Clinical Psychology 8th Edition By Trull – Test Bank

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Clinical Psychology 8th Edition By Trull – Test Bank

Chapter 6

The Assessment Interview

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Clinical assessment
a. has historically been one of the least important activities of clinical psychologists.
b. is less reliable when conducted by a clinician who will not subsequently become the therapist.
c. is more reliable when conducted by a clinician who will not subsequently become the therapist.
d. is crucial for helping clinicians to solve problems and/or make decisions.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an accurate statement about psychological assessment?
a. Interest in psychological assessment is currently at an all-time low.
b. One current trend in assessment is the use of evidence-based assessment (EBA).
c. Psychological assessment occurs only at the beginning of treatment.
d. more than one of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Mr. and Mrs. Hargett set up an assessment appointment for their 15-year-old son, Tommy; when they bring him in, they say that they want to find out “what is wrong” with him.  According to the text, what should the psychologist do in this case?
a. The psychologist should conduct a comprehensive assessment of Tommy, examining him for every type of psychological problem.
b. The psychologist should tell the parents that their referral question is inappropriate, and that they should take their son elsewhere.
c. The therapist should talk with the parents to help them narrow down their questions about Tommy, and then conduct an assessment around these questions.
d. The psychologist should conduct a focused assessment of Tommy, examining him for the problems most commonly observed in 15-year-old males.

 

 

 

  1. A client who is experiencing moderate anxiety symptoms receives a list of four clinicians as possible sources of help. The assessment procedures that are employed by these four clinicians
a. may vary by theoretical orientation.
b. will be uniform.
c. will be uniform if all four clinicians have Ph.D. degrees in clinical psychology.
d. will involve the same standardized tests, even if interview styles vary.

 

 

 

MSC:  WWW

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Interviews conducted by a computer, as opposed to those conducted by a clinician,
a. were labeled as unethical in the most recent APA code of ethics.
b. are more comfortable for some clients.
c. have not yet been developed, but are in the planning stages.
d. none of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a goal of interviews conducted by clinical psychologists?
a. the establishment of rapport
b. emotional release for the client
c. personal satisfaction for the interviewer.
d. improvement in the client’s psychological symptoms.

 

 

 

 

  1. Interviews should generally be conducted in an environment in which the client
a. can be assured of privacy and protection from interruptions.
b. can gain insight regarding the psychologist’s personality as reflected in the office decor.
c. is allowed to eat or drink.
d. all of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. According to APA’s ethical code, video recording interviews
a. is unethical.
b. is ethical only if the client consents to it.
c. is ethical only if a copy of the recording is provided to the client.
d. is ethical with adult clients, but not with child clients.

 

 

MSC:              WWW

 

  1. Which of the following is an accurate statement about taking verbatim notes during interviews or therapy sessions?
a. Taking verbatim notes is one of the best ways for a clinician to communicate that he or she is truly attending to the client.
b. Taking verbatim notes may keep the clinician from understanding what the client is feeling during the interview or session.
c. Taking verbatim notes has little impact, positive or negative, on an interview or therapy session.
d. In general, taking verbatim notes is probably more desirable than taking a moderate amount of notes.

 

 

 

 

  1. In presenting a therapy case to his colleagues for consultation, Dr. Jeffries remarks that he and the client have a good rapport.  Therefore we may be confident in thinking that
a. Dr. Jeffries likes his client.
b. Dr. Jeffries’s client likes him.
c. both of the above
d. neither of the above

 

 

 

  1. In order to establish rapport, an interviewer should
a. use reflective statements as early as possible in the interview.
b. communicate the client’s diagnosis to him/her at the end of the interview.
c. tell the client that he or she knows exactly what the client is feeling.
d. adopt an attitude of acceptance and respect for the client.

