Campbell  Biology 7th Edition by Neil A. Jane B. Reece  – Test Bank

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Campbell  Biology 7th Edition by Neil A. Jane B. Reece  – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

Chapter 05. The Working Cell
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Many of the enzymes that control a deep-sea firefly squidʹs ability to produce light energy from chemical
energy are located
A) in membranes. B) within chloroplasts.
C) outside of cells. D) within mitochondria.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as consisting of
A) a phospholipid bilayer with embedded carbohydrates.
B) two layers of phospholipids with cholesterol sandwiched between them.
C) carbohydrates and phospholipids that can drift in the membrane.
D) diverse proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3) Membrane phospholipids
A) have hydrophobic heads that face the center of the membrane and are shielded from water.
B) have hydrophilic tails that face outward and are exposed to water.
C) are able to drift about in the plasma membrane
D) remain fluid because they are tightly packed against one another.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4) The cholesterol associated with animal cell membranes
A) is attached to membrane proteins and extends into the watery environment surrounding the cell.
B) helps to stabilize the cell membrane at body temperature.
C) is an abnormality resulting from a diet high in cholesterol.
D) helps solidify the membranes when the room temperature is below freezing.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5) A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the cell membrane is to
A) glue cells together to form tissues.
B) allow the cells of an embryo to sort themselves into tissues and organs.
C) attach the cell membrane to the cytoskeleton.
D) help the cell retain its shape.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
1
6) When physicians perform an organ transplant, they choose a donor whose tissues match those of the recipient
as closely as possible. Which of the following cell components are being matched?
A) plasma membrane phospholipids B) plasma membrane proteins
C) cell-surface carbohydrates D) plasma membrane cholesterols
Answer: C
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Application/Analysis
7) Most of the functions of a cell membrane, including transport and enzymatic function, are performed by
A) glycolipids. B) proteins. C) phospholipids. D) cholesterol.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8) Which of the following statements regarding membrane protein function is false?
A) Membrane proteins serve as enzymes.
B) Membrane proteins act as receptors to molecules like hormones.
C) Membrane proteins form junctions between cells.
D) Membrane proteins transfer genetic information to the cytoplasm.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
9) Relaying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is
called
A) signal transduction. B) inhibition.
C) competition. D) selective permeability.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
10) Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that
A) anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the membrane is intact and the cell is healthy.
B) the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others.
C) glucose cannot enter the cell.
D) plasma membranes must be very thick.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
11) Which of the following statements regarding membrane function is false?
A) The plasma membrane forms a selective barrier around the cell.
B) The plasma membrane plays a role in signal transduction.
C) The plasma membrane has receptors for chemical messages.
D) The plasma membrane is the control center of the cell.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2
12) Which characteristic promoted the utilization of lipids as the first cell membrane?
A) spontaneous degradation of the intracellular environment
B) self-assembly into a simple membrane
C) ability to form an impermeable membrane
D) formation of a semi-solid membrane
Answer: B
Topic: 5.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
13) All cells are enclosed by a plasma membrane that is similar in ________ and ________.
A) thickness . . . composition B) permeability . . . content
C) lucidity . . . texture D) structure . . . function
Answer: D
Topic: 5.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
14) Small, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules such as fatty acids
A) easily pass through a membraneʹs lipid bilayer.
B) very slowly diffuse through a membraneʹs lipid bilayer.
C) require transport proteins to pass through a membraneʹs lipid bilayer.
D) are actively transported across cell membranes.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
15) Which of the following substances would have the most trouble crossing a biological membrane by diffusing
through the lipid bilayer?
A) O2
B) CO2
C) Na+
D) a small, nonpolar molecule such as butane (C4H10)
Answer: C
Topic: 5.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
16) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane by
A) osmosis. B) active transport. C) pinocytosis. D) passive transport.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
17) Which of the following statements regarding diffusion is false?
A) Diffusion is a result of the thermal energy of atoms and molecules.
B) Diffusion requires no input of energy into the system.
C) Diffusion occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they
are more concentrated.
D) Diffusion occurs even after equilibrium is reached and no net change is apparent.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3
18) Diffusion does not require the cell to expend ATP. Therefore, diffusion is considered a type of
A) exocytosis. B) passive transport. C) active transport. D) endocytosis.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
19) Osmosis can be defined as
A) the diffusion of water. B) the diffusion of nonpolar molecules.
C) active transport. D) the diffusion of a solute.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
20) When two aqueous solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a semipermeable
membrane and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will
A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower free water concentration.
B) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher free water concentration.
C) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration.
D) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
21) In the lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water, but not sucrose, to make an ʺartificial cell.ʺ The
balloon is filled with a solution of 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in a beaker containing a
solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water. Which of the following will occur?
A) Water will leave the balloon. B) Water will enter the balloon.
C) Sucrose will leave the balloon. D) Sucrose will enter the balloon.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.4
Skill: Application/Analysis
22) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water
from the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment
A) is isotonic to the protozoan.
B) is hypotonic to the protozoan.
C) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan.
D) is hypertonic to the protozoan.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.4
Skill: Application/Analysis
23) A cell that neither gains nor loses water when it is immersed in a solution must be
A) isotonic to its environment. B) hypertonic to its environment.
C) hypotonic to its environment. D) metabolically inactive.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4
24) In a hypotonic solution, an animal cell will
A) lyse. B) experience turgor.
C) neither gain nor lose water. D) shrivel.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
25) If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts for this
difference?
A) the expulsion of water by the plant cellʹs central vacuole
B) the relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water
C) the fact that plant cells are isotonic to tap water
D) the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall
Answer: D
Topic: 5.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
26) In the lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water but not sucrose to make an ʺartificial cell.ʺ The
balloon is filled with a solution of 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in a beaker containing a
solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water. The solution in the balloon is ________ relative to the solution in the
beaker.
A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) hypertonic D) hydrophilic
Answer: B
Topic: 5.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
27) White blood cells (WBCs) are more resistant to lysis than red blood cells (RBCs). When looking at a sample of
blood for WBCs, what could you do to reduce interference from RBCs?
A) Mix the blood in a salty solution to cause the RBCs to lyse.
B) Mix the blood in an isotonic solution and allow the WBCs to float to the top.
C) Mix the blood in a hypotonic solution, which will cause the RBCs to lyse.
D) Mix the blood in a hypertonic solution, which will cause the RBCs to lyse.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
28) A plant cell in a hypotonic solution
A) becomes turgid because of an inflow of water. B) bursts because of an inflow of water.
