food item that you “get sick of it”
  49. Six-year-old Dana went to Disney World, ate hot dogs, rode the coaster, and got sick. She now hates hot dogs due to:
    1. Learned taste aversion (*)
    2. The toxic reaction to the hot dogs
    3. Sensory-specific satiety
    4. The inability of the hot dogs to decrease her hunger
  50. Learned taste aversions happen most often between:
    1. 1 and 3 years of age
    2. 3 and 6 years of age
    3. 6 and 12 years of age (*)
    4. 12 and 15 years of age
  51. One proposed adaptive function of learned taste aversion is:
    1. To decrease the amount of fat consumed in the diet
    2. To avoid non-nutritive items (*)
    3. To increase the variety of food items chosen
    4. So organisms are not restricted to a single taste in their diet
  52. Taste preferences in humans are:
    1. Directly associated with all vital nutrients
    2. Related indirectly to all vital nutrients
    3. Directly related to some vital nutrients but indirectly related to others (*)
    4. Not related to any vital nutrients
  53. Nutrient deficiency is likely to produce:
    1. A preference for the taste of a food associated with the deficiency
    2. Learned avoidance of tastes associated with the deficient nutrient (*)
    3. Decreased food sampling
    4. Taste-specific satiety
  54. It has been shown that adult humans:
    1. Make fairly good nutritive choices in the long run
    2. Only make good nutritive choices when not pressed for time
    3. Lack the ability to make good nutritive choices
    4. Make poor nutritive choices when faced with distracting choices such as intense flavors (*)
  55. Evan argued with his parents that he should be allowed to eat whatever he wanted, because of the “wisdom” of his body. His body’s “wisdom” evolved when:
    1. High calorie foods were a much rarer occurrence than today
    2. The enhanced taste and calories of today’s diet were non-existent
    3. The available diet did not include the rich sensory distractions of today’s foods
    4. All of the above (*)
  56. The pattern of eating discrete rather than continuous meals:
    1. Requires a complex system for storing nutrient reserves
    2. Requires a mechanism for allocating reserves during the fasting period
    3. Requires a way to monitor reserves in order to initiate the next meal
    4. All of the above (*)
  57. Which of the following is not true regarding digestion?
    1. Digestion begins in the mouth when the saliva enzymes hydrochloric acid and pepsin begin to break down the food.
    2. The stomach screens for toxins and spoiled food due to the sensitivity of the lining.
    3. If toxins enter the blood, the area postrema may induce vomiting to rid the stomach of the contents.
    4. None of the above is true. (*)
  58. During digestion:
    1. Fats are metabolized into simple sugars
    2. Proteins are converted into amino acids (*)
    3. Carbohydrates are transformed into glycerol
    4. Toxins are neutralized by the liver
  59. In the small intestine:
    1. The minority of digestion occurs
    2. The nutrients are transported to the liver via the hepatic portal vein (*)
    3. Excess water is reabsorbed from digested food
    4. All of the above
  60. The feeding cycle is divided into two phases:
    1. Absorption and excretion
    2. Absorption and metabolism
    3. Absorption and fasting (*)
    4. Metabolism and fasting
  61. Eating is initiated by the:
    1. Paraventricular nucleus (*)
    2. Subfornical nucleus
    3. Liver
    4. Pancreas
  62. During the absorptive phase of digestion:
    1. Insulin is secreted, which enables body cells to absorb glucose and store excess nutrients (*)
    2. Glucagon is secreted, which enables body cells to absorb glucose and store excess nutrients
    3. Insulin is secreted, which enables body cells to release glucose and excess nutrients
    4. Glucagon is secreted, which enables body cells to release glucose and excess nutrients
  63. Storage of glucose and fats is controlled by:
    1. Current glucose levels in the blood
    2. Glycogen
    3. Insulin (*)
    4. Adipose
  64. During the fasting phase of digestion:
    1. The body can only use recently consumed energy sources
    2. The pancreas secretes glucagon (*)
    3. Glucose levels in the blood rise and fall rapidly
    4. There is no fasting phase of digestion
  65. When insulin levels are low:
    1. Glucose is available only to the nervous system (*)
    2. Glucose is available to all cells in the body
    3. Glucagon triggers the storage of fats
    4. The liver converts glucose to glycerol for use in the brain
  66. The two major pathways that information passes from the digestive system to the brain are through the ___ and ___.
    1. medulla, thalamus
    2. hypothalamus, pons
    3. vagus nerve, blood vessels (*)
    4. duodenum, kidneys
  67. Glucoprivic hunger occurs when:
    1. Glucose levels are low (*)
    2. There is a deficit in fatty acids
    3. Amino acid levels are low
    4. None of the above
  68. Lipoprivic hunger occurs when:
    1. Glucose levels are low
    2. There is a deficit in fatty acids (*)
    3. Amino acid levels are low
    4. None of the above
  69. You decide to be good to yourself and eat an entire giant cinnamon roll with lots of icing. Afterwards, your glucoprivic hunger would be ___, and your lipoprivic hunger would be ___.
    1. low; low (*)
    2. low; high
    3. high; low
    4. high; high
  70. In the liver:
    1. Glucose is metabolized
    2. Fatty acid levels are monitored (*)
    3. CCK is released to initiate eating
    4. Blood levels signal the stomach for the feeling of fullness after a large meal
  71. Injecting 2-DG (a non-nutrient resembling glucose) into the hepatic portal vein:
    1. Produces overeating (*)
    2. Produces under-eating
    3. Increases the storage of fat
    4. Increases the utilization of stored fat
  72. The vagus nerve is important to hunger because it is:
    1. Used by the brain to monitor protein levels
    2. Used by the medulla to keep track of nutrient levels in the body (*)
    3. Used by the PVN to monitor fat levels
    4. Not important for hunger, but is important for thirst
  73. While Jack knew he was hungry, his ___ was “deciding” what he was hungry for by monitoring his body’s nutrient condition.
    1. paraventricular nucleus
    2. arcuate nucleus (*)
    3. vagus nucleus
    4. ventral hypothalamus
  74. An overweight person considering gastric-bypass surgery might hope, instead, for a safe mechanism of blocking the effects of ___ that dramatically increases eating while also reducing metabolism.
    1. mercaptoacetate
    2. neuropeptide NST
    3. neuropeptide Y (*)
    4. neuropeptide Z
  75. Linzie was wondering if a gene mutation in the rat that increased neuropeptide Y would produce an animal with a genetic basis for:
    1. Anorexia
    2. Obesity (*)
    3. Diabetes
    4. Poor taste discrimination

 