 

 

 

 

  1. In ALL BUT WHICH of the following situations would we expect it to be more challenging than usual for a clinician to establish a good rapport?
a. Dr. Burke is meeting with a teenager as part of a school-mandated assessment of aggression-proneness.
b. Dr. Bouchard is meeting with a man who is being evaluated in anticipation of a custody hearing.
c. Dr. Ballas is meeting with a couple for marital therapy.
d. It may be somewhat more challenging to build rapport in all of the above situations.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is an accurate statement about rapport?
a. Rapport is necessary and sufficient for a good clinical interview.
b. Rapport is something that can be developed through certain tried-and-true techniques.
c. both of the above
d. neither of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. __________ is acceptable in an interview once rapport has been established.
a. Confrontation
b. Probing
c. either of the above
d. neither of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an accurate statement?
a. “Small talk” (about the weather, etc.) at the beginning of an interview is a common novice mistake that decreases the likelihood that the client will return for a second session.
b. The interviewer should at least occasionally use professional jargon during the interview in order to communicate his/her expertise to the client.
c. The interviewer should have the client clarify words or terms when their meanings are not clear to him/her.
d. all of the above

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. “Would you tell me about your relationship with your spouse?” is an example of a(n) __________ interview question.
a. confronting
b. direct
c. facilitative
d. open-ended

 

 

 

 

  1. During an interview, a client mentions that he occasionally experiences panic attacks. The interviewer asks, “Can you tell me a little more about the panic attacks you mentioned?” This is an example of a(n) __________ interview question.
a. facilitative
b. open-ended
c. confronting
d. clarifying

 

 

 

 

  1. During an interview, the interviewer says, “Wait, I’m confused. A few minutes ago you said your anxiety prevents you from going to parties, but didn’t you just mention being at a party at your friend’s house last weekend?” This is an example of a(n) __________ interview question.
a. open-ended
b. clarifying
c. confronting
d. facilitative

 

 

 

 

  1. During an interview, the interviewer says, “I’m not sure what you mean when you say your friend ‘really let him have it.’  Can you explain?”  This is an example of a(n) __________ interview question.
a. clarifying
b. facilitative
c. open-ended
d. confronting

 

 

 

 

  1. During an interview, Dr. Jimenez’s client becomes very quiet, and there is a long period of silence.   What should Dr. Jimenez do in this case?
a. She should say nothing until the client takes the initiative to speak again, even if it takes a very long time.
b. She should assume that the client is demonstrating resistance to the current topic.
c. She should say something just to break the awkward tension of the silence.
d. She should respond in such a way that encourages communication and understanding.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Dr. Hebb and his client are of the same sex and ethnicity.  Dr. Vernon and his client differ with regard to both sex and ethnicity.  What assumption below is a safe one to make?
a. Dr. Hebb and his client have several values in common.
b. Dr. Vernon and his client have few values in common.
c. both of the above
d. neither of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Dr. Seul will be doing a clinical assessment later this morning, and he wants things to go as well as possible.  ALL BUT WHICH of the following should help him to achieve that goal?
a. Preparing for the interview by reading all of the available records on the client.
b. Clarifying the referral question, if necessary.
c. Giving full play to the client’s emotions during the contact, even if it means going off topic.
d. Giving the client some feedback or closure at the end of the interview.

 

 

 

 

  1. According to the text, in what two basic respects do the various types of clinical interviews differ?
a. time and formality
b. formality and purpose
c. purpose and level of structure
d. level of structure and time

 

 

 

 

  1. Interviewers should never
a. directly answer personal questions, even if they are inconsequential or trivial.
b. use the interview session as a place to work out their own problems.
c. either of the above
d. neither of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Intake-admission interviews generally have the purpose of
a. determining why the patient has come to the clinic.
b. judging whether the agency will meet the needs and expectations of the patient.
c. eliciting a complete personal and social history.
d. more than one of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Intake-admission interviews
a. are conducted increasingly over the telephone
b. are conducted exclusively by clinical psychologists.
c. are intended to alleviate an immediate crisis.
d. are intended to assess for cognitive difficulties.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Case-history interviews of adult clients
a. focus primarily on their childhoods.
b. cover sexual development and medical history.
c. do not cover educational or work histories.
d. none of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. The type of interview that generally covers the broadest range of material is the __________ interview.
a. case-history
b. intake-admission
c. mental status examination
d. crisis

 

 

 

MSC:  WWW

 