C) shrivels because of an outflow of water. D) wilts because of an outflow of water.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
29) You are adrift in the Atlantic Ocean, and, being thirsty, drink the surrounding seawater. As a result,
A) you quench your thirst. B) your cells become turgid.
C) you dehydrate yourself. D) your cells lyse from excessive water intake.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
5
30) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ________ and moves a substance ________ its
concentration gradient.
A) energy and transport proteins . . . down B) transport proteins . . . down
C) energy and transport proteins . . . against D) transport proteins . . . against
Answer: B
Topic: 5.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
31) The molecules responsible for membrane transport are
A) steroids. B) phospholipids. C) carbohydrates. D) proteins.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
32) Which of the following statements is true among all types of passive transport?
A) Proteins are needed to transport molecules across the membrane.
B) The concentration gradient is the driving force.
C) Only small polar molecules are able to cross the plasma membrane.
D) Ions never cross the plasma membrane by passive transport.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.4, 5.5, 5.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
33) Aquaporins
A) allow water to cross the plasma membrane via facilitated diffusion.
B) allow water to cross the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient.
C) allow for the active transport of water.
D) are found in all cells.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
34) Which of the following processes can move a solute against its concentration gradient?
A) osmosis B) passive transport
C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport
Answer: D
Topic: 5.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
35) Which of the following is a typical feature of an ATP-driven active transport mechanism?
A) The transport protein must cross to the correct side of the membrane before the solute can bind to it.
B) The transport protein is irreversibly phosphorylated as transport takes place.
C) The transport protein catalyzes the conversion of ADP to ATP.
D) The solute moves against the concentration gradient.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6
36) Which of the following statements regarding active transport is false?
A) Active transport uses ATP as an energy source.
B) Active transport can move a solute against its concentration gradient.
C) Active transport requires the cell to expend energy.
D) Active transport is driven by the concentration gradient.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
37) Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach. This enzyme
is a protein. Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion?
A) endocytosis B) exocytosis C) diffusion D) pinocytosis
Answer: B
Topic: 5.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
38) The process of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is
A) osmosis. B) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C) pinocytosis. D) phagocytosis.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
39) Phagocytosis is to eating as pinocytosis is to
A) osmosis. B) drinking. C) chewing. D) lysis.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
40) Cells acquire LDLs by
A) diffusion. B) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C) pinocytosis. D) phagocytosis.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
41) Kinetic energy differs from chemical energy in that
A) kinetic energy is stored energy that has the potential to do work, and chemical energy is the energy of
movement.
B) kinetic energy can be converted into various forms of energy, whereas chemical energy can only be
converted into heat.
C) kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object, whereas chemical energy is the potential energy of
molecules.
D) chemical energy is a particular form of kinetic energy.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
7
42) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are
changing
A) chemical energy into kinetic energy. B) chemical energy into potential energy.
C) kinetic energy into potential energy. D) kinetic energy into thermal energy.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.10
Skill: Application/Analysis
43) In the reaction A → B + C + heat,
A) there is a net input of energy.
B) the potential energy of the products is greater than that of the reactant.
C) the potential energy of the products is less than that of the reactant.
D) entropy has decreased.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.10
Skill: Application/Analysis
44) Which of the following statements regarding thermodynamics is false?
A) Thermodynamics is the study of energy transformations that occur in a collection of matter.
B) A single cell or the planet Earth could be a thermodynamic system.
C) An open system exchanges both energy and matter with its surroundings.
D) An automobile engine is a closed system because it does not exchange energy and matter with its
surroundings.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
45) According to ________, energy cannot be created or destroyed.
A) Aristotleʹs first principle B) the first law of thermodynamics
C) the second law of thermodynamics D) the third law of thermodynamics
Answer: B
Topic: 5.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
46) A steer must eat at least 100 pounds of grain to gain less than 10 pounds of muscle tissue. This illustrates
A) the first law of thermodynamics.
B) the second law of thermodynamics.
C) that some energy is destroyed in every energy conversion.
D) that energy transformations are typically 100% efficient.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.10
Skill: Application/Analysis
47) Which of the following energy transfers is impossible in living systems?
A) light energy to chemical energy B) chemical energy to kinetic energy
C) light energy to potential energy D) heat to light energy
Answer: D
Topic: 5.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8
48) Living systems
A) violate the first law of thermodynamics.
B) violate the second law of thermodynamics.
C) decrease their entropy while increasing the entropy of the universe.
D) are examples of a closed system.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
49) Which of the following processes is endergonic?
A) the burning of wood
B) the synthesis of glucose from carbon dioxide and water
C) the breakdown of glucose
D) cellular respiration
Answer: B
Topic: 5.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
50) What is the basic difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions?
A) Exergonic reactions involve ionic bonds; endergonic reactions involve covalent bonds.
B) Exergonic reactions involve the breaking of bonds; endergonic reactions involve the formation of bonds.
C) Exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it.
D) In exergonic reactions, the reactants have less chemical energy than the products; in endergonic reactions,
the opposite is true.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.11
Skill: Application/Analysis
51) Which of the following examples is classified as a metabolic pathway?
A) protein synthesis B) osmosis C) cell lysis D) passive diffusion
Answer: A
Topic: 5.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
52) When a cell uses chemical energy to perform work, it uses the energy released from a(n) ________ reaction to
drive a(n) ________ reaction.
A) exergonic . . . endergonic B) endergonic . . . exergonic
C) exergonic . . . spontaneous D) spontaneous . . . exergonic
Answer: A
Topic: 5.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
53) Which of the following statements about the ATP molecule is true?
A) It contains five phosphate groups.
B) Extremely stable bonds link the second and third phosphate groups.
C) It contains the sugar glucose.
D) It releases energy when one phosphate group leaves ATP.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
9
54) The transfer of a phosphate group to a molecule or compound is called
A) carboxylation. B) ionization. C) phosphorylation. D) hydrogenation.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
55) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely
A) result in cell death. B) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy.
C) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy. D) have no effect on the cell.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
56) ATP can be used as the cellʹs energy exchange mechanism because
A) endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the formation of ATP from ADP.
B) ATP is the most energy-rich small molecule in the cell.
C) endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the hydrolysis of high-energy phosphate
bonds in ATP.
D) ATP is a disposable form of chemical energy, used once and then discarded by the cell.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
57) An energy barrier
A) is the amount of energy that must be produced by the reactants to end a chemical reaction.
B) is higher than the activation energy of a reaction.
C) prevents the spontaneous breakdown of molecules in the cell.
D) can only be overcome with the use of enzymes.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
58) The energy required to initiate an exergonic reaction is called
A) exergonic energy. B) endergonic energy.