  1. Based on what you now know, you might speculate that obese individuals who are extremely resistant to losing weight might have an overactive ___ system.
    1. insulin
    2. marcaptan
    3. ghrelin (*)
    4. strychnine
  2. Individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome may have some defect in their ___ system.
    1. vagus nerve
    2. ghrelin (*)
    3. cholecystokinin
    4. none of the above
  3. In animal models of obesity, a mutation in the ___ gene can produce an animal that is very obese and has a yellow coat color; however, a particular ___ by the mother can alter this outcome in any offspring with this mutation.
    1. ghrelin; gestational event
    2. agouti; diet (*)
    3. NPY; diet
    4. agouti; gestational event
  4. What happened to the rat with lesion damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus?
    1. It died of thirst.
    2. It ate uncontrollably and therefore got very obese. (*)
    3. It lost its appetite and therefore got dangerously thin.
    4. It lost the ability to regulate its own internal temperature.
  5. Because increased neuropeptide Y results in weight gain that is disproportionately greater than the increase in food intake:
    1. This suggests that neuropeptide Y also conserves energy (*)
    2. Thirst and hunger must be related
    3. The medulla must monitor fat levels
    4. The liver is not the only mechanism for initiating a meal
  6. When you feel full after a meal, you stop eating because:
    1. Stretch receptors in the stomach send a message to the nucleus of the solitary tract
    2. Nutrients in the stomach and intestines reduce subsequent eating
    3. The stomach and intestines release peptides to inform the brain about consumed nutrients
    4. All of the above (*)
  7. The brain will be informed of the nutrients consumed via:
    1. Specific peptides released for the carbohydrates consumed (*)
    2. The vagus nerve
    3. The bloodstream
    4. All of the above
  8. Cholecystokinin (CCK):
    1. Is a hormone that is released during the fasting stage, which signals it is time to eat
    2. Injected directly into the bloodstream of obese humans decreases meal size (*)
    3. Is produced in the liver during a meal
    4. Is a hormone released in the blood stream when fluid levels are low
  9. Cholecystokinin (CCK) helps give Phil that “full feeling” via its effects, conveyed by the ___ to Phil’s ___ and ultimately to his ___.
    1. liver; duodenum; hypothalamus
    2. vagus nerve; NST; hypothalamus (*)
    3. liver; vagus nerve; hypothalamus
    4. NPY; vagus nerve; area postrema
  10. We are not very likely to see Star Jones (or any other former overweight celebrity) hawking CCK as the newest weight-loss wonder because ___.
    1. it causes immediate overcompensation and weight gain through excessive ghrelin production
    2. animal research indicates the weight loss is accompanied by severe taste aversions
    3. animal research indicates that CCK supplements trigger smaller but more frequent meals (*)
    4. animals given CCK stabilize their weight loss and soon start gaining weight over time
  11. Parabiotic rats:
    1. Are genetically similar
    2. Share a blood supply (*)
    3. Are rats who have a steady diet rich in yogurt and other foods with active cultures
    4. Are rats that are on a high dose of antibiotics
  12. When the ventromedial hypothalamus is lesioned in one parabiotic rat and not the other, the one lesioned will ___ and the one not lesioned will ___.
    1. overeat; overeat
    2. under eat; under eat
    3. overeat; under eat (*)
    4. under eat; overeat
  13. Lesioning the ventromedial hypothalamus produces:
    1. Overeating (*)
    2. Under eating
    3. Overdrinking
    4. Under drinking
  14. Generally, fat levels are proportional to:
    1. Leptin levels (*)
    2. Glycogen levels
    3. Neuropeptide Y levels
    4. Ghrelin levels
  15. Generally, the amount of leptin in the blood is proportional to:
    1. Neuropeptide Y levels
    2. Insulin levels
    3. Fat levels (*)
    4. Glycogen levels
  16. The hormone PYY is released by the ___, which travels in the bloodstream to the ___. The result is decreased caloric intake over the next 12 hours.
    1. stomach; NST
    2. intestines; arcuate nucleus (*)
    3. liver; fourth ventricle
    4. liver; vagus nerve
  17. Which of the following statements regarding neuropeptide Y is false?
    1. It is released by the preoptic area of the hypothalamus. (*)
    2. It stimulates eating.
    3. It is released in response to low glucose.
    4. It may help an animal to conserve energy.
  18. The urge to eat can be a result of either leptin ___ or neuropeptide Y ___.
    1. increasing; increasing
    2. increasing; decreasing
    3. decreasing; increasing (*)
    4. increasing; remains the same
  19. Leptin levels are higher in:
    1. Obese individuals (*)
    2. Non-obese individuals
    3. Diabetic individuals
    4. Non-diabetic individuals
  20. If you are forced to move to Nome, Alaska, you will find yourself colder more often, and therefore need to eat more food to maintain your body temperature. As a result, which of the following will also go up?
    1. Your weight
    2. Your basal metabolism (*)
    3. Your ghrelin levels
    4. Your CCK levels
  21. High levels of leptin and insulin in obese individuals do not inhibit eating because they:
    1. Seem to be less responsive to these than normal-weight people (*)
    2. Have damage to the hypothalamus
    3. Have abnormally low levels of neuropeptide Y
    4. Do inhibit eating, but glucose levels must be much higher
  22. If you were placed into an experimental manipulation whereby your food intake and subsequent weight were changed, what would happen?
    1. If you gained weight, your body would increase its energy expenditure.
    2. If you lost weight, your body would compensate by decreasing energy expenditures.
    3. Your body will attempt to “defend” your original weight.
    4. All of the above are correct. (*)
  23. The health risks due to obesity include:
    1. Heart disease
    2. Stroke
    3. Diabetes
    4. All of the above (*)
  24. Since 1980, the adult obesity rate in the United States___.
    1. has doubled (*)
    2. has increased by tenfold
    3. has tripled
    4. has increased by 25%
  • You might think twice about your next Oreo cookie if you think about the link between a one-point increase in BMI and ___ increased risk of temporal lobe ___.
    1. 13–16%; shrinkage (*)
    2. 40–50%; atrophy
    3. 25–35%; tumors
    4. 5–10%; strokes
  • According to a 2011 survey, the number of obese individuals has ___ since 1980 worldwide.
    1. decreased by half
    2. stayed the same
    3. tripled
    4. doubled(*)
  • According to your text, currently the number of people in the world who are over fed ___ the number of people in the world who are hungry.
    1. is still significantly below
    2. is only slightly below
    3. equals (*)
    4. is significantly above
  • Although obesity is a substantial problem, ___ is also a significant problem.
    1. undernourishment
    2. malnourishment (*)
    3. supranourishment
    4. infranourishment
  • BMI is determined by:
    1. Dividing the squared weight in pounds by height in feet
    2. Multiplying the squared weight by height
    3. Dividing the weight in kilograms by squared height in meters (*)
    4. Multiplying the squared height in meters by squared weight in pounds
  • Which of the following individuals would have an erroneously high BMI value?
    1. A Type-I, or insulin dependent, diabetic
    2. A linebacker for the Chicago Bears (*)
    3. A long-distance marathoner in Boston
    4. Someone suffering from high blood pressure
  • A BMI value over 25 is predictive of ___, while having a BMI over 40 predicts ___.
    1. dying 3 years earlier than if normal weight; dying 6–7 years earlier
    2. dying up to 2 years earlier than if normal weight; dying 8–10 years earlier (*)
    3. dying 1.5 years earlier than if normal weight; dying 3 years earlier
    4. dying 8 years earlier than if normal weight; dying 10 years early
  • In the last 50 years, human life expectancy has approximately doubled, but in the next 50 years ___ resulting from obesity may stop or even reverse this increase.
    1. diabetes
    2. high blood pressure
    3. heart disease from obesity
    4. all of the above (*)
  • The BMI is most similar for:
    1. Identical twins reared together (*)
    2. Identical twins reared apart
    3. Fraternal twins reared together
    4. There is no difference in BMI for any siblings
  • By the year 2000, half of all calorie consumption in the United States was from ___, and another third was ___.
    1. proteins; fats
    2. fats; carbohydrates
    3. carbohydrates; fats (*)
    4. carbohydrates; proteins
  • Obesity in rodents can result from being:
    1. Homozygous for the recessive obesity gene (*)
    2. Homozygous for the diabetes gene
    3. Heterozygous for the diabetes gene
    4. Homozygous for the dominant obesity gene
  • The obesity gene is located on chromosome ___, while the diabetes gene is located on chromosome ___.
    1. 6; 4 (*)
    2. 4; 6
    3. 12; 18
    4. 18; 12
  • Using parabiotic mice to investigate genetic influences on obesity, it was found that:
    1. If db/db mice were paired with normal mice, the normal mice starved.
    2. If db/db mice were paired with ob/ob mice, the ob/ob mice starved.
    3. Paired ob/ob mice with normal mice slowed the weight gain of ob/ob mice.
    4. All of the above are true. (*)
  • The genetic ob/ob mice ___ sensitive to the fat signal and ___ produce that signal.
    1. are, do
    2. are, do not (*)
    3. are not, do
    4. are not, do not
  • The importance of leptin is indicated by the fact that:
    1. Injecting leptin into ob/ob mice reduced their weight. (*)
    2. Injecting leptin into db/db mice increased their weight.
    3. Injecting leptin into ob/ob mice increased their weight.
    4. Injecting leptin into db/db mice decreased their weight.
  • Genetic influences have been shown to be important for:
    1. Meal size but not frequency of meals
    2. Frequency of meals but not meal size
    3. Stomach size and intestinal absorption
    4. Both meal size and frequency of meals (*)
  • Which of the following is NOT correlated with obesity?
    1. schizophrenia (*)
    2. Sleep deprivation
    3. Reduced daily activity
    4. Reduced physical activity
  • One reason that dieting may not work is:
    1. A low BMR (*)
    2. A high BMR
    3. An insensitive BMR
    4. None of the above
  • Individuals can increase their BMR during periods of overeating by:
    1. Increasing amount of walking
    2. Increasing fidgeting
    3. Spontaneous muscle contraction
    4. All of the above (*)
  • Weight gain may:
    1. Reset the BMR to a higher level (*)
    2. Reset the BMR to a lower level
    3. Increase the sensitivity of the stretch receptors in the stomach
    4. None of the above
  • Exercising during dieting increases weight loss because it:
    1. Prevents the BMR from dropping
    2. Increases the BMR (*)
    3. Stimulates leptin release
    4. Shrinks the stomach through involuntary contractions
  • Serotonin in obesity:
    1. Improves mood in carbohydrate cravers (*)
    2. Decreases mood in fat cravers
    3. Increases a person’s appetite for carbohydrates
    4. Increases insulin secretion
  • Serotonin reuptake inhibitors:
    1. Increase carbohydrate intake
    2. Decrease carbohydrate intake
    3. Increase carbohydrate intake only in those who crave carbohydrates
    4. Decrease carbohydrate intake only in those that crave carbohydrates (*)
  • When feeling depressed, eating a quart of “AmeriCone Dream” ice cream might lift your spirits because:
    1. It increases serotonin levels (*)
    2. It decreases serotonin levels
    3. It inhibits neuropeptide Y
    4. None of the above
  • An exciting new treatment for obesity, which increases metabolism, targets fat reduction, and spares lean muscle mass is:
    1. Leptin (*)
    2. Insulin
    3. Parabiotics
    4. Penicillin
  • Leptin therapy for obesity has the attractive feature of not just increasing metabolism and reducing fat but also ___.
    1. reducing diabetes risk
    2. resetting the BMR to an optimal point
    3. sparing lean body mass (*)
    4. having an anti-Alzheimer’s effect
  • Research suggests that leptin’s main role may be to ___.
    1. protect against weight loss during famine (*)
    2. to make weight gain less likely during abundance
    3. reset the BMR
    4. detect changes in nutritional levels in food
  1. Fred, who never was a skinny man, also suffered from cocaine addiction. After deciding to clean up his life, he enrolls in an outpatient clinic, where he is treated with a drug that blocks dopamine release to help him get off of cocaine. What surprising side effect might he also see?
    1. Increase in hunger
    2. Increase in weight
    3. Decrease in weight
    4. Increase in thirst
  2. Jimmy has suffered from compulsive eating for years. What new therapeutic treatment may show promise in breaking him free from his food addiction?
    1. Serotonin agonists
    2. Dopamine antagonists (*)
    3. SSRIs
    4. Glucagon injections
  • The benefits of gastric bypass surgery include:
    1. Maintained weight loss after 10 years (*)
    2. Remission of type 1 diabetes
    3. Increased sleep apnea
    4. All of the above are benefits
  • The difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is:
    1. Anorexia nervosa includes excessive exercising, binge/purge cycles, and caloric restriction while bulimia nervosa is limited to binge/purge cycles.
    2. Anorexia nervosa includes excessive exercising and caloric restriction while bulimia nervosa is limited to binge/purge cycles.
    3. Anorexia nervosa includes excessive caloric restriction while bulimia nervosa is limited to binge/purge cycles. (*)
    4. None of the above
  • The one thing common to both anorexics is a strong feeling of ___, which is indicated by an elevated ___ level.
    1. satiation; serotonin
    2. hunger; ghrelin (*)
    3. satiation; neuropeptide Y
    4. hunger; CCK
  • Terri Schaivo spent the last years of life in a persistent vegetative state after a heart attack deprived her brain of oxygen; she had a heart attack due to a severe ___ deficiency, possibly resulting from bulimia.
    1. caloric (*)
    2. protein
    3. sodium
    4. potassium
  • The social influence on anorexia and bulimia was shown in women of the Fiji islands after their eating patterns dramatically changed when:
    1. American magazines were introduced
    2. American movie actors visited
    3. Satellite TV introduced Western influences (*)
    4. They won the right to vote
  • Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a diagnosis of binge eating disorder?
    1. Being obese (*)
    2. Eating a large amount of food in one sitting
    3. Inability to control what is eaten
    4. Inability to control how much is eaten
  • One drug therapy that has shown some effectiveness with bulimics is:
    1. Antidepressants, which decrease serotonin activity
    2. Antidepressants, which increase serotonin activity (*)
    3. Drugs that increase insulin levels
    4. Drugs that increase fatty acid levels
  • Adaptation to a particular flavor during sensory-specific satiety occurs in the ___ of the medulla.
    1. OVLT
    2. PVN
    3. SFO
    4. NST (*)
  • Which of the following statements regarding taste preferences is true?
    1. Rats are better at “listening to what their body’s need” than humans.
    2. Rats deprived of a vitamin can develop a preference for a food high in that vitamin. (*)
    3. Rats do not seem to notice when their diet is missing critical nutrients.
    4. Rats find the taste of cinnamon aversive.
  • Basal metabolism accounts for energy used for:
    1. Exercise
    2. Digestion
    3. Maintaining body temperature (*)
    4. Physical activity
  • Mavis, who does not exercise, has reduced her calorie intake by 25% and expects to lose a lot of weight. What is likely to happen?
    1. She will lose as much weight as she wants.
    2. She will increase her metabolism.
    3. She will decrease her metabolism. (*)
    4. It is impossible to predict.
  • In some obese people, carbohydrate consumption may:
    1. Elevate mood (*)
    2. Lead to depression
    3. Reduce serotonin levels
    4. Increase norepinephrine levels
  • The difference between bulimics and purging anorexics is that:
    1. Bulimics are usually of normal weight (*)
    2. Purging anorexics purge by using laxatives, whereas bulimics rely on vomiting
    3. Purging anorexics are usually male
    4. Bulimics, but not purging anorexics, tend to be impulsive
  • Prader-Willi syndrome is due to a defective transfer on chromosome ___, which was received from the person’s ___.
    1. 13; father
    2. 15; father (*)
    3. 21; mother
    4. 15; mother
  • Mountain gorillas show a specific “hunger” for decaying wood that has high ___ content.
    1. caloric
    2. sodium (*)
    3. sugar
    4. protein
  • Low levels of glucose or fatty acids are signaled by the vagus nerve from the ___ to the NST in the ___.
    1. liver; pons
    2. duodenum; medulla
    3. liver; medulla (*)
    4. small intestine; hypothalamus
  • Compulsive eating and drug abuse are both associated with ___ in ___ receptors.
    1. excesses; D2
    2. deficits; D2 (*)
    3. excesses; NPY
    4. excesses; agouti gene related protein
  • One uncommon genetic factor in obesity, the ___, increases your risk of obesity by ___ %, and ___ % if you are homozygous for the factor.
    1. ob/ob; 50; 75
    2. db/db; 0; 100
    3. A allele of the FTO gene; 30; 70 (*)
    4. B allele of the AGP gene; 10; 50
  • People who are homozygous for the A allele of the FTO gene are ___ more likely to be obese than individuals without the A allele.
    1. 0%
    2. 15%
    3. 100%
    4. 70% (*)
  • One of the newest proposed pharmaceutical means of addressing obesity has been to administer an appetite-suppressing hormone known as ___, reducing caloric intake by 26%.
    1. FTO
    2. PYY (*)
    3. CCK
    4. Y-sibutramine
  • Anorexics show a detectable decrease in ___ levels but only while they are underweight, which is indicative of poor or reduced nutrition.
    1. serotonin (*)
    2. dopamine
    3. FTO
    4. CCK

 

 

Short Answer

 

  1. What does the author mean by “motivation is a concept we have invented and imposed on behavior”?
  2. Give an example of why each of the following theories of motivation was viewed as inadequate: instinct theory, drive theory, incentive theory, and arousal theory.
  3. Describe the different types of thirst and their basic biological mechanisms.
  4. In what ways are hunger, thirst, and temperature regulation the same? In what ways are they different?
  5. Discuss how blood sugar levels affect eating in individuals with and without diabetes.
  6. Describe the two phases of the feeding cycle.
  7. List three aspects of energy conservation that may occur during extreme food deprivation and why they are important to survival.
  8. Discuss cues that are important for beginning and ending a meal.
  9. How does taste relate to the nutritional content (or safety) of food?
  10. Why is obesity bad from a medical standpoint? What are some hormones that may cause obesity, and how we can overcome these hormonal imbalances?
  11. Contrast anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder with respect to the symptoms, causes, and treatment options. What are the relative contributions of genetics and environment to these conditions?
  12. Discuss how 2-DG infusions or lesioning of specific areas have been important in better understanding hunger.
  13. What different mechanisms control the termination of a meal in the short term? What different mechanisms control termination of a meal in the long term?
  14. Explain how evolutionary adaptation to feeding conditions may have an impact on current obesity.

 

 

True/False

 

  1. Most psychologists believe that there is one general motivation center in the brain. (F)
  2. The difference between drives and instincts is that humans have drives while lower animals have only instincts. (F)
  3. According to Hull’s drive theory, the body maintains a condition of homeostasis, or balance. (T)
  4. Current thinking regarding motivation emphasizes that drives are states of the brain rather than conditions of the tissues. (T)
  5. You can live longer without water than without food. (F)
  6. When the organum vasculosum lamina terminalis (OVLT) is lesioned, an individual drinks excessively. (F)
  7. Although the set point for hunger varies somewhat from day to day, in general it is constant across the life span. (F)
  8. Taste neurons pass from the receptors through the nucleus of the solitary tract in the medulla to the primary gustatory area. (F)
  9. The decrease in neural response with continued exposure to one taste is a mechanism that motivates the organism to change foods. (F)
  10. Although humans cannot easily resist junk food, rats can easily avoid high caloric, low-nutrient snacks. (F)
  11. Digestion is under the control of the autonomic nervous system. (T)
  12. The pancreas secretes insulin when glucose levels in the blood rise. (T)
  13. The correct order of the digestive system is mouth–stomach–large intestines–small intestines. (F)
  14. Neuropeptide Y is a powerful stimulant for eating. (T)
  15. Low glucose levels produce an increase in release of neuropeptide Y. (T)
  16. Injecting saline into the stomach of a rat will increase glucose levels and therefore increase food consumption. (F)
  17. Leptin is a hormone secreted by fat cells that inhibits eating. (T)
  18. For every one-point increase in BMI, there was a 13–16% increase in the risk of temporal lobe atrophy. (T)
  19. The correlation of BMIs for identical twins reared apart is higher than if they were reared together. (F)
  20. Leptin appears to be a candidate for an anti-obesity treatment. (T)
  21. The author of your text cautions the reader against using the term instinct as a convenient explanation for behaviors that are difficult to explain. (T)
  22. A learned taste preference is a preference not for a nutrient, but for the flavor of a food containing that nutrient. (T)
  23. The “wisdom of the body” is more than adequate in the face of the rich caloric creations of developed societies. (F)
  24. If someone stimulated your area postrema, you would begin uncontrollably eating. (F)
  25. Research has supported the idea that obesity is a matter of will power or lack thereof. (F)
  26. The cravings of drug addicts and compulsive eaters involve different brain areas. (F)
  27. At least one pharmaceutical in development to treat obesity acts via interfering with the absorption of fat. (T)
  28. The effectiveness of serotonin-specific antidepressants in treating bulimia is due to the improvement in mood the antidepressants produce. (T)
  29. The arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus is a vital structure for monitoring the body’s nutrient supplies. (T)
  30. Epigenetic characteristics are those determined solely by genetic factors. (F)
  31. If you injected ghrelin into someone, that person would suddenly become very hungry. (T)
  32. Developed countries have the smallest relative proportion of obese citizens. (F)

 

Chapter 7: The Biology of Sex and Gender

Multiple Choice

  1. Sex is considered to be a form of ___ behavior.
  2. chaotic
  3. motivated (*)
  4. learned
  5. innate

 

  1. Penile and clitoral erection first occurs in the ___ phase of the sexual response.
  2. excitement (*)
  3. plateau
  4. orgasm
  5. resolution

 

  1. The four phases of sexual arousal in order are:
  2. Plateau, excitement, orgasm, refractory
  3. Excitement, plateau, orgasm, refractory
  4. Excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution (*)
  5. Orgasm, resolution, refractory, excitement

 

  1. Name two researchers who pioneered human sexual research in the 1960’s.
  2. Masters and Coolidge
  3. Masters and Johnson (*)
  4. Johnson and Johnson
  5. Johnson and Coolidge

 

  1. The ___ effect involves the male’s refractory period, in a way that is similar to sensory-specific satiety.
  2. Masters
  3. Johnson
  4. Coolidge (*)
  5. Kinsey

 

  1. Males usually have a sexual ___ period while females do not.
  2. resolution
  3. post orgasmic
  4. pheromone sensitive
  5. refractory (*)

 

  1. Why does most of what we know about sexual behavior come from studies of other species like rats?
  2. Research on sexual behavior in humans has been considered “off limits” for years and hence hard to get funded.
  3. Male rats copulate many more times than humans, up to 20 times a day!
  4. Researchers can alter the hormonal control of animals, which would be unethical in humans.
  5. All of the above (*)

 

  1. Which statement best describes the effects of castration on sexual behavior in humans?
  2. We are more affected by castration than other animals
  3. Males eventually lose the ability to copulate; females do not
  4. The ability of males to have erections is maintained, but sex drive is low; little if any changes occur in the females
  5. Sexual behavior declines but is still present because the adrenals secrete enough hormones to maintain sexual desire (*)

 

  1. Anti-androgen drugs, such as those given to some individuals convicted of sexually-based crimes, are ___ in treating deviant sexual behavior.
  2. minimally effective
  3. highly effective (*)
  4. inconsistent and unpredictable
  5. are not as popular as surgical castration, because they don’t work very well

 

  1. All of the following statements about testosterone are true except:
  2. The relationship between sexual activity and testosterone levels could be explained by the fact that sexual activity itself increases testosterone levels
  3. Males with low testosterone levels can be as sexually active as other males, indicating that minimal testosterone is required for typical sexual behavior
  4. Castration of aggressive human prisoners is a common procedure that is effective in about 50% of cases (*)
  5. The effect of castration on sexual behavior takes longer in humans than in rats, although there is some variability

 

  1. Females of most species are willing to engage in sex only during their ___ period, whereas female humans and some primates ___.
  2. estrus; are not willing to engage in sex except outside their estrus cycle
  3. menstrual; are willing to engage in sex anytime during their estrus cycle
  4. estrus; are willing to engage in sex anytime during their reproductive cycle (*)
  5. menstrual; are only likely to engage in sex during their estrus cycle

 

  1. Which of the following statements supports a relationship between the menstrual cycle and female sexual activity?
  2. Couples are more likely to have intercourse when the woman is actively menstruating only in the winter months due to low levels of estrogen
  3. Couples exhibit a spontaneous decrease in sexual activity during the middle of their menstrual cycle when the woman is most likely to get pregnant
  4. Women are more likely to initiate sex during the middle of their reproductive cycle when the woman is most likely to get pregnant (*)
  5. Women on birth control pills exhibit a peak in sexual activity for only a few days after menstruation occurs

 

  1. What evidence suggests that testosterone plays a role in female sexual behavior?
  2. Sexual behavior of women decreases at menopause when testosterone levels decline
  3. Testosterone levels peak at mid-cycle when women are more likely to initiate sexual activity
  4. Testosterone treatment given to women with their ovaries removed increases sexual arousal and behavior
  5. All of the above (*)

 

  1. Which brain area is most important for sexual responses of both sexes?
  2. central amygdala
  3. ventromedial hypothalamus
  4. sexually dimorphic nucleus
  5. medial preoptic area (*)

 

  1. What role does the medial amygdala play in sexual behavior?
  2. It is active while rats copulate.
  3. If stimulated, dopamine is released in the MPOA, which is known to be important in sexual behavior.
  4. Its role is to respond to sexually exciting stimuli, such as potential partners.
  5. All of the above (*)

 

  1. Which brain area is not involved in male sexual behavior?
  2. ventromedial hypothalamus (*)
  3. medial preoptic area
  4. sexually dimorphic nucleus
  5. paraventricular nucleus

 

  1. Which of the following brain areas seems to be involved in sexual activity in female, but not male, rats?
  2. Medial preoptic area
  3. Medial amygdala
  4. Sexually dimorphic nucleus
  5. Ventromedial nucleus (*)

 

  1. Which of the following neurotransmitters increases in the nucleus accumbens during sexual activity?
  2. Dopamine (*)
  3. Serotonin
  4. Norepinephrine
  5. Endorphin

 

  1. The level of sexual activity in male rats is related to the size of their ___, which itself is a function of ___.
  2. MPOA; prenatal exposure to stress hormones
  3. ventromedial hypothalamus; prenatal exposure to testosterone
  4. SDN; prenatal exposure to estrogen
  5. SDN; prenatal exposure to testosterone (*)

 

  1. Stimulation of the ___ results in release of dopamine in the ___.
  2. medial preoptic area; medial amygdala
  3. medial amygdala; medial preoptic area (*)
  4. sexually dimorphic nucleus; medial amygdala
  5. medial amygdala; sexually dimorphic nucleus

 

  1. The ___ is 5 times larger in male rats than in females.
  2. medial amygdala
  3. medial preoptic area
  4. sexually dimorphic nucleus (*)
  5. ventromedial hypothalamus

 

  1. The brain area that is specifically important for female sexual behavior is the:
  2. medial amygdala
  3. medial preoptic area
  4. sexually dimorphic nucleus
  5. ventromedial hypothalamus (*)

 

  1. Which of the following areas plays a role in integrating sensory and hormonal information, as well as coordinating physiological responses involved in sexual behavior?
  2. ventromedial hypothalamus
  3. medial preoptic area
  4. sexually dimorphic nucleus (*)
  5. medial amygdala

 

  1. The amygdala is involved in:
  2. sexual behavior in both males and females
  3. aggression
  4. emotions
  5. all of the above (*)

 

  1. Which type of drug does not interfere with sexual activity?
  2. serotonin reuptake blockers
  3. anti-anxiety drugs
  4. dopamine agonists (*)
  5. anti-depressants

 

  1. As referenced in Chapter 5, the neurotransmitter ___ is released in the male ___ during sexual activity; this mirrors behavior during the Coolidge effect.
  2. serotonin; medial preoptic area
  3. dopamine; sexually dimorphic nucleus
  4. dopamine; nucleus accumbens (*)
  5. naloxone, nucleus accumbens

 

  1. Which of the following is true about the role of the autonomic nervous system in sexual behavior in males?
  2. Small amounts of dopamine stimulate D2 receptors to activate the parasympathetic nervous system
  3. Serotonin effects on the autonomic nervous system are responsible for the shift from sympathetic to parasympathetic activity
  4. Stimulation of D1 receptors activates the parasympathetic nervous system, which increases motivation and erection (*)
  5. Serotonin stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, causing ejaculation.