  1. If a clinical psychologist is going to work with psychiatrists extensively, it is particularly important that he/she be familiar with __________ interviews, as they are one of the primary assessment tools used by psychiatrists.
a. mental status examination
b. intake-admission
c. crisis
d. case-history

 

 

 

 

  1. Mental status examination interviews cover
a. mood.
b. state of consciousness.
c. thought processes.
d. all of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. The purpose of __________ interviews includes the provision of immediate resources.
a. crisis
b. diagnostic
c. intake-admission
d. mental status examination

 

 

 

 

  1. A clinician who refers to an interview as a “clinical interview” is probably conducting a(n)
a. case-history interview.
b. structured interview.
c. mental status examination interview.
d. unstructured interview.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the term for the type of interview that consists of a standard set of questions and follow-up probes that are asked in a predetermined sequence?
a. intake-admission
b. structured
c. case-history
d. systematic

 

 

 

 

  1. Research on the reliability of diagnoses using unstructured interviews
a. has not yet been conducted.
b. has supported the use of unstructured interviews.
c. has not supported the use of unstructured interviews.
d. has focused primarily on unstructured interviews for the personality disorders.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The SCID-I
a. is a structured interview designed to provide immediate assistance to clients.
b. is a structured interview designed to yield a DSM-IV diagnosis.
c. is a structured interview for child clients.
d. more than one of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. According to the text, which of the following is true based on research on structured interviews?
a. Patients don’t seem to mind them, and they are used more frequently than unstructured interviews.
b. Patients do not like them, but they are used more frequently than unstructured interviews.
c. Patients don’t seem to mind them, but they are used less frequently than unstructured interviews.
d. Patients do not like them, and they are used less frequently than unstructured interviews.

 

 

 

 

  1. The __________ of an interview concerns how well the interview measures what it intends to measure.
a. validity
b. test-retest reliability
c. practical utility
d. interrater reliability

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The introduction of operational criteria as part of the definitions of most mental disorders was essential to the development of structured interviews. Such criteria first appeared in
a. DSM-I.
b. DSM-II.
c. DSM-III.
d. DSM-IV.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The most common type of reliability assessed and reported for structured diagnostic interviews is
a. interrater reliability.
b. test-retest reliability.
c. internal consistency reliability.
d. temporal reliability.

 

 

 

MSC:  WWW

 

  1. Dr. Lyons has developed an interview that assesses for a temporary psychiatric syndrome.  When he collects data and calculates the one-month test-retest reliability, the figure is low.  Which of the following is a possible explanation for this low figure?
a. People’s symptoms changed over the one-month time frame.
b. People were bored or fatigued on one or both administrations.
c. either of the above
d. neither of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Test-retest reliability is expected to be high when
a. the intervening time period between initial test and retest is at least several months.
b. the variable being assessed is a long-standing personality trait.
c. the variable being assessed is a temporary syndrome.
d. more than one of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Dr. Kanakis develops a brief structured interview to assess for the various eating disorders.  To evaluate the interview, Dr. Kanakis sets up a study where one graduate student interviews an introductory psychology student while another is observing the interview behind a one-way mirror.  Both graduate students score the interview.  They repeat this process for 25 students, and then their scores are compared to observe the extent to which they agree on the presence or absence of each diagnosis.   What, specifically, is being assessed in this study?
a. concurrent reliability
b. interrater reliability
c. concurrent validity
d. interrater validity

 

 

 

 

  1. In general, a kappa value __________ is considered to reflect excellent interrater agreement beyond chance.
a. greater than 0
b. between .75 and 1.00
c. greater than 100
d. between -.25 and .25

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. __________ validity is the degree to which the interview items adequately measure the various aspects of the variable or construct.
a. Content
b. Predictive
c. Concurrent
d. Construct

 

 

 

 

  1. A clinical psychologist develops a clinical interview to assess for the presence of alcohol abuse and dependence.  In evaluating the interview, the psychologist conducts a study that compares people’s current scores on this interview with their current scores on a well-established paper-and-pencil measure of alcohol abuse and dependence.  What kind of validity does this study appear to be assessing?
a. content validity
b. predictive validity
c. concurrent validity
d. discriminant validity