C) input energy. D) the activation energy.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
59) Most of a cellʹs enzymes are
A) lipids. B) proteins. C) amino acids. D) carbohydrates.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
60) When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction,
A) it lowers the activation energy of the reaction. B) it raises the activation energy of the reaction.
C) it acts as a reactant. D) it is used once and discarded.
Answer: A
Topic: 5.13, 5.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
10
61) Substrates bind to an enzymeʹs ________ site.
A) allosteric B) inhibitory C) phosphate D) active
Answer: D
Topic: 5.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
62) The active site of an enzyme is
A) the region of a substrate that is changed by an enzyme.
B) the highly changeable portion of an enzyme that adapts to fit the substrates of various reactions.
C) the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate.
D) the region of a product that detaches from the enzyme.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
63) Which of the following statements regarding enzyme function is false?
A) An enzymeʹs function depends on its three-dimensional shape.
B) Enzymes are very specific for certain substrates.
C) Enzymes are used up when they catalyze a chemical reaction, so must be synthesized for each new
chemical reaction.
D) Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
64) Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true?
A) Enzymes are inorganic.
B) An enzymeʹs function is unaffected by changes in pH.
C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.
D) All enzymes depend on protein cofactors to function.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
65) A child is brought to the hospital with a fever of 107°F. Doctors immediately order an ice bath to lower the
childʹs temperature. Which of the following statements offers the most logical explanation for this action?
A) Elevated body temperature will increase reaction rates in the childʹs cells and overload the limited
number of enzymes found in the cell.
B) Elevated body temperatures may denature enzymes. This would interfere with the cellʹs abilities to
catalyze various reactions.
C) Elevated body temperatures will increase the energy of activation needed to start various chemical
reactions in the body. This will interfere with the ability of enzymes to catalyze vital chemical reactions.
D) Elevated body temperatures cause molecules to vibrate more quickly and prevent enzymes from easily
attaching to reactants. This would slow vital body reactions.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.14
Skill: Application/Analysis
11
66) Heating inactivates enzymes by
A) breaking the covalent bonds that hold the molecule together.
B) removing phosphate groups from the enzyme.
C) causing enzyme molecules to stick together.
D) changing the enzymeʹs three-dimensional shape.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
67) Which of the following substances could be a cofactor?
A) a protein B) a polypeptide C) a zinc atom D) a ribosome
Answer: C
Topic: 5.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
68) Which of the following is a coenzyme?
A) zinc B) vitamin B6 C) iron D) iodine
Answer: B
Topic: 5.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
69) How does inhibition of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by a competitive inhibitor differ from inhibition by a
noncompetitive inhibitor?
A) Competitive inhibitors interfere with the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors interfere with the reactants.
B) Competitive inhibitors bind to the enzyme reversibly; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to it irreversibly.
C) Competitive inhibitors change the enzymeʹs tertiary structure; noncompetitive inhibitors cause
polypeptide subunits to dissociate.
D) Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a different
site.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.15
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
70) Bacterial production of the enzymes needed for the synthesis of the amino acid tryptophan declines with
increasing levels of tryptophan and increases as tryptophan levels decline. This is an example of
A) competitive inhibition. B) noncompetitive inhibition.
C) feedback inhibition. D) irreversible inhibition.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.15
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
71) Inhibition of an enzyme is irreversible when
A) a competitive inhibitor is involved.
B) a noncompetitive inhibitor is involved.
C) the shape of the enzyme is changed.
D) covalent bonds form between inhibitor and enzyme.
Answer: D
Topic: 5.16
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
12
72) Which figure depicts an animal cell placed in a solution hypotonic to the cell?
A) cell A B) cell B C) cell C D) cell D
Answer: A
Topic: 5.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
73) Which part of the ATP molecule breaks free of the rest when an ATP molecule is used for energy?
A) part A B) part B C) part C D) part D
Answer: D
Topic: 5.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
13
After reading the paragraph, answer the question(s) that follow.
Americans spend up to $100 billion annually for bottled water (41 billion gallons). The only beverages with higher sales are
carbonated soft drinks. Recent news stories have highlighted the fact that most bottled water comes from municipal water
supplies (the same source as your tap water), although it may undergo an extra purification step called reverse osmosis.
Imagine two tanks that are separated by a membrane thatʹs permeable to water, but not to the dissolved minerals present in
the water. Tank A contains tap water and Tank B contains the purified water. Under normal conditions, the purified water
would cross the membrane to dilute the more concentrated tap water solution. In the reverse osmosis process, pressure is
applied to the tap water tank to force the water molecules across the membrane into the pure water tank.
74) After the reverse osmosis system has been operating for 30 minutes, the solution in Tank A would
A) be hypotonic to Tank B. B) be isotonic to Tank B.
C) be hypertonic to Tank B. D) move by passive transport to Tank B.
Answer: C
Topic: 5.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
75) If you shut the system off and pressure was no longer applied to Tank A, you would expect
A) the water to flow from Tank A to Tank B.
B) the water to reverse flow from Tank B to Tank A.
C) the water to flow in equal amounts in both directions.
D) the water to flow against the concentration gradient.
Answer: B
Topic: 5.4
Skill: Application/Analysis
14Chapter 07. Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) What is the name given to organisms that can make their own food and thus sustain themselves without
consuming organic molecules derived from other organisms?
A) chemotrophs B) heterotrophs C) synthesizers D) autotrophs
Answer: D
Topic: 7.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) Photoautotrophs
A) make sugar by using organic raw materials.
B) produce organic molecules from inorganic molecules.
C) eat other organisms that use light energy to make food molecules.
D) include only the green plants.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3) Which of the following is an example of a photoautotroph?
A) cyanobacteria in freshwater and marine ecosystems
B) grizzly bears in Alaska
C) bacteria in our mouth
D) mushrooms growing on the side of a dead tree
Answer: A
Topic: 7.1
Skill: Application/Analysis
4) Autotrophs that utilize light as their energy source are
A) chemosynthetic autotrophs. B) photoautotrophs.
C) fungi. D) heterotrophs.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5) What is the likely origin of chloroplasts?
A) mitochondria that had a mutation for photosynthesis
B) photosynthetic prokaryotes that lived inside eukaryotic cells
C) prokaryotes with photosynthetic mitochondria
D) eukaryotes that engulfed photosynthetic fungi
Answer: B
Topic: 7.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6) In most green plants, chloroplasts are
A) concentrated in a zone of leaf tissue called the mesophyll.
B) concentrated in a portion of the leaf called the stroma.
C) evenly distributed throughout the leaf tissue.
D) evenly distributed throughout the entire plant.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
1
7) ________ cells in leaves are specialized for photosynthesis.
A) Companion B) Mesophyll C) Sclerenchyma D) Tracheid
Answer: B
Topic: 7.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8) CO2 enters and O2 escapes from a leaf via
A) stomata. B) thylakoids. C) grana. D) stroma.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
9) In the chloroplast, sugars are made in a compartment that is filled with a thick fluid called the
A) stomata. B) thylakoid. C) matrix. D) stroma.
Answer: D
Topic: 7.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
10) Chloroplasts contain disklike membranous sacs arranged in stacks called
A) cristae. B) thylakoids. C) grana. D) vacuoles.
Answer: C
Topic: 7.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
11) Where is chlorophyll found in a plant cell?
A) stroma B) thylakoid membranes
C) cytoplasm D) cristae
Answer: B
Topic: 7.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
12) The oxygen released into the air as a product of photosynthesis comes from
A) water. B) glucose. C) carbon dioxide. D) chlorophyll.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
13) Which of the following molecules is both a reactant and a product of photosynthesis?
A) H2O B) glucose C) O2 D) chlorophyll
Answer: A
Topic: 7.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
14) If you expose a photosynthesizing plant to water that contains both radioactive H and radioactive O, in which
of the products of photosynthesis will the radioactive H and O show up?
A) H and O both in glucose B) H in glucose; O in water
C) H in water; O in glucose D) H in glucose and water; O in O2
Answer: D
Topic: 7.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
2
15) A redox reaction involves the transfer of
A) oxygen. B) water. C) an electron. D) carbon dioxide.
Answer: C
Topic: 7.4
Skill: Application/Analysis
16) Which of the following statements concerning the role of redox reactions in photosynthesis and cellular
respiration is true?
A) Photosynthesis involves only reductions, while respiration involves only oxidations.
B) Photosynthesis involves only oxidations, while respiration involves only reductions.
C) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is oxidized to form sugar, while in respiration, sugar is reduced to form
carbon dioxide.
D) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is reduced to form sugar, while in respiration, sugar is oxidized to form
carbon dioxide.
Answer: D
Topic: 7.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
17) What is the source of energy that provides the boost for electrons during photosynthesis?
A) light B) electromagnetism C) cellular respiration D) ATP
Answer: A
Topic: 7.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
18) Which of the following statements regarding photosynthesis is false?
A) ATP is not produced during photosynthesis, but only during cellular respiration.
B) Photosynthesis is ultimately powered by light energy and respiration by the chemical energy of fuel
molecules.
C) Photosynthesis consumes CO2; respiration consumes O2.
D) Photosynthesis produces O2; respiration produces CO2.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.4, 7.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
19) The light reactions occur in the ________, while the Calvin cycle occurs in the ________.
A) stroma . . . thylakoid membranes B) stroma . . . nucleus
C) cytoplasm . . . thylakoid membrane D) thylakoid membranes . . . stroma
Answer: D
Topic: 7.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
20) Which of the following are produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A) glucose, ADP, NADP+ B) glucose, ADP, NADP+, CO2
C) ADP, NADP+, O2 D) ATP, NADPH, O2
Answer: D
Topic: 7.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3
21) Which of the following is part of the light reaction?
A) carbon fixation B) reduction of carbon
C) regeneration of NADP+ D) formation of waste products in the form of O2
Answer: D
Topic: 7.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
22) Which of the following are produced during the Calvin cycle?
A) glucose, ADP, NADP+ B) glucose, ADP, NADP+, CO2
C) ATP, NADPH, O2 D) ATP, NADPH, CO2
Answer: A
Topic: 7.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
23) Carbon fixation
A) occurs when carbon atoms from CO2 are incorporated into an organic molecule.
B) supplies the cell with ATP.
C) occurs during the light reactions.
D) provides the cell with a supply of NADPH molecules.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
24) Sunlight is a type of ________ energy.
A) electromagnetic B) potential C) kinetic D) nuclear
Answer: A
Topic: 7.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
25) The full range of electromagnetic energy is called the ________ spectrum.
A) visible B) electromagnetic C) energy D) ultraviolet
Answer: B
Topic: 7.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
26) Why are most plants green?
A) Chlorophyll a reflects green light.
B) Chlorophyll a absorbs green light.
C) Chlorophyll b primarily uses green light as the source of energy for photosynthesis.
D) Green helps plants blend into their environment as a sort of camouflage.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
27) Which of the following colors contributes the least energy to photosynthesis?
A) blue B) red C) orange D) green
Answer: D
Topic: 7.6
Skill: Application/Analysis
4
28) Of the following wavelengths of light, which would you expect to be reflected or transmitted by chlorophyll a?
A) blue B) green C) yellow D) red
Answer: B
Topic: 7.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
29) Chlorophyll b
A) is best at absorbing the energy of green light.
B) is best at absorbing the energy of blue-violet and red light, just like chlorophyll a.
C) passes absorbed energy to chlorophyll a.
D) catalyze the incorporation of carbon atoms into RuBP.
Answer: C
Topic: 7.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
30) Plant cells are protected from the harmful effects of reactive oxidative molecules by
A) mitochondria. B) chlorophyll. C) carotenoids. D) ATP.
Answer: C
Topic: 7.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
31) A packet of light energy is called a
A) quantum. B) pigment. C) photon. D) phaser.
Answer: C
Topic: 7.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
32) Which of the following statements about the absorption of photons by pigment molecules is true?
A) It takes several minutes for the pigment electrons to become excited.
B) Photons raise electrons in pigments to the ground state.
C) Excitation of the electrons is a very stable state.
D) The release of energy by the excited electron can be as heat, light, or fluorescence.
Answer: D
Topic: 7.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
33) Which of the following photosynthetic pigments can be found at the photosystem reaction center?
A) chlorophyll b B) chlorophyll a C) a carotenoid D) phycocyanin
Answer: B
Topic: 7.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
34) Which of the following is a normal process of photosynthesis that could not occur if all reaction centers were
inactivated by a toxin?
A) donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll a to a primary electron acceptor
B) donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll b to a primary electron acceptor
C) absorption of photons by chlorophyll b
D) absorption of photons by carotenoids
Answer: A
Topic: 7.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5
35) How do the reaction centers of photosystem I and II differ?
A) Chlorophyll a is found in photosystem I and chlorophyll b in photosystem II.
B) Each preferentially absorbs slightly different wavelengths of light.
C) Photosystem I functions first in the sequence of steps that make up the light reactions.
D) Photosystem II does not transfer electrons from photons.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
36) Clusters of light-gathering pigments in a photosystem
A) pass energy to the reaction center. B) are found in the roots of plants.
C) absorb electrons. D) break down H2O.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.7
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
37) In a photosystem, clusters of chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, and carotenoid pigments function most like
A) an antenna. B) a propeller on a motorboat.
C) a windmill. D) a spring.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.7
Skill: Application/Analysis
38) The energy that excites P680 and P700 is supplied by
A) electrons passing down the electron transport chain.
B) ATP.
C) photons.
D) NADPH.
Answer: C
Topic: 7.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
39) The electron transport chains of the light reactions
A) are located in the stroma.
B) shuttle electrons along in a series of redox reactions.
C) provide energy for the citric acid cycle.
D) are found on the plasma membrane of mesophyll cells.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
40) As a result of the cascade of electrons down the electron transport chains of the light reactions,
A) NADPH is reduced to NADP+. B) NADPH is oxidized to NADP+.
C) NADP+ is reduced to NADPH. D) NADP+ is oxidized to NADPH.
Answer: C
Topic: 7.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6
41) The electrons lost from the reaction center of photosystem I are replaced by electrons from
A) CO2. B) H2O.
C) the top of the electron transport chain. D) the bottom of the electron transport chain.
Answer: D
Topic: 7.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
42) The electrons lost from the reaction center of photosystem II are replaced by electrons from
A) CO2. B) ATP. C) H2O. D) photosystem I.
Answer: C
Topic: 7.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
43) Photosystem II
A) has P700 at its reaction center. B) passes electrons to photosystem I.
C) does not have a reaction center. D) releases CO2 as a by-product.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.8
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
44) Photophosphorylation during photosynthesis differs from oxidative phosphorylation during cellular
respiration in that
A) it involves an electron transport chain.
B) energy is stored in the form of a proton concentration difference.
C) regeneration of ATP is driven by a flow of protons through an ATP synthase.
D) the final electron acceptor is NADP+ and not oxygen.
Answer: D
Topic: 7.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
45) In photophosphorylation, energy from electron flow is used to transport ________ from the ________ to the
thylakoid compartment, generating a concentration gradient of ________.
A) electrons . . . grana . . . H+ B) H+ . . . grana . . . electrons
C) H+ . . . stroma . . . H+ D) H+ . . . stroma . . . ATP
Answer: C
Topic: 7.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
46) The chloroplast ATP synthase
A) is a nucleic acid complex.
B) couples the flow of H+ to the phosphorylation of ADP.
C) is found in the stroma.
D) helps transport H+ against the concentration gradient.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
7
47) In photosynthesis, the chemiosmotic production of ATP
A) requires oxygen.
B) is analogous to the production of ATP in mitochondria.
C) is done by the Calvin cycle.
D) is a result of the oxidation of glucose.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
48) Mitochondria transfer ________ energy from ________ to ATP; chloroplasts transform ________ energy into the
chemical energy of ATP.
A) chemical . . . food . . . light B) food . . . light . . . chemical
C) light . . . food . . . kinetic D) food . . . light . . . nuclear
Answer: A
Topic: 7.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
49) Photosynthetic organisms derive their carbon from
A) carbon monoxide. B) carbon dioxide. C) hydrocarbons. D) methane.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
50) ATP and NADPH
A) power sugar synthesis during the Calvin cycle.
B) are products of the Calvin cycle.
C) provide energy to Photosystem I and Photosystem II.
D) are used in the electron transport chain to pump H+ into the thylakoid space.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
51) To produce one glucose, the Calvin cycle needs to be run through ________ time(s).
A) two B) four C) six D) eight
Answer: C
Topic: 7.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
52) The Calvin cycle constructs ________, an energy-rich molecule that a plant cell can then use to make glucose or
other organic molecules.
A) G3P B) ATP C) NADH D) carbon dioxide
Answer: A
Topic: 7.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
53) The addition of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide to RuBP results in
A) cellular respiration. B) photorespiration.
C) photophosphorylation. D) aerobic respiration.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8
54) Photorespiration
A) may be an evolutionary relic from when atmospheric O2 levels were low.
B) is of benefit to the plant since it breaks down rubisco.
C) is attributable to high CO2 levels.
D) produces glucose.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
55) What is the main adaptive advantage of the C4 and CAM photosynthesis strategies over the C3 strategy?
A) They help the plant conserve water and synthesize glucose efficiently under hot, dry conditions.
B) They allow the plant to fix carbon more efficiently under conditions of low atmospheric CO2.
C) They allow the plant to fix carbon more efficiently in dim or cool conditions.
D) They make it possible for the plant to use the Calvin cycle at night.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
56) The ultimate source of all the food we eat and the oxygen we breathe is
A) cellular respiration. B) photosynthesis.
C) glycolysis. D) anaerobic metabolism.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
57) Plants use sugars as
A) a fuel for photosynthesis.
B) a starting material for the Calvin cycle.
C) a source of electrons for chemiosmosis.
D) a fuel for cellular respiration and a starting material for making other organic molecules.
Answer: D
Topic: 7.12
Skill: Application/Analysis
58) Plant cells
A) lack mitochondria and chloroplasts.
B) lack mitochondria but have chloroplasts.
C) have mitochondria but do not have chloroplasts.
D) have mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Answer: D
Topic: 7.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
9
59) Global warming due to the greenhouse effect may be
A) moderated by photosynthesis, which removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
B) made worse by photosynthesis, which adds carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
C) reduced by the burning of fossil fuels, which removes oxygen from the atmosphere.
D) of little concern, since it is part of the normal cycle for the planet.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
60) Which of the following statements about the greenhouse effect is true?
A) The greenhouse effect is reduced by deforestation.
B) The greenhouse effect is exacerbated by the use of fossil fuels.
C) The greenhouse effect will decrease the average temperature of the planet.
D) The greenhouse effect has no direct relationship with the Industrial Revolution of the 1800s.
Answer: B
Topic: 7.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
61) It has been argued that cutting old-growth forests and replacing them with plantations of young trees would
help to alleviate the threat of global greenhouse warming. What important fact does this argument ignore?
A) Forests play too minor a role in global CO2 dynamics, which are affected far more by marine algae.
B) Young trees fix carbon at a lower rate per unit mass than old trees.
C) Most of the biomass of the cut trees would be added to the atmosphere as CO2 within a few years.
D) Most of the young trees would die within a few years.
Answer: C
Topic: 7.13
Skill: Application/Analysis
62) Ozone
A) formation is promoted by CFCs. B) is broken down by carbon dioxide.
C) is a source of oxygen for cellular respiration. D) protects Earth from UV radiation.
Answer: D
Topic: 7.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
63) Ozone consists of ________ oxygen atom(s).
A) one B) two C) three D) four
Answer: C
Topic: 7.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
64) Which of the following has been a major source of ozone destruction over the past 50 years?
A) chlorofluorocarbons B) ethylene glycol
C) carbon dioxide D) chemiosmosis
Answer: A
Topic: 7.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
10
65) In this drawing of a chloroplast, which structure represents the thylakoid membrane?
A) structure A B) structure B C) structure C D) structure D
Answer: C
Topic: 7.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
11
66) According to this figure, how do H+ ions make their way from the stroma to the thylakoid interior?
A) through photosystem I
B) through an electron transport chain molecule
C) through the ATP synthase
D) directly through the phospholipids of the thylakoid membrane
Answer: B
Topic: 7.9
Skill: Application/Analysis
12
After reading the paragraph, answer the question(s) that follow.
Youʹre conducting an experiment to determine the effect of different wavelengths of light on the absorption of carbon
dioxide as an indicator of the rate of photosynthesis in aquatic ecosystems. If the rate of photosynthesis increases, the
amount of carbon dioxide in the environment will decrease and vice versa. Youʹve added an indicator to each solution.
When the carbon dioxide concentration decreases, the color of the indicator solution also changes.
Small aquatic plants are placed into three containers of water mixed with carbon dioxide and indicator solution. Container A
is placed under normal sunlight, B under green light, and C under red light. The containers are observed for a 24 -hour
period.
67) Based on your knowledge of the process of photosynthesis, the plant in the container placed under red light
would probably
A) absorb no CO2.
B) absorb the same amount of CO2 as the plants under both the green light and normal sunlight.
C) absorb less CO2 than the plants under green light.
D) absorb more CO2 than the plants under the green light.
Answer: D
Topic: 7.6
Skill: Application/Analysis
68) Carbon dioxide absorption is an appropriate indicator of photosynthesis because
A) CO2 is needed to produce sugars in the Calvin cycle.
B) CO2 is needed to complete the light reactions.
C) plants produce oxygen gas by splitting CO2.
D) the energy in CO2 is used to produce ATP and NADPH.
Answer: A
Topic: 7.3-7.5, 7.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
13Chapter 09. Patterns of Inheritance
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following statements best represents the theory of pangenesis developed by Hippocrates?
A) Pregnancy is a spontaneous event, and the characteristics of the offspring are determined by the gods.
B) Particles called pangenes, which originate in each part of an organismʹs body, collect in the sperm or eggs
and are passed on to the next generation.
C) Offspring inherit the traits of either the mother or the father, but not both.
D) Heritable traits are influenced by the environment and the behaviors of the parents.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) Which of the following statements regarding hypotheses about inheritance is false?
A) The theory of pangenesis incorrectly suggests that reproductive cells receive particles from somatic cells.
B) Contrary to the theory of pangenesis, somatic cells do not influence eggs or sperm.
C) The blending hypothesis does not explain how traits that disappear in one generation can reappear in
later generations.
D) The blending hypothesis suggests that all of the traits of the offspring come from either the mother or the
father.
Answer: D
Topic: 9.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3) Mendel conducted his most memorable experiments on
A) peas. B) roses. C) guinea pigs. D) fruit flies.
Answer: A
Topic: 9.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4) Varieties of plants in which self-fertilization produces offspring that are identical to the parents are referred to
as
A) hybrids. B) the F2 generation.
C) monohybrid crosses. D) true-breeding.
Answer: D
Topic: 9.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5) Which of the following statements regarding cross-breeding and hybridization is false?
A) The offspring of two different varieties are called hybrids.
B) The parental plants of a cross are the P generation.
C) The hybrid offspring of a cross are the P1 generation.
D) The hybrid offspring of an F1 cross are the F2 generation.
Answer: C
Topic: 9.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
1
6) A monohybrid cross is
A) the second generation of a self-fertilized plant.
B) a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one trait in common.
C) a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties differ in only one character.
D) a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one prominent trait.
Answer: C
Topic: 9.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
7) Which of the following statements regarding genotypes and phenotypes is false?
A) The genetic makeup of an organism constitutes its genotype.
B) An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be homozygous for that trait.
C) Alleles are alternate forms of a gene.
D) The expressed physical traits of an organism are called its phenotype.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8) Research since Mendelʹs time has established that the law of the segregation of genes during gamete formation
A) applies to all forms of life. B) applies to all sexually reproducing organisms.
C) applies to all asexually reproducing organisms. D) is invalid.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
9) All the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed mendelien and an orange-eyed mendelien have black eyes.
This means that the allele for black eyes is ________ the allele for orange eyes.
A) codominant to B) recessive to
C) more aggressive than D) dominant to
Answer: D
Topic: 9.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
10) All the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed mendelien and an orange-eyed mendelien have black eyes.
What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between two orange-eyed mendeliens?
A) 3 black-eyed:1 orange-eyed B) 0 black-eyed:1 orange-eyed
C) 1 black-eyed:3 orange-eyed D) 1 black-eyed:0 orange-eyed
Answer: B
Topic: 9.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
11) The alleles of a gene are found at ________ chromosomes.
A) the same locus on non-homologous B) different loci on homologous
C) different loci on non-homologous D) the same locus on homologous
Answer: D
Topic: 9.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2
12) The phenotypic ratio resulting from a dihybrid cross showing independent assortment is expected to be
A) 1:2:1. B) 3:1. C) 9:1:1:3. D) 9:3:3:1.
Answer: D
Topic: 9.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
13) If A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the cross: AaBb × AaBb?
A) 16:0:0:0 B) 8:4:2:2 C) 1:1:1:1 D) 9:3:3:1
Answer: D
Topic: 9.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
14) Mendelʹs law of independent assortment states that
A) chromosomes sort independently of each other during mitosis and meiosis.
B) independent sorting of genes produces polyploid plants under some circumstances.
C) each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during gamete formation.
D) genes are sorted concurrently during gamete formation.
Answer: C
Topic: 9.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
15) Imagine that we mate two black Labrador dogs with normal vision and find that three of the puppies are like
the parents, but one puppy is chocolate with normal vision and another is black with PRA (progressive retinal
atrophy, a serious disease of vision). We can conclude that
A) both of the parents are homozygous for both traits.
B) the same alleles that control coat color can also cause PRA.
C) the alleles for color and vision segregate independently during gamete formation.
D) the alleles for color and vision segregate dependently during gamete formation.
Answer: C
Topic: 9.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
16) A testcross is
A) a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous recessive for the
trait of interest.
B) a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual heterozygous for the trait of
interest.
C) a mating between two individuals heterozygous for the trait of interest.
D) a mating between two individuals of unknown genotype.
Answer: A
Topic: 9.6
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
17) Using a six-sided die, what is the probability of rolling either a 5 or a 6?
A) 1/6 × 1/6 = 1/36 B) 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3 C) 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/3 D) 1/6
Answer: B
Topic: 9.7
Skill: Application/Analysis
3
18) Assuming that the probability of having a female child is 50% and the probability of having a male child is also
50%, what is the probability that a coupleʹs first-born child will be female and that their second-born child will
be male?
A) 20% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75%
Answer: B
Topic: 9.7
Skill: Application/Analysis
19) Dr. Smithʹs parents have normal hearing. However, Dr. Smith has an inherited form of deafness. Deafness is a
recessive trait that is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal allele at this locus, associated with
normal hearing, is D. Dr. Smithʹs parents could have which of the following genotypes?
A) DD and dd B) dd and dd C) Dd and Dd D) Dd and DD
Answer: C
Topic: 9.8
Skill: Application/Analysis
20) A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ________ to transmit it to
offspring.
A) heterozygous for the trait and able B) heterozygous for the trait and unable
C) homozygous for the trait and able D) homozygous for the trait and unable
Answer: A
Topic: 9.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
21) Most genetic disorders of humans are caused by
A) multiple alleles.
B) recessive alleles.
C) a mutation that occurs in the egg, sperm, or zygote.
D) dominant alleles.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
22) Most people afflicted with recessive disorders are born to parents who were
A) both affected by the disease.
B) not affected at all by the disease.
C) slightly affected by the disease, showing some but not all of the symptoms.
D) subjected to some environmental toxin that caused the disease in their children.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4
23) Which of the following statements best explains why dominant alleles that cause lethal disorders are less
common than recessive alleles that cause lethal disorders?
A) Lethal disorders caused by dominant alleles are usually more severe than lethal disorders caused by
recessive alleles.
B) Unlike lethal disorders caused by recessive alleles, lethal disorders caused by dominant alleles usually
cause the death of the embryo.
C) Most individuals carrying a lethal dominant allele have the disorder and die before they reproduce,
whereas individuals carrying a lethal recessive allele are more likely to be healthy and reproduce.
D) The presence of a lethal dominant allele causes sterility.
Answer: C
Topic: 9.9
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
24) Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for ________ and ________ of the fetus so that it can be
tested for abnormalities.
A) imaging . . . karyotyping B) sexing . . . imaging
C) karyotyping . . . biochemical testing D) direct observation . . . biochemical testing
Answer: C
Topic: 9.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
25) Which of the following statements regarding prenatal testing is false?
A) Results from chorionic villus sampling come faster than from amniocentesis.
B) Chorionic villus sampling is typically performed later in the pregnancy than amniocentesis.
C) Ultrasound imaging has no known risk.
D) Chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis are usually reserved for pregnancies with higher than usual
risks of complications.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
26) Which of the following statements regarding genetic testing is false?
A) Genetic testing before birth requires the collection of fetal cells.
B) Carrier testing helps determine if a person carries a potentially harmful disorder.
C) The screening of newborns can catch inherited disorders right after birth.
D) Most human genetic diseases are treatable if caught early.
Answer: D
Topic: 9.10
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
27) For most sexually reproducing organisms, Mendelʹs laws
A) cannot strictly account for the patterns of inheritance of many traits.
B) explain the reasons why certain genes are dominant.
C) help us understand the global geographic patterns of genetic disease.
D) clarify the phenomenon of incomplete dominance.
Answer: A
Topic: 9.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5
28) All the offspring of a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant have pink flowers. This
means that the allele for red flowers is ________ to the allele for white flowers.
A) dominant B) codominant
C) incompletely dominant D) recessive
Answer: C
Topic: 9.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
29) Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled by a single gene. You mate a finch homozygous for
orange (pigmented) beak with a finch homozygous for ivory (unpigmented) beak and get numerous offspring,
all of which have a pale, ivory-orange beak. This pattern of color expression is most likely to be an example of
A) incomplete dominance. B) codominance.
C) pleiotropy. D) polygenic inheritance.
Answer: A
Topic: 9.11
Skill: Application/Analysis
30) Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance in humans?
A) sickle-cell disease B) hypercholesterolemia
C) skin color D) ABO blood groups
Answer: B
Topic: 9.11
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
31) The expression of both alleles for a trait in a heterozygous individual illustrates
A) incomplete dominance. B) codominance.
C) pleiotropy. D) polygenic inheritance.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
32) A person with AB blood illustrates the principle of
A) incomplete dominance. B) codominance.
C) pleiotropy. D) polygenic inheritance.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.12
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
33) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Incomplete dominance supports the blending hypothesis.
B) The four blood types result from various combinations of the three different ABO alleles.
C) ABO blood groups can provide evidence of paternity.
D) The impact of a single gene on more than one character is called pleiotropy.
Answer: A
Topic: 9.11, 9.12, 9.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6
34) Which of the following statements regarding sickle-cell disease is false?
A) Persons who are heterozygous for sickle-cell disease are also resistant to malaria.
B) Sickle-cell disease causes white blood cells to be sickle-shaped.
C) All of the symptoms of sickle-cell disease result from the actions of just one allele.
D) About one in ten African-Americans is a carrier of sickle-cell disease.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
35) Sickle-cell disease is an example of
A) codominance and pleiotropy.
B) multiple alleles, pleiotropy, and blended inheritance.
C) codominance and multiple alleles.
D) multiple alleles and pleiotropy.
Answer: A
Topic: 9.13
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
36) Which of the following terms refers to a situation where a single phenotypic character is determined by the
additive effects of two or more genes?
A) incomplete dominance B) codominance
C) pleiotropy D) polygenic inheritance
Answer: D
Topic: 9.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
37) Which of the following is essentially the opposite of pleiotropy?
A) incomplete dominance B) codominance
C) multiple alleles D) polygenic inheritance
Answer: D
Topic: 9.14
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
38) The individual features of all organisms are the result of
A) genetics. B) the environment.
C) the environment and individual needs. D) genetics and the environment.
Answer: D
Topic: 9.15
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
39) The chromosome theory of inheritance states that
A) chromosomes that exhibit mutations are the source of genetic variation.
B) the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis and fertilization accounts for patterns of inheritance.
C) the behavior of chromosomes during mitosis accounts for inheritance patterns.