 

  1. When Bob turned 40, he realized he couldn’t remember things as well as he used to. He went for his annual check up, and his doctor tested him for various memory disorders. Sadly, he was diagnosed with ___, a degenerative memory and movement disease, and was placed on L-DOPA therapy to help with his symptoms. To his surprise, he also noticed an increase in sexual activity as well.
  2. Alzheimer’s disease
  3. Parkinson’s disease (*)
  4. Epilepsy
  5. Huntington’s disease

 

  1. Women rated the body odor of men as being more attractive when the men differed from them in terms of ___.
  2. major histocompatibility complex (*)
  3. pheromone levels
  4. dopamine levels
  5. All of the above

 

  1. A woman would be inclined to find a male with a different ___ as more attractive because it would signal genetic ___ and presumably improved immune system functioning in the children.
  2. MHC; dissimilarity (*)
  3. MPC; similarity
  4. MHC; similarity
  5. MPC; dissimilarity

 

  1. A ___ is a chemical that is released by one animal to affect the physiology and or behavior of another member of (usually) the same species.
  2. neurotransmitter
  3. neurochemical
  4. hormone
  5. pheromone (*)

 

  1. All of the following are true about the olfactory system except:
  2. It responds to airborne materials that dissolve in the nasal mucosa
  3. Odorants stimulate receptors that are underneath the nasal mucosa
  4. The olfactory nerves travel to the olfactory cortex found in the temporal lobe
  5. Olfactory stimuli act on receptors on axons found in the olfactory nerve (*)

 

  1. Humans can recognize approximately ___ odors.
  2. 1,000
  3. 10,000 (*)
  4. 100,000
  5. 1,000,000

 

  1. Humans have ___ active odor receptor genes than rats and mice.
  2. four times as many
  3. fewer (*)
  4. the same number of
  5. twice as many

 

  1. The evolution and later reliance on our ___ system has been suggested as the reason why humans are not as sensitive to pheromones as other mammals.
  2. gustatory
  3. somatosensory
  4. auditory
  5. color vision (*)

 

  1. The vomeronasal organ
  2. has evolved to a diminished size in humans
  3. may not be required for detecting pheromones
  4. sends signals to the hypothalamus and amygdala
  5. all of the above (*)

 

  1. When your dog “knows” that the poodle down the street is “in heat,” most of the pheromones are detected by the ___ but some are detected by ___.
  2. vomeronasal organ; gustatory receptors
  3. olfactory receptors; vomeronasal organ
  4. vomeronasal organ; olfactory receptors (*)
  5. vomeronasal organ; MPOA

 

  1. Earlier reports found that underarm secretions of both sexes have been shown to alter menstrual cycles, probably due to effects on a woman’s ___, but they have been questioned on methodological grounds.
  2. pheromones
  3. menstrual hormones
  4. luteinizing hormone (*)
  5. oxytocin levels

 

  1. Research suggests that exposure to a chemical found in human underarm sweat will:
  2. desynchronize the length of menstrual cycles
  3. result in increased sexual intercourse in males and females (*)
  4. increase the social interaction of female subjects with men
  5. suppress testosterone secretion in males

 

  1. Research shows that men find the scent of women’s T-shirts more attractive:
  2. at the end of the menstrual cycle
  3. at the beginning of the menstrual cycle
  4. during ovulation (*)
  5. throughout the winter months

 

  1. Research suggests that exposure to pheromones from women’s T-shirts will be rated most attractive by males:
  2. During ovulation in women not taking birth control pills (*)
  3. In mid-cycle in women on birth control pills
  4. During ovulation in both women on and off birth control pills
  5. None of the above

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true about pheromones and human behavior?
  2. Pheromones only affect sexual behavior
  3. Pheromones affect behavior in animals but not humans
  4. Pheromones operate in fear-provoking situations (*)
  5. Pheromones are produced when people engage in strenuous physical activity

 

  1. The bonding process in prairie voles involves all of the following except:
  2. activation of the AVPR1A gene
  3. release of oxytocin
  4. the presence of vasopressin
  5. release of serotonin during mating (*)

 

  1. Meadow voles differ from prairie voles (the subject of the Application) in that they
  2. are not monogamous (*)
  3. show preference for a single partner if the AVPR1A gene is blocked
  4. release vasopressin but not oxytocin
  5. release oxytocin but not vasopressin

 

  1. In humans, oxytocin is involved in all of the following except:
  2. bonding
  3. muscle contractions involved in lactation and orgasm
  4. memory for safe environments (*)
  5. social recognition

 

  1. When humans are classified as male or female based on their biological characteristics, researchers are referring to their:
  2. sex (*)
  3. gender
  4. gender role
  5. gender identity

 

  1. The set of behaviors that are considered appropriate for males but not for females and vice versa in a given society is referred to as:
  2. sex
  3. gender
  4. gender role (*)
  5. gender identity

 

  1. If you are going to have a blind date with someone named Sam, and your friend says that Sam had testicles, what do you know about Sam that is male?
  2. sex
  3. gender
  4. gender identity
  5. all the above (*)

 

  1. The best way to identify a person as male or female is by the person’s:
  2. chromosomes
  3. gender
  4. gender role
  5. none of the above because the topic is too complex (*)

 

  1. Charles, who is a man, is colorblind. As you will learn later in the book, this trait is due to a defective gene found on the X chromosome. Based on this, which parent gave him the defective gene?
  2. mom (*)
  3. dad
  4. one of his grandfathers on either side
  5. all of the above is possible

 

  1. Chuck and Diane have been trying to have a child since they got married three years ago, but have been unsuccessful. Upon genetic testing, they learn that Chuck has a defective gene on his Y chromosome that is to blame, which prevents his testes from making sperm cells. Which parent gave him that gene?
  2. mom
  3. dad (*)
  4. one of his grandmothers on either side
  5. all of the above is possible

 

  1. The penis in males and the ___ in females develop from the same embryonic tissue.
  2. vagina
  3. labia
  4. uterus
  5. clitoris (*)

 

  1. The Müllerian ducts are precursors to the:
  2. Ovaries
  3. Testes
  4. Female internal sex organs (*)
  5. Male internal sex organs

 

  1. The Wolffian ducts are the precursor for the:
  2. Ovaries
  3. Testes
  4. Female internal sex organs
  5. Male internal sex organs (*)

 

  1. What causes the undifferentiated (or indifferent) gonads to become the testes?
  2. Müllerian-determining factor
  3. Ovarian-inhibiting substance
  4. A protein made from the SRY gene (*)
  5. A neurotransmitter released from the inactive X in an XX-fertilized ovum

 

  1. The development of gonads into a male or female pattern depends on:
  2. Whether the gonads have been exposed to estrogen
  3. Whether the fetus has a single X chromosome or not
  4. The chromosomal sex (*)
  5. The presence of the SRY gene on the X chromosome

 

  1. In the absence of the SRY gene, the undifferentiated (indifferent) gonads:
  2. Develop a difference in sexual development (DSD) pattern
  3. Develop into ovaries (*)
  4. Develop into testes
  5. Disappear

 

  1. Which of the following is not part of the female internal genitalia?
  2. clitoris (*)
  3. uterus
  4. inner vagina
  5. fallopian tubes

 

  1. Which of the following is part of the male internal genitalia?
  2. penis
  3. scrotum
  4. testes
  5. vas deferens (*)

 

  1. All of the following are external genitalia except:
  2. clitoris
  3. seminal vesicles (*)
  4. scrotum
  5. labia

 

  1. Which hormone promotes the development of the external male genitalia?
  2. estrogen
  3. dihydrotestosterone (*)
  4. progesterone
  5. testosterone

 

  1. Androgens are produced by the:
  2. testes
  3. adrenal glands
  4. ovaries
  5. all of the above (*)

 

  1. Which hormonal stimulus is required for an XX fetus to develop labia, a clitoris, and a vagina?
  2. Exposure to androgens
  3. Exposure to estrogens
  4. Exposure to progesterone
  5. None (*)

 

  1. An important difference between the organizing and activating effects of hormones is that organizing effects:
  2. are temporary
  3. are usually but not always reversible
  4. occur only during and after puberty
  5. mainly occur prenatally or shortly after birth (*)

 

  1. An important difference between the organizing and activating effects of hormones is that activating effects:
  2. are always temporary
  3. are permanent
  4. occur anytime in the individual’s lifetime (*)
  5. usually occur early in development

 

  1. An important difference between the organizing and activating effects of hormones is that organizing effects:
  2. are temporary
  3. are lifelong in effect
  4. occur only after puberty
  5. occur only prenatally (*)

 

  1. An important difference between the organizing and activating effects of hormones is that activating effects:
  2. are always lifelong in effect
  3. are reversible (*)
  4. occur only after puberty
  5. occur early in development

 

  1. Which of the following is a result of an activating effect?
  2. muscle increases in a male
  3. beard growth in a male
  4. breast development in a female
  5. all of the above (*)

 

  1. Which of the following is not an organizing effect?
  2. Maturation of the genitals
  3. Changes in stature
  4. Development of the clitoris
  5. Increase in sexual interest (*)

 