 

 

 

 

  1. An interview designed to measure depression includes questions about cognitive and emotional aspects, but no questions about somatic aspects (weight changes, sleep disturbance, etc.). This interview clearly has imperfect __________ validity.
a. predictive
b. content
c. discriminant
d. concurrent

 

 

 

 

  1. Predictive validity is a subtype of __________ validity.
a. criterion-related
b. concurrent
c. discriminant
d. content

 

 

 

 

  1. __________ validity is the extent to which an interview does not correlate with measures that are not theoretically related to the construct that the interview attempts to measure.
a. Concurrent
b. Content
c. Criterion-related
d. none of the above

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. An interview designed to measure panic disorder correlates positively with several measures of psychoticism. This suggests that the interview has __________ validity.
a. poor predictive
b. poor discriminant
c. strong discriminant
d. poor concurrent

 

 

 

MSC:  WWW

 

  1. Research on interviewing suggests that
a. the interviewer’s theoretical orientation does not influence the focus of the interview.
b. the match or mismatch between interviewer and interviewee in terms of age, gender, or race does not influence the course of the interview.
c. both of the above
d. neither of the above

 

 

REF:               The Art and Science of Interviewing

 

 

ESSAY

 

  • How is a clinical interview similar to and different from ordinary conversation? Psychological tests?

 

 

  • Briefly describe the ideal physical environment for a clinical interview.

 

 

 

  • What is the role of rapport in interviewing, and how can interviewers enhance rapport?

 

  • How should interviewers handle the issues of note-taking, audio recording, and video recording?

 

 

  • Briefly compare and contrast the following types of interview questions: open-ended, facilitative, clarifying, confronting, and direct.

 

 

  • Identify and briefly describe three ways that a clinician might enhance his or her own “gender awareness.”

 

  • Briefly compare and contrast intake-admission, case-history, mental status examination, crisis, and diagnostic interviews.

 

 

  • Discuss the different types of reliability that apply to interviews. How is each measured?

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain why kappa estimates of interrater reliability are smaller than the percentage of time that clinicians arrive at the same conclusion. What range of kappa value is considered to reflect excellent interrater agreement?

 

  1. Explain why it is so difficult to validate a structured diagnostic interview. What is required for us to feel confident about the validity of such interviews?

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 7

The Assessment of Intelligence

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The Mismeasure of Man is a critique of
a. early “mental ability” tests written by Alfred Binet.
b. Binet’s approach to intelligence testing written by David Wechsler.
c. the intelligence testing of females written by Gloria Steinem.
d. intelligence testing written by Stephen J. Gould.

 

 

 

 

  1. By the 1960s, many individuals and groups were criticizing intelligence tests for what reason?
a. They believed the tests were too easy, and were producing inflated scores.
b. They believed that measuring intelligence was not a worthwhile pursuit.
c. They believed that some test items were unfair and discriminated against certain groups.
d. They believe that the tests were measuring talent, rather than intelligence per se.

 

 

 

 

  1. In 1994, Hernstein and Murray published a controversial book called The Bell Curve.  Why was this book so controversial?
a. The authors questioned the effectiveness of Head Start programs for disadvantaged youth.
b. The authors recommended an overhaul of affirmative action policies.
c. The authors argued that intelligence is the most important predictor of many positive and negative outcomes.
d. all of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. With regard to psychological tests, reliability is most synonymous with
a. cultural sensitivity.
b. consistency.
c. accuracy.
d. validity.

 

 

 

MSC:  WWW

 

  1. The consistency of scores across two alternative versions of a test is labeled
a. test-retest reliability.
b. equivalent forms reliability.
c. split-half reliability.
d. interrater reliability.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the assessment of reliability?
a. Equivalent forms reliability is used to avoid the problems with test-retest reliability.
b. Equivalent forms reliability is used to avoid the problems with split-half reliability.
c. Test-retest reliability is used to avoid the problems with equivalent forms reliability.
d. Test-retest reliability is used to avoid the problems with split-half reliability.

 

 

 

 

  1. Dr. Vorst has created a new intelligence test, and the research conducted to date suggests that the items on the test are highly intercorrelated (i.e., they are measuring the same thing).  Another way to say this is that Dr. Vorst’s test has high __________ reliability.
a. internal consistency
b. item-quotient
c. interrater
d. test-retest

 

 

 

 

  1. The internal consistency of an intelligence test is measured by calculating
a. split-half reliability.
b. interrater reliability.
c. test-retest reliability.
d. discriminant reliability.

 

 

 

 

  1. In evaluating the reliability of an intelligence test, Dr. Xavier computes __________, which is the average of all possible __________ correlations for the test.
a. Pearson’s r; split-half
b. Cronbach’s alpha; significant
c. Cronbach’s alpha; split-half
d. Pearson’s r; significant

 

 

 

 

  1. In general, the __________ of an intelligence test is the extent to which it measures what it is supposed to measure.
a. utility
b. validity
c. reliability
d. significance

 

 

 

 

  1. A test that is supposed to measure overall intelligence includes only mathematical questions. This test clearly lacks __________ validity.
a. content
b. discriminant
c. predictive
d. concurrent

 

 

 

 

  1. If an intelligence test administered to 6th graders correlates strongly with the high school GPAs of these students, it can be concluded that the test has high __________ validity.
a. concurrent
b. predictive
c. construct
d. none of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. If an intelligence test administered to 4th graders correlates strongly with their 4th grade teachers’ estimates of their intelligence, it can be concluded that the test has high __________ validity.
a. concurrent
b. predictive
c. construct
d. none of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Dr. Richards has developed the Wide-Range Intelligence Test (WRIT).  All but which of the following would suggest that this instrument has good validity?
a. Scores on the WRIT during junior high are strongly correlated with high school rank years later.
b. Scores on the WRIT are not correlated with current measures of self-esteem.
c. Scores on the WRIT correlate negatively with current measures of extraversion.
d. The WRIT contains items that tap into all of the recognized domains of intelligence.

 

 

 

 

  1. __________ is a measure of what one has already learned.
a. Achievement
b. Ability
c. Adeptness
d. Aptitude

 

 

 

 

  1. The definition of intelligence that has been universally accepted
a. equates intelligence with the ability to adapt to the environment.
b. equates intelligence with the ability to learn, or “educability.”
c. equates intelligence with the ability to think abstractly or symbolically.
d. does not yet exist.

 

 

 

MSC:  WWW

 

  1. According to Spearman, “g”
a. does not exist.
b. stands for “good” overall intelligence, which roughly translates to scores that are above average.
c. represents general intelligence.
d. is one of the seven primary types of intelligence.

 

 

 

  1. Joel has high innate intellectual ability; his brother James is more “book smart,” excelling at school.  Using the terms from Cattell’s theory of intelligence, we would say that Joel has __________ and James has __________.
a. high crystallized intelligence; high fluid intelligence
b. high fluid intelligence; high crystallized intelligence
c. low crystallized intelligence; low fluid intelligence
d. low fluid intelligence; low crystallized intelligence

 

 

 

 

  1. Guilford argued that intelligence could be organized into three dimensions: __________.
a. operations, contents, and products
b. verbal, nonverbal, and performance
c. componential, experiential, and contextual
d. verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, and speed of processing

 

 

 

 

  1. In comparison to traditional approaches, recent approaches to the definition of intelligence have emphasized
a. strategies of processing.
b. speed of processing.
c. culture-dependent learning.
d. more than one of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Charlotte is attending a school that not only focuses on the three Rs (reading, writing, and arithmetic), but also instructs students with regard to music, language, spatial ability, bodily movement, self-knowledge, the understanding of others, and the understanding of nature.  It sounds as if this school is based on whose theory of intelligence?
a. Gardner
b. Guilford
c. Sternberg
d. Cattell

 

 

 

 

  1. The ratio IQ equals __________ times 100.
a. mental age
b. mental age minus chronological age
c. mental age divided by chronological age
d. chronological age divided by mental age

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The concept of deviation IQ scores
a. was introduced by Wechsler.
b. assumes that intelligence is normally distributed throughout the population.
c. was introduced to address the fact that ratio IQ declines with age, even when mental abilities remain stable.
d. all of the above

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The correlation between IQ scores and grades in school is approximately
a. .85.
b. .50.
c. 0.
d. -.25.

 

 

 

 

  1. IQ scores have the weakest correlation with which of the following?
a. occupational status as defined by income
b. success after gaining entry to a profession
c. grades in school
d. occupational status as defined by social prestige

 

 

 

MSC:  WWW

 

  1. Most studies comparing the overall intelligence of males and females conclude that
a. males are significantly more intelligent, overall.
b. females are significantly more intelligent, overall.
c. no significant differences exist in overall intelligence.
d. no significant differences exist in either overall or specific intellectual abilities.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Hispanic Americans tend to obtain significantly lower IQ scores than White Americans.
b. African Americans tend to obtain significantly lower IQ scores than White Americans.
c. After puberty, males tend to score significantly higher than women on tests of quantitative ability.
d. all of the above

 

 

 

 

 

  1. ALL BUT WHICH of the following circumstances would suggest a significant genetic influence in the appearance of a characteristic like intelligence?
a. A twin study finds higher concordance rates for MZ twin pairs than for DZ twin pairs.
b. A twin study finds similar concordance rates for MZ twins reared together and MZ twins reared apart.
c. A twin study finds similar concordance rates for DZ twins reared together and DZ twins reared apart.
d. All of the above suggest a significant genetic influence.

 

 

 

  1. Recent estimates of the percentage of IQ variance associated with genetic factors range from approximately __________%.
a. 10-30
b. 0-5
c. 50-80
d. 85-100

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate based on behavior genetics studies of intelligence?
a. In general, the more closely related two biological relatives, the more similar their levels of intelligence.
b. In general, the intelligence of biological relatives reared together is more similar than the intelligence of biological relatives reared apart.
c. In general, the intelligence of nonbiological relatives reared together is more similar than the intelligence of nonbiological relatives reared apart.
d. In general, identical twins reared together are perfectly concordant for intelligence.

 

 

 

 

  1. Petunia is 54; her daughter Daisy is 32; and her granddaughter Rose is 4.  For which of these individuals is intelligence most heavily influenced by environmental factors?
a. Petunia
b. Daisy
c. Rose
d. The intelligence of all three is equally influenced by environmental factors.

 

 

 

 

  1. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an accurate statement regarding the influence of genes and environment on intelligence?
a. When the environment is similar for everyone, observed differences in intelligence are more accountable to genetic factors.
b. Even strongly genetically determined traits, like intelligence, can be influenced by environmental factors.
c. To date, psychosocial interventions have been very effective in improving IQ scores.
d. The heritability of intelligence does not appear to be stable across the life span.

 

 

 

 

  1. IQ scores tend to be more stable over time for __________ than for __________.
a. adults; children
b. children; adults
c. males; females
d. females; males

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is meant by the term “the Flynn effect”?
a. the observation that the average IQ of successive generations is declining
b. the observation that the average IQ of successive generations is increasing
c. the observation that people’s verbal intelligence is increasing, while their spatial intelligence is decreasing
d. the observation that people’s spatial intelligence is increasing, while their verbal intelligence is decreasing

 

 

 

 

  1. The most recent edition of the Stanford-Binet intelligence test was published in the
a. 1970s.
b. 1980s.
c. 1990s.
d. 2000s.

 

 

 

  1. In the most recent edition of the Stanford-Binet intelligence test, the examinee’s starting point for the subtests is determined by
a. the examinee’s grade level.
b. the examinee’s average school performance, across subjects.
c. the examinee’s scores on subtests of verbal and nonverbal ability.
d. the examinee’s age.

 

 

 

 

  1. Reliability and validity data obtained for the Stanford-Binet 5th Edition suggest that it is generally
a. reliable and valid.
b. reliable but invalid.
c. valid but unreliable.
d. neither reliable nor valid.

 

 

 

MSC:  WWW

 

  1. Which of the following was developed first?
a. the original Stanford-Binet test
b. the original Wechsler test for adults
c. the original Wechsler test for children
d. the original Wechsler memory test

 

 

 

 

  1. On the WAIS-IV, the average IQ score is
a. 50.
b. 100.
c. 150.
d. none of the above

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the purpose of the reversal items on the WAIS-IV?
a. They assess examinees’ ability to “undo” various mathematical operations in their heads.
b. They assess the speed with which examinees are able to break physical objects down into their component parts.
c. both of the above
d. They reduce the number of items examinees must complete that are well below their ability levels.

 

 

 

 

  1. The Index Scores of the WAIS-IV, representing the major ability factors that underlie the subtest scores, are
a. Comprehension, Picture Completion, Letter-Number Sequencing, and Cancellation.
b. Verbal Comprehension, Perceptual Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed.
c. Verbal Processing Speed and Nonverbal Processing Speed.
d. Verbal and Performance.

 

 

 

 

  1. The WAIS-IV consists of __________ subtests.
a. 3
b. 8
c. 15
d. 24

 

 

 

 

  1. __________ is a WAIS-IV subtest that measures short-term memory and attention.
a. Digit Span
b. Symbol Search
c. Similarities
d. Comprehension

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding WAIS-IV subtests is FALSE?
a. The Vocabulary subtest contributes to the Verbal Comprehension Index Score.
b. The Coding subtest contributes to the Processing Speed Index Score
c. The Matrix Reasoning subtest contributes to the Perceptual Reasoning Index Score.
d. none of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. A person whose lowest WAIS-IV subtest scores are Picture Completion, Block Design, and Matrix Reasoning most clearly has a relative weakness in
a. long-term memory.
b. verbal comprehension.
c. perceptual reasoning.
d. mathematical ability.

 

 

 

 

  1. Erika is referred for IQ testing, and she performs exceptionally well on the Arithmetic, Digit Span, and Letter-Number Sequencing subtests.  Based on this information alone, we could assert that Erika has a relative strength with regard to
a. mathematical ability.
b. working memory.
c. processing speed.
d. none of the above

 

 

 

  1. Initial factor analyses on the WISC-IV suggest that the WISC-IV has a __________-factor structure.
a. two
b. four
c. eight
d. sixteen

 

 

 

 

  1. A clinical psychologist assessing the intelligence of an 8-year-old client with a Wechsler test should use the
a. WAIS-IV.
b. WMS-IV.
c. WISC-IV.
d. WPPSI-III.

 

 

 

MSC:  WWW

 

  1. In real clinical settings, intelligence tests are frequently used to
a. estimate overall intelligence.
b. predict academic success.
c. appraise learning/problem-solving style.
d. all of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Randall has been referred for IQ testing, and on the basis of his performance, the examiner determines that he has a full-scale IQ of 104.  Which of the following is a safe assertion to make on this basis alone?
a. Randall possesses roughly average verbal comprehension skills.
b. Randall possesses roughly average perceptual reasoning skills.
c. both of the above
d. neither of the above

 

 

DIF: Applied

 

 

ESSAY

 

  • How did changes in educational policy during the late 19th century influence the measurement of intelligence?

 

 

  • What types of reliability are most relevant to the evaluation of intelligence tests? Explain what is meant by each.

 

 

  • Identify at least two factors that may lead to poor test-retest reliability of intelligence tests. How might this reliability problem be remedied?

 

 

  • Briefly compare and contrast the theories of intelligence posited by Spearman and Cattell.

 

 

  • How do the theories of intelligence developed since the 1980s differ from those that preceded them?

 

 

  • How does age influence the stability of IQ scores? How does the heritability of IQ vary with age?

 

 

 

  • Based upon the body of IQ data available, between 30 and 80% of IQ variance is due to genetic factors. What does this mean about the influence of environmental factors on IQ?

 

  • Briefly compare and contrast the Stanford-Binet Fifth Edition and the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Fourth Edition.

.

 

 

  • Briefly describe the four index scores of the WAIS-IV. What general type of ability does each refer to?

 

  1. Identify at least three distinct types of stylistic appraisal that an intelligence test administrator might make from observing an examinee during testing.