D) humans have 46 chromosomes.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.16
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
7
40) Genes located close together on the same chromosomes are referred to as ________ genes and generally
________.
A) linked . . . sort independently during meiosis
B) homologous . . . are inherited together
C) linked . . . do not sort independently during meiosis
D) codependent . . . do not sort independently during meiosis
Answer: C
Topic: 9.17
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
41) Linked genes generally
A) do not follow the laws of independent assortment.
B) show incomplete dominance.
C) reflect a pattern of codominance.
D) show pleiotropy.
Answer: A
Topic: 9.17
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
42) You conduct a dihybrid cross. A ________ ratio would make you suspect that the genes are linked.
A) 3:1 B) 1:1:1:1 C) 12:1:1:4 D) 9:3:3:1
Answer: C
Topic: 9.17
Skill: Application/Analysis
43) Crossing over ________ genes into assortments of ________ not found in the parents.
A) recombines unlinked . . . genes B) recombines linked . . . alleles
C) combines unlinked . . . alleles D) combines linked . . . genes
Answer: B
Topic: 9.18
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
44) The mechanism that ʺbreaksʺ the linkage between linked genes is
A) pleiotropy. B) codominance.
C) independent assortment. D) crossing over.
Answer: D
Topic: 9.18
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
45) Which of the following kinds of data could be used to map the relative position of three genes on a
chromosome?
A) the frequencies with which the genes exhibit incomplete dominance over each other
B) the frequencies of mutations in the genes
C) the frequencies with which the genes are inherited from the mother and from the father
D) the frequencies with which the corresponding traits occur together in offspring
Answer: D
Topic: 9.19
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8
46) What is the normal complement of sex chromosomes in a human male?
A) two Y chromosomes B) two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome
C) one X chromosome and one Y chromosome D) one Y chromosome
Answer: C
Topic: 9.20
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
47) The sex chromosome complement of a normal human female is
A) XO. B) XX. C) XY. D) YY.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.20
Skill: Application/Analysis
48) How many sex chromosomes are in a human gamete?
A) one B) two C) three D) four
Answer: A
Topic: 9.20
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
49) How is sex determined in most ants and bees?
A) by the X-Y system B) by the Z-W system
C) by the number of chromosomes D) by the size of the sex chromosome
Answer: C
Topic: 9.20
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
50) Given the sex determination system in bees, we can expect that
A) female bees will produce eggs by meiosis, while male bees will produce sperm by mitosis.
B) female bees will produce eggs by mitosis, while male bees will produce sperm by meiosis.
C) male and female bees will produce sperm and eggs by meiosis.
D) male and female bees will produce sperm and eggs by mitosis.
Answer: A
Topic: 9.20
Skill: Application/Analysis
51) What is meant by the statement that ʺmale bees are fatherlessʺ?
A) Male bees donʹt play a role in the rearing of bee young.
B) Male bees are produced by budding.
C) Male bees develop from unfertilized eggs.
D) The queen beeʹs mate dies before the male eggs hatch.
Answer: C
Topic: 9.20
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
52) Any gene located on a sex chromosome
A) is called a recessive gene. B) is called a sex-linked gene.
C) will exhibit pleiotropy. D) will exhibit codominance.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.21
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
9
53) Recessive X-linked traits are more likely to be expressed in a male fruit fly than a female fruit fly because
A) males are haploid.
B) the maleʹs phenotype results entirely from his single X-linked gene.
C) the male chromosome is more fragile than the female chromosome.
D) the male chromosome is more susceptible to mutations.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.21
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
54) A color-blind woman marries a man who is not color-blind. All of their sons, but none of their daughters, are
color-blind. Which of the following statements correctly explains these results?
A) The gene for color vision is incompletely dominant to the gene for sex determination.
B) The gene for color vision is codominant with the gene for sex determination.
C) The gene for color vision is found on the X chromosome.
D) The gene for color vision is found on the Y chromosome.
Answer: C
Topic: 9.22
Skill: Application/Analysis
55) Sex-linked conditions are more common in men than in women because
A) men acquire two copies of the defective gene during fertilization.
B) men need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed.
C) the sex chromosomes are more active in men than in women.
D) the genes associated with the sex-linked conditions are linked to the Y chromosome, which determines
maleness.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.22
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
56) According to scientists, about what percentage of men currently living in Central Asia may be descended from
the Mongolian ruler Genghis Khan?
A) 4% B) 8% C) 25% D) 40%
Answer: B
Topic: 9.23
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
57) Female inheritance patterns cannot be analyzed by simply studying the X chromosome because
A) the X chromosome is too large to analyze effectively
B) the X chromosome sometimes exchanges genetic information with the Y chromosome
C) the X chromosome is obtained from both father and mother.
D) one X chromosome is deactivated in females.
Answer: C
Topic: 9.23
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
10
58) Which plants in this figure must all be heterozygous?
A) purple-flowered plants in the P generation B) white-flowered plants in the P generation
C) purple-flowered plants in the F1 generation D) purple-flowered plants in the F2 generation
Answer: C
Topic: 9.3
Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation
11
59) According to this figure, heterozygotes for this form of hypercholesterolemia suffer from the disease because
they
A) produce an abnormally shaped LDL receptor. B) donʹt produce any LDL receptors.
C) produce too many LDL receptors. D) donʹt produce enough LDL receptors.
Answer: D
Topic: 9.11
Skill: Application/Analysis
After reading the paragraph, answer the question(s) that follow.
A woman has been trying to conceive for several years, unsuccessfully. At a fertility clinic, they discover that she has
blocked fallopian tubes. Using modern technologies, some of her eggs are removed, fertilized with her husbandʹs sperm,
and implanted into her uterus. The procedure is successful, but the couple discovers that their new son is color-blind and
has blood type O. The woman claims that the child canʹt be theirs since she has blood type A and her husband has type B.
Also, neither parent is color-blind, although one grandparent (the womanʹs father) is also color-blind.
60) As a genetic counselor, you would explain to the parents that
A) the eggs must have been accidentally switched, since the babyʹs blood type has to match one of his
parents.
B) each parent could have contributed one recessive allele, resulting in type O blood.
C) the eggs must have been accidentally switched, since a type A parent and a type B parent can have any
type children except O.
D) it is possible for the baby to have type O blood, since type O is inherited through a dominant allele.
Answer: B
Topic: 9.12
Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation
61) In regard to the babyʹs color blindness, a sex-linked recessive trait, you explain that
A) color blindness often appears randomly, even if neither parent is color-blind.
B) the babyʹs father must have a recessive allele for color blindness.
C) since color blindness is sex-linked, a son can inherit color blindness if his mother has the recessive color
blindness allele.
D) the eggs must have been accidentally switched, since males inherit sex-linked traits only from their
fathers.
Answer: C
Topic: 9.22
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
12