  1. During which time period do hormones usually exert organizing effects?
  2. Early in development (*)
  3. Puberty
  4. When sexual interest occurs
  5. Adulthood

 

  1. The arching of the back exhibited by a female rat during copulation is known as:
  2. lordosis (*)
  3. receptivity
  4. pronation
  5. attractiveness

 

  1. If a female rat is given an injection of testosterone during critical brain development, as an adult it will:
  2. have normal female sex behaviors
  3. have no sexual behavior
  4. be more likely to mount other female rats (*)
  5. be more likely to mount male rats

 

  1. If a male rat is castrated shortly after birth or given a chemical that blocks androgen’s effects, as an adult it will:
  2. have normal male sex behaviors
  3. be likely to accept male rats mounting it (*)
  4. be more likely to mount other female rats
  5. be more likely to mount male rats

 

  1. The feminization of the brain is now known to require more than an absence of ___ but also the influence of ___.
  2. testosterone; aromatization
  3. estradiol; testosterone
  4. testosterone; estradiol (*)
  5. aromatase; estradiol

 

  1. Which of the following is involved in masculinization of the brain?
  2. estradiol
  3. testosterone
  4. aromatization
  5. all of the above (*)

 

  1. All of the following make it difficult to determine if there are gender-related differences in behavior and cognition except:
  2. the results show evidence for strong differences, but people don’t want to accept them (*)
  3. different researchers tend measure the same characteristic in different ways
  4. the differences that exist are relatively small
  5. people tend to talk to children dressed as boys or girls in different, subtle ways

 

  1. Maccoby and Jacklin (1974) concluded that boys and girls differed in their abilities in what areas?
  2. Girls have greater verbal abilities. (*)
  3. Girls have lesser verbal abilities.
  4. Girls have greater mathematical abilities.
  5. Girls have greater visual-spatial abilities.

 

  1. Maccoby and Jacklin (1974) concluded that boys and girls differed in their abilities in what areas?
  2. Boys have greater verbal abilities.
  3. Boys have lesser visual-spatial abilities.
  4. Boys have lesser mathematical abilities.
  5. Boys have greater visual-spatial abilities. (*)

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding gender differences in cognitive performance?
  2. There is a great deal of overlap between males and females in these characteristics.
  3. The differences that do exist are task specific; that is, females do not excel on all verbal tasks.
  4. Males are better than females on tasks requiring mental rotation of 3-D objects, but less so on other spatial tasks.
  5. All of the above (*)

 

  1. Why are researchers less convinced that gender-related differences in cognition and behavior have a physiological basis?
  2. These differences have increased over time, due to changes in gender roles
  3. Murder rates are the same in different countries, showing that males are generally more aggressive than females
  4. Males and females no longer differ much in mathematical abilities, although boys are still overrepresented at the lower and higher extremes (*)
  5. All of the above

 

  1. The conclusion that homicide rates vary dramatically from one culture to another points to a:
  2. Biological basis for aggression
  3. Environmental influence on aggression (*)
  4. Conclusion that both males and females are highly aggressive
  5. Flaw in studies of homicide as aggression

 

  1. Male to female transsexuals, who frequently take supplemental estrogen to look more feminine, score higher on measures of ___ than males with normal levels of estrogen.
  2. verbal ability (*)
  3. mathematical ability
  4. visual-spatial ability
  5. aggression

 

  1. Which of the following represents an activating effect of a hormone?
  2. Maturation of the genitals at puberty
  3. The enlargement of the SDN in male rats
  4. Growth of breasts at puberty.
  5. Masculinization of the genitals during prenatal development (*)

 

  1. Which hormone may be linked to enhanced spatial skills?
  2. Testosterone (*)
  3. Estrogen
  4. Progesterone
  5. Dihydrotestosterone

 

  1. Males, who produce low levels of testosterone early in development, score poorer on measures of ___ but older men given ___ can increase their performance on measures of spatial tasks.
  2. visual-spatial ability; testosterone (*)
  3. mathematical ability; estrogen
  4. visual-spatial ability; estrogen
  5. verbal fluency; testosterone

 

  1. Female transsexuals taking testosterone show:
  2. Increases in certain measures of verbal ability
  3. Increases in certain measures of spatial ability (*)
  4. Decreases in certain measures of spatial ability
  5. No changes in any measure of verbal or spatial ability

 

  1. What is the relationship between testosterone and aggression?
  2. Testosterone causes aggression
  3. Aggression causes testosterone levels to increase
  4. Both A and B are true
  5. A and B are related, but researchers do not fully understand the source of aggression (*)

 

  1. Which of the following is true about brain areas that might be involved in gender differences in cognition and behavior?
  2. On an fMRI task, males processed a language task primarily in the left temporal area, whereas females engaged both temporal lobes equally (*)
  3. Men use frontal lobes to process spatial tasks, while females use the parietal lobes.
  4. There is a correlation between the amount of tissue in the surface of the temporal lobe and scores on a spatial rotation task.
  5. All of the above

 

  1. All of the following are true about male-female differences except:
  2. Males are more genetically resistant to pain than females
  3. Men are less affected by stress than women
  4. Females are more likely to be affected by Tourette’s syndrome (*)
  5. Males are more susceptible to Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder.

 

  1. What is a reasonable approach to interpreting sex differences in cognition and behavior, according to the textbook?
  2. The behavioral and cognitive differences are small, and do not justify differential treatment of individuals based on their sex
  3. There are small but real differences in some areas, such as strength and possibly aggressiveness
  4. It is best to use the term other sex rather than opposite sex to reflect the fact that we are more alike than we are different
  5. All of the above (*)

 

  1. Jimmy believes he was accidentally born into the wrong sex. He has known all his life that he should have been a girl, and when he was able to he began dressing like a woman and eventually plans to get gender reassignment surgery to make his body more feminine. Jimmy therefore is a
  2. homosexual
  3. bisexual
  4. transsexual (*)
  5. asexual

 

  1. A woman who feels more like a man than a woman has a ___ that does not match her sex.
  2. gender role
  3. gender identity (*)
  4. sexual orientation
  5. All of the above

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding sexual orientation is true?
  2. Gay men are more likely to be bisexual than lesbians.
  3. Lesbians make up a larger proportion of the population than do gay men.
  4. Gay men and lesbians are bisexual to a certain degree.
  5. Many more people engage in homosexual behavior than are considered homosexual. (*)

 

  1. One reason suggested for why a boy can have normal, functioning male sex organs but still believe he should be a girl is that
  2. testosterone always triggers female patterns of behavior
  3. the genitals and brain develop at different times (*)
  4. estrogen plays a key role in both male and female development
  5. none of the above.

 

  1. Which of the following is not true with respect to transsexual individuals
  2. There are brain differences between transsexuals and heterosexuals
  3. Male-to-female transsexuals are more plentiful than female-to-male transsexuals
  4. Transsexuals differ from heterosexuals in their responses to the pheromones EST and AND.
  5. Transsexuals are always homosexual before gender reassignment surgery (*)

 

  1. One brain area that seems to differ between transsexuals and all other individuals is the
  2. central bed of the stria terminalis (*)
  3. medial amygdala
  4. hippocampus
  5. ventromedial hypothalamus

 

  1. A person with ambiguous internal and external sex organs but whose gonads are consistent with her or his chromosomes would be referred to as a(n):
  2. Hermaphrodite or Hph
  3. Difference in sexual development or DSD(*)
  4. Intersexual male
  5. Intersexual female

 

  1. A person with 46 XY DSD can result from a deficiency in an enzyme that converts ___ into ___.
  2. testosterone; dihydrotestosterone
  3. dihydrotestosterone; testosterone (*)
  4. androgen; estradiol
  5. estradiol; estrogen

 

  1. A person with 46 XY DSD can result from a deficiency in ___ that masculinizes the external genitalia.
  2. 17-beta reductase
  3. 5-alpha reductase (*)
  4. aromatase
  5. estradiol

 

  1. A group of individuals with 46 XY DSD studied in the Dominican Republic:
  2. had a deficiency in 5-alpha reductase
  3. had a genetic defect that could be a result of frequent intermarriage among relatives
  4. switched from a female to a male gender identity after puberty
  5. all of the above (*)

 

  1. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS) is:
  2. caused by a deactivation of testosterone receptors during puberty
  3. due to a lack of testes
  4. characterized by an XY genotype (*)
  5. the result of an enzyme deficiency

 

  1. Which of the following causes an individual with AIS (Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome) to develop female characteristics and appearance?
  2. Müllerian inhibiting hormone is not active
  3. Estrogen released from the testes and adrenal glands feminizes the body (*)
  4. Menstruation occurs because testosterone receptors are not activated
  5. Individuals with AIS are XXY, so they have additional female hormones released at puberty

 

  1. All of the following are characteristics of androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS) except:
  2. Breast growth at puberty
  3. Descended testes (*)
  4. Female external genitalia
  5. Male gonads

 

  1. People with androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS) will have:
  2. no Müllerian-inhibiting substance
  3. no androgen receptors (*)
  4. male external genitals
  5. increased secretion of dihydrotestosterone

 

  1. An undiagnosed androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS) child will most likely:
  2. not be feminized at puberty
  3. be fertile as an adult
  4. prefer a female sexual partner
  5. be raised as a female (*)

 

  1. Surprisingly, a large number of androgen-insensitive males are frequently found to be
  2. female professional wrestlers
  3. female pilots
  4. female fashion models (*)
  5. female lawyers or politicians

 

  1. AIS individuals:
  2. are similar to females in terms of having higher verbal ability and lower spatial performance (*)
  3. have higher spatial abilities than that of other males
  4. are often described as being “tomboyish”
  5. usually adopt a male gender identity

 

  1. CAH syndrome in females is characterized by
  2. androgenization of the internal sex organs
  3. masculinization of the external sex organs (*)
  4. a lack of androgen receptors
  5. an XO chromosome pattern (missing one sex chromosome)

 

  1. An individual with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) will
  2. have normal external genitals but atypical internal genitals
  3. be asexual as an adult
  4. have normal internal and external genitals
  5. be raised as a female or as a male depending on the extent of the masculinization (*)

 

  1. All of the following are true about CAH syndrome except:
  2. Less than 50% of CAH women reared as girls accept a female identity (*)
  3. CAH individuals often choose male-dominated careers and are interested in rough sports
  4. Some evidence shows that CAH individuals have better spatial performance than females without CAH
  5. Almost 40% of CAH women identify as homosexual or bisexual

 

  1. The case of the athlete Caster Semenya showed that
  2. transsexuals cannot compete in the wrong-sex gender category, since they do not meet the requirements of competition (XX for women’s events, XY for men’s)
  3. she had AIS, based on chromosome analysis
  4. we should suspect gender misrepresentation if a female like Semenya turns in a strong performance at an athletic event
  5. athletic organizations that oversee events such as the World Championships and Olympics have not adequately defined gender in their rules or gender verification policies (*)

 

  1. Some researchers recommend that multiple categories between female and male be referred to as:
  2. intersexes (*)
  3. disordered gender
  4. hermaphrodites
  5. none of the above

 

  1. Individuals with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH):
  2. Typically do not receive hormone treatments
  3. Should receive male genitalia reconstructive surgery because of the androgen exposure
  4. Have normal internal and external genitals
  5. Have an enzyme defect that alters sex hormone levels in the prenatal period (*)

 

  1. The drug DES
  2. had an androgen-like effect on the brain, but not the genitals (*)
  3. affected sexual behavior but not sexual orientation
  4. was originally used as a pain killer
  5. all of the above

 

  1. The “neutral at birth” theorists argue that
  2. one’s sexual genotype and phenotype always coincide
  3. rearing has no effect on one’s sexual phenotype
  4. one’s genitals determine one’s sexual phenotype
  5. one’s sexual genotype is largely irrelevant to one’s sexual phenotype (*)

 

  1. Diamond’s “sexuality-at-birth” position argues that
  2. chromosomes are most important in determining gender identity.
  3. the appearance of the genitals at birth is important in determining gender identity, because it reflects prenatal hormone exposure. (*)
  4. rearing is the most influential variable in determining gender identity, no matter what the genitals look like.
  5. it doesn’t matter how children are reared as long as the parents are comfortable with the gender assigned to their child.

 

  1. In the most famous case of Ablatio penis, where a young boy with XY chromosomes had his penis destroyed during a circumcision,
  2. the child (Bruce) was born as a hermaphrodite and the decision was made to rear him as a girl (Brenda)
  3. Money counseled the parents that by rearing the child (Bruce) as a girl, “she” (Brenda) would accept a female gender identity (*)
  4. the child lost both testicles, which was the source for all of the male-specific hormones in “her” body
  5. Money showed that the “neutral-at-birth” position was in fact correct

 

  1. Regarding the case of “Bruce-Brenda-David,” which of the following is true?
  2. Brenda chose to live as a boy before learning her true sex.
  3. Brenda was comfortable with her feminine role until adolescence.
  4. Brenda’s mother had no problem making the switch from male to female.
  5. This case clearly demonstrated that the “neutral-at-birth” position is incorrect. (*)

 

  1. All of the following are true about the Ablatio penis cases, including Bruce/Brenda/David, except
  2. one was described as a tomboy and preferred playing with her brother’s toys.
  3. one was teased in school and referred to as a “caveman.”
  4. none doubted their sexual identities until after puberty (*)
  5. the parents consented to reconstructive surgery and reared the child as a girl

 

  1. How did the story of Ablatio penis involving Bruce/Brenda unfold?
  2. At age 14 Brenda decided to switch to living as a male, and change her/his name to David.
  3. Brenda underwent extensive surgery and hormonal treatments to become male.
  4. Although David was accepted as a male and eventually married, his life ended in suicide.
  5. All of the above (*)

 

  1. A category of sexual preference termed asexual was defined as including individuals:
  2. who express a strong revulsion to sex
  3. who express no interest in sex (*)
  4. who lost their interest in sex after a bad experience
  5. who have ambiguous feelings about their sexual orientation

 

  1. With respect to sexual orientation,
  2. bisexuality is more common among males than among females
  3. homosexual individuals tend to have many more sexual partners than heterosexuals
  4. researchers now believe that there is little need to understand heterosexuality, seeing at it is considered the “base” sexual orientation
  5. a large proportion of individuals have at least one homosexual experiences are relatively common, especially in adolescence (*)

 

  1. Which of the following is the best predictor of homosexuality?
  2. Early homosexual feelings and experiences (*)
  3. Strict upbringing by a single opposite-sex parent
  4. Strict upbringing by a single same-sex parent
  5. Early exposure to a homosexual adult or sibling

 

  1. During childhood, homosexuals often show a high degree of ___, by engaging in activities and mannerisms usually preferred by the opposite sex, along with a preference for opposite-sex playmates.
  2. gender nonconformity (*)
  3. gender negative conformity
  4. atypical gender conformity
  5. gender conformity

 

  1. Which of the following approaches has provided the most documented and consistent evidence for a biological basis for sexual orientation?
  2. Hormonal level studies
  3. Brain structure size studies
  4. Twin and family studies (*)
  5. Social learning studies

 

  1. Homosexual men have been found to have more homosexual relatives:
  2. on their father’s side of the family
  3. on their mother’s side of the family (*)
  4. who were adopted at birth
  5. with a specific genetic similarity on the Y chromosome

 

  1. Early studies by Hamer and colleagues found ___ among homosexual men who are genetically related.
  2. a genetic similarity on the X chromosome (*)
  3. a genetic similarity on the Y chromosome
  4. no genetic similarities
  5. a genetic similarity on the 21st, 9th, and the X chromosome

 

  1. Twin studies for sexual orientation:
  2. have shown no clear difference in concordance rates between identical and fraternal twins
  3. can be biased by the “volunteer effect” (*)
  4. are relatively easy to conduct, due to the large number of twins who are homosexual
  5. have found similar identical twin concordance rates for homosexual males and females

 

  1. Some researchers suggest the homosexuality may sometimes occur through a epigenetic process called:
  2. reverse skewing
  3. imprinting (*)
  4. stasis
  5. noncoherence

 

  1. Research has shown that women who have homosexual offspring also tended to inactivate the same X chromosome (of the pair) in most of the cells in their bodies. This epigenetic process is called
  2. selective transfer
  3. imprinting (*)
  4. masculinization
  5. the “gay” chromosome

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true with respect to studies of sexual orientation in animals?
  2. Early hormonal manipulation of testosterone results in same sex-preference later in life in several species
  3. Naturally occurring homosexual behavior has been observed in numerous animal species, such as sheep and gulls
  4. Animals engage in homosexual behavior, even when in mixed-sex groups
  5. All of the above (*)

 

  1. A research team in the U.S. and Sweden recently found that testosterone ___ found in a parent can potentially be passed on to his/her children, significantly affecting that child’s sexual and gender development.
  2. levels
  3. sensitivity (*)
  4. receptors
  5. gametes

 

  1. A now-discounted theory, the ___ hypothesis, suggested that homosexuality is learned, and arises due to early exposure to homosexuality. The major problem with this hypothesis is that homosexual individuals ____.
  2. Social Influence; are simply continuing earlier homosexual feeling and behaviors (*)
  3. Genetic Fixation; have too many genes that differ from heterosexual individuals
  4. Soma; work with what their bodies want to do when they have erotic feelings
  5. Sexual Youth; seem to be exposed to sex later in life than thirty years ago when the research was done

 

  1. One mechanism for why homosexuality persists, despite same-sex individuals not being able to reproduce, is the recent finding that genes linked to homosexuality also increase
  2. birth rate in women
  3. attraction to men
  4. both a and b (*)
  5. neither a nor b

 

  1. Which of the following findings supports the argument that homosexual men are the result of the maternal immunity hypothesis?
  2. Mothers, after having multiple male children, make antibodies against male-specific proteins, reducing their effects in subsequent males (*)
  3. The testosterone levels in mothers increase after every male child, flooding the subsequent male’s bodies with more and more hormones.
  4. Male homosexuals tend to have more younger brothers than male heterosexuals, indicating that their mother must have high testosterone levels in her uterus.
  5. Antibodies in the prenatal period result in the increase of androgens in the womb, causing affected individuals to become homosexual.

 

  1. Three brain areas that can differ in size between homosexual and heterosexual men are the
  2. anterior commissure, medial amygdala, and the third interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus
  3. medial amygdala, medial preoptic area, and the suprachiasmatic nucleus
  4. sexually dimorphic nucleus, interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus, and the suprachiasmatic nucleus
  5. third interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus, suprachiasmatic nucleus, and the anterior commissure (*)

 

  1. Which of the following is true with respect to brain areas implicated in homosexuality?
  2. The INAH3 is four times larger in male heterosexuals than in male homosexuals
  3. The SCN secretes more vasopressin in heterosexual males than in homosexual males
  4. The anterior commissure is smaller in homosexual men compared to heterosexual men
  5. The SCN is larger in homosexual men than heterosexual men (*)

 

  1. Male-to-female transsexuals:
  2. resemble females more than males in the size of the INAH3 (*)
  3. have brain activation patterns to erotic videos that are similar to males
  4. have a larger central bed nucleus of the stria terminalis than heterosexual males
  5. all of the above

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true concerning the effects of pheromones on brain areas in heterosexuals and homosexuals?
  2. AND activates the preoptic area in both heterosexual men and heterosexual women, but not homosexual men
  3. EST activates hypothalamic areas in heterosexual males, but not homosexual males or women (*)
  4. Homosexual women reacted to ACT and EST just as homosexual men did
  5. Homosexual men showed brain activation to both AND and EST

 

  1. Overall, the brains of homosexual woman have:
  2. shown little evidence of masculinization (*)
  3. shown profound evidence of masculinization
  4. been exposed to unusual levels of testosterone
  5. been exposed to unusual levels of estrogen

 

  1. Two characteristics that may distinguish homosexual from heterosexual women are the:
  2. size of the person’s breasts and response to high-frequency sounds
  3. size of the jaw relative to the skull and the index-to-ring finger ratio
  4. response magnitude of the evoked otoacoustic emission and the index-to-ring finger ratio (*)
  5. Index-to-ring finger ratio and the reaction to the pheromone EST.

 

  1. Individuals supporting GLBTQ rights support the biological model of homosexuality because
  2. they feel it will increase the public acceptance of homosexuality (*)
  3. they hope it will make people look at homosexuality as a treatable disease
  4. they believe that it will encourage homosexuals to seek psychotherapy
  5. heterosexuality is in reality the abnormal sexual orientation for humans

 

  1. The percentage of U.S. citizens that support same-sex marriage was around ___ in 2004. In less than 10 years, that percentage has changed to ___ in 2013.
  2. 40%; 90%
  3. 10%; 53%
  4. 71%; 38%
  5. 40%; 53% (*)

 

 

Essay

  1. Describe the four phases of the human sexual response and point out differences between men and women.

 

  1. Discuss the effects of castration and anti-androgen drugs on sexual behavior in males.

 

  1. Give evidence that shows testosterone plays a role in female sexual behavior.

 

  1. Identify four regions of the brain that play an important role in sexual behavior. Which of these are more important for male sexual behavior? For female sexual behavior?

 

  1. List and discuss which neurotransmitters are implicated in sexual behavior. How does the autonomic nervous system interact with these neurotransmitters during the phases of the sexual response?

 

  1. Describe the general olfactory system in humans. How do pheromones act in the body/brain? Give two examples that show pheromones affect sexual behavior in humans.

 

  1. Describe the role of oxytocin in animals and humans.

 

  1. Distinguish between the following terms: sex, gender, gender role, and gender identity.

 

  1. Describe the prenatal development of gonads, internal genitals, and external genitals. Be sure to include the role of hormones in this process.

 

  1. Compare and contrast the organizing versus the activating effects of hormones. Give examples of each.

 

  1. Describe differences in human male and female cognitive abilities. Relate this to exposure to hormones.

 

  1. Describe the causes and characteristics of 46 XY DSD, such as AIS, and 46 XX DSD, such as CAH.

 

  1. Discuss what is known about the short- and long-term outcomes of individuals who have undergone ablatio penis. Focus on the case of Bruce-Brenda-David.

 

  1. Compare and contrast the “neutral-at-birth” position versus the “sexuality-at-birth” position.

 

  1. Provide support for the following statement: “The best evidence supporting a biological basis for sexual orientation comes from genetic studies.”

 

  1. List and discuss the role of brain areas possibly implicated in sexual orientation.

 

  1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of viewing sexual orientation as having a biological basis? In other words, describe the social implications of this view.

 

True/False

  1. Humans are more affected by castration than are other animals. (F)

 

 

  1. The effects of castration are very consistent across individuals. (F)

 

  1. Increases in testosterone may be the result of sexual activity rather than the cause. (T)

 

  1. Men with slightly lower testosterone levels are less active sexually than men with higher levels. (F)

 

  1. Women typically have sex more frequently at ovulation than at other times in their reproductive cycle. (T)

 

  1. In women who have had their ovaries removed, testosterone therapy increases sexual arousal, fantasizing, or frequency of intercourse. (T)

 

  1. In laboratory animals the control of sexual behavior involves the same brain structures for females and males. (F)

 

  1. In laboratory animals, the medial preoptic area is a primary brain region involved in male sexual behaviors. (T)

 

  1. In nonhumans, the sexually dimorphic nucleus is a primary brain region involved in female sexual behaviors. (F)

 

  1. In nonhumans, the ventromedial nucleus is a primary brain region involved in female sexual behaviors. (T)

 

  1. In nonhumans, the sexually dimorphic nucleus is larger in males than in females. (T)

 

  1. Release of endorphins in the nucleus accumbens parallels the Coolidge effect. (F)

 

  1. Human males who have the same major histocompatibility complex as a female are rated by the female as having a more pleasant body odor. (F)

 

  1. The existence of a human sex pheromone has been firmly established. (F)

 

  1. The vomeronasal organ has not been found in humans. (F)

 

  1. The receptors in the human VNO respond to pheromone compounds. (T)

 

  1. A chemical that is released by one animal that affects the behavior of another of its species is a pheromone. (T)

 

  1. Men prefer the scent of women’s T-shirts worn at the time of ovulation. (T)

 

  1. During the earliest stages of fetal development, the internal sex organs are male. (F)

 

  1. One’s genetic sex is determined by the mother’s ovum. (F)

 

  1. The gender of a person’s external genitalia is determined by the presence or absence of androgens. (T)

 

  1. The precursor of the internal female sex organs is called the Wolffian system. (F)

 

  1. The precursor of the internal male sex organs is called the Müllerian system. (F)

 

  1. Testosterone causes the Müllerian system to degenerate. (F)

 

  1. Testosterone causes the Wolffian system to degenerate. (F)

 

  1. Nature’s default is to produce a male body in humans. (F)

 

  1. Activating effects of hormones can occur after development is complete. (T)

 

  1. Hormones can exert organizing effects in adulthood. (T)

 

  1. An example of an activating hormone effect is when male sexual behavior is facilitated by testosterone treatment. (T)

 

  1. Boys typically excel in verbal ability while girls do better in mathematics. (F)

 

  1. Females are better at solving spatial rotation tasks than males. (F)

 

  1. There is considerable overlap in the cognitive abilities of males and females. (T)

 

  1. The cognitive differences between male and females have increased over time. (F)

 

  1. While biology may play some role in sex differences in aggression, cultural factors are also important. (T)

 

  1. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is a condition resulting from excessive secretion of androgens from the pituitary gland. (F)

 

  1. Androgen insensitivity syndrome individuals frequently appear as female professional wrestlers. (F)

 

  1. Androgen insensitivity syndrome individuals frequently appear as female fashion models. (T)

 

  1. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a condition resulting from excessive secretion of androgens from the adrenal glands. (T)

 

  1. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a condition resulting from excessive secretion of estrogen. (F)

 

  1. Androgen insensitive males typically have better verbal ability than other males. (T)

 

  1. Sexual reassignment in infancy and the individual’s adjustment to his or her new gender will apparently be successful even if not accomplished until well after the first birthday. (F)

 

  1. The “neutral-at-birth” theorists argue that sexual reassignment in infancy has a definite time window for success that must be observed. (T)

 

  1. The International Association of Athletics Federation has a clear definition for gender in its rules and policies. (F)

 

  1. Semenya is an athlete who was questioned about her gender because of her physical appearance and strong athletic performance. (T)

 

  1. The third interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus is a brain area implicated in sexual orientation. (T)

 

  1. Parenting style results in homosexuality. (F)