Essentials Of Human Anatomy & Physiology -11th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb – Test Bank

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Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology -11th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

Essentials of Human Anatomy and Physiology, 11e, (Marieb)

Chapter 5   The Skeletal System

 

5.1   Multiple Choice Part I Questions

 

 

Using Figure 5.1, identify the following:

 

1) The proximal epiphysis is represented by ________.

  1. A) Label H
  2. B) Label C
  3. C) Label A
  4. D) Label B
  5. E) Label F

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 162

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

2) The area that causes the lengthwise growth of a long bone is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label F
  2. B) Label D
  3. C) Label A
  4. D) Label E
  5. E) Label C

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 161, 162

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

3) The area that serves as a storage area for fat in adults is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label H
  2. B) Label F
  3. C) Label A
  4. D) Label G
  5. E) Label B

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 161, 162

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

4) The diaphysis is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label D
  2. B) Label C
  3. C) Label G
  4. D) Label A
  5. E) Label H

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 161, 162

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

5) The periosteum, a connective tissue covering on the diaphysis, is represented by ________.

  1. A) Label C
  2. B) Label A
  3. C) Label G
  4. D) Label B
  5. E) Label F

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 161, 162

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

6) The area that contains glassy hyaline cartilage that provides a smooth slippery surface which decreases friction is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label D
  2. B) Label H
  3. C) Label E
  4. D) Label B
  5. E) Label A

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 161, 162

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

7) Blood cell formation is called ________.

  1. A) ossification
  2. B) hematopoiesis
  3. C) homeostasis
  4. D) metabolism

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 159

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

8) What bones protect the spinal cord?

  1. A) ribs
  2. B) sternum
  3. C) vertebrae
  4. D) coxal bones

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 159

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

9) Cube-shaped bones that contain mostly spongy bone are called ________ bones.

  1. A) flat
  2. B) long
  3. C) short
  4. D) irregular

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 160

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

10) Small canals that connect osteocytes in their lacunae to the central canal are known as ________.

  1. A) canaliculi
  2. B) perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
  3. C) central (Haversian) canals
  4. D) perforating (Sharpey’s) fibers

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

11) The process of bone formation is known as ________.

  1. A) hematopoiesis
  2. B) hemostasis
  3. C) metabolism
  4. D) ossification

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 165

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

12) Bone-destroying cells known as osteoclasts are activated by the hormone ________.

  1. A) calcitonin
  2. B) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  3. C) insulin
  4. D) growth hormone

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 166

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

13) The first step in bone healing involves the formation of a blood-filled swelling known as a(n) ________.

  1. A) epiphyseal line
  2. B) bony callus
  3. C) hematoma
  4. D) fibrocartilage callus

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 169

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

14) An incomplete bone break, known as a(n) ________ fracture, is commonly seen in children.

  1. A) spiral
  2. B) greenstick
  3. C) impacted
  4. D) comminuted

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 168

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

15) The skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage form the ________ skeleton.

  1. A) appendicular
  2. B) central
  3. C) axial
  4. D) main

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

16) The large hole located in the base of the occipital bone that allows the spinal cord and brain to connect is the ________.

  1. A) occipital condyle
  2. B) vertebral foramen
  3. C) intervertebral foramen
  4. D) foramen magnum

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 172

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

17) The temporal bones are joined with the parietal bones at the ________ sutures.

  1. A) coronal
  2. B) sagittal
  3. C) squamous
  4. D) lambdoid

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 171

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

18) The shin bone is called the ________.

  1. A) tibia
  2. B) fibula
  3. C) femur
  4. D) radius

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 189

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

19) The head of the humerus fits into the ________ of the scapula.

  1. A) acromion process
  2. B) glenoid cavity
  3. C) suprascapula notch
  4. D) coracoid process

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 182

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

20) Two or more bones meet at a location called a(n) ________.

  1. A) fracture
  2. B) hematoma
  3. C) articulation (joint)
  4. D) marrow cavity

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 190

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

21) Immovable joints are functionally classified as ________.

  1. A) diarthroses
  2. B) synarthroses
  3. C) amphiarthroses
  4. D) symphyses

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 190

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

Using Figure 5.2, identify the following:

 

22) The parietal bone is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label M
  2. B) Label O
  3. C) Label A
  4. D) Label H
  5. E) Label P

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 171

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

23) The fibula is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label Q
  2. B) Label X
  3. C) Label R
  4. D) Label T
  5. E) Label W

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 188, 189

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

24) The patella is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label E
  2. B) Label G
  3. C) Label I
  4. D) Label U
  5. E) Label A

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 189

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

25) The manubrium and xiphoid process are markings on the bone indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label O
  2. B) Label N
  3. C) Label A
  4. D) Label K
  5. E) Label B

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 181

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

26) The radius bone is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label T
  2. B) Label R
  3. C) Label F
  4. D) Label S
  5. E) Label Q

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 184, 185

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

27) The mandible is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label N
  2. B) Label W
  3. C) Label M
  4. D) Label C
  5. E) Label B

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 174, 175

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

28) The carpals are indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label N
  2. B) Label X
  3. C) Label J
  4. D) Label I
  5. E) Label T

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 185

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

29) The greater tubercle and trochlea are bone markings situated on the bone marked by ________.

  1. A) Label O
  2. B) Label I
  3. C) Label E
  4. D) Label Y
  5. E) Label A

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 184

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

30) The ilium, pubis, and ischium fuse to form the bone marked by ________.

  1. A) Label F
  2. B) Label G
  3. C) Label T
  4. D) Label H
  5. E) Label I

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 186

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

5.2   Multiple Choice Part II Questions

 

1) The most important minerals stored in bones are ________.

  1. A) calcium and iron
  2. B) sodium and phosphorus
  3. C) sodium and potassium
  4. D) calcium and phosphorus
  5. E) calcium and potassium

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 159

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

2)

 

The arrangement of bone tissue shown in Figure 5.3 consists of ________.

  1. A) osteons (Haversian systems)
  2. B) yellow marrow
  3. C) trabeculae
  4. D) neurons
  5. E) red marrow

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

3) Where does hematopoiesis occur?

  1. A) marrow cavity
  2. B) epiphyseal plate
  3. C) articular cartilage
  4. D) periosteum
  5. E) endosteum

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 159

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

4) The femur, tibia, humerus, and radius are all classified as ________.

  1. A) compact bones
  2. B) irregular bones
  3. C) flat bones
  4. D) long bones
  5. E) sesamoid bones

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 160

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

5) What type of tissue covers the epiphysis of bones and reduces friction in the joints?

  1. A) yellow marrow
  2. B) endosteum
  3. C) spongy bone
  4. D) periosteum
  5. E) articular cartilage

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

6) In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to ________.

  1. A) store adipose tissue
  2. B) form blood cells
  3. C) store calcium and phosphorus
  4. D) promote lengthwise growth in long bones
  5. E) decrease friction at joint surfaces

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

7) The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that ________.

  1. A) bone is dead
  2. B) bone length is no longer increasing
  3. C) bone diameter is increasing
  4. D) bone diameter is decreasing
  5. E) bone length is increasing

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

 

8) Each complex of central canal and matrix rings in compact bone is known as ________.

  1. A) a perforating (Volkmann’s) canal
  2. B) the epiphysis
  3. C) a canaliculus
  4. D) a central (Haversian) canal
  5. E) an osteon (Haversian system)

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

9) The bone cells that respond to parathyroid hormone (PTH) to destroy bone matrix and release calcium into the blood are called ________.

  1. A) osteocytes
  2. B) chondrocytes
  3. C) erythrocytes
  4. D) osteoclasts
  5. E) osteoblasts

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 166

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

10) Which of the following is only found associated with a child’s bone?

  1. A) diaphysis
  2. B) marrow cavity
  3. C) epiphyseal plate
  4. D) periosteum
  5. E) articular cartilage

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

11) Which of these bone markings is a projection that serves as a site for muscle or ligament attachment?

  1. A) meatus
  2. B) fossa
  3. C) foramen
  4. D) fissure
  5. E) tubercle

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 164

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

12) Which of the following bones is considered part of the axial skeleton?

  1. A) femur
  2. B) sternum
  3. C) radius
  4. D) metatarsals
  5. E) scapula

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

13) The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (Haversian system) contains ________.

  1. A) cartilage and lamellae
  2. B) osteoclasts and osteoblasts
  3. C) yellow marrow and perforating, or Sharpey’s, fibers
  4. D) blood vessels and nerve fibers
  5. E) red marrow

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

14) The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called ________.

  1. A) lacunae
  2. B) perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
  3. C) central (Haversian) canals
  4. D) trabeculae
  5. E) lamellae

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

15) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?

  1. A) elastic connective tissue
  2. B) dense fibrous connective tissue
  3. C) fibrocartilage
  4. D) hyaline cartilage
  5. E) loose fibrous connective tissue

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 165

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

16) What type of bone cell is primarily active when bone growth occurs?

  1. A) osteocyte
  2. B) erythrocyte
  3. C) chondrocyte
  4. D) osteoblast
  5. E) osteoclast

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 165

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

17) The factor(s) that determine where bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are) ________.

  1. A) sex hormones
  2. B) growth hormone
  3. C) stress of gravity and pull of muscles on the skeleton
  4. D) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  5. E) calcium level of the blood

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 166

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

18) There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages?

  1. bony callus formation 3. fibrocartilage callus formation
  2. bone remodeling 4. hematoma formation
  3. A) 4, 3, 2, 1
  4. B) 4, 3, 1, 2
  5. C) 1, 2, 3, 4
  6. D) 1, 3, 4, 2
  7. E) 1, 3, 2, 4

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 169

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

19) Bone growth that occurs due to weight lifting at age 40 is most likely ________.

  1. A) endochondrial growth
  2. B) none since bones do not grow after adolescence
  3. C) appositional growth
  4. D) occurring at the epiphyseal lines
  5. E) occurring at the epiphyseal plates

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 166

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

20) An open, or compound, fracture can be described as when ________.

  1. A) the bone is crushed
  2. B) the broken bone ends are forced into each other
  3. C) the broken bone is exposed to the outside
  4. D) the bone is broken into many fragments
  5. E) adjacent bones fracture simultaneously

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 169

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

21) A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a ________.

  1. A) compound fracture
  2. B) simple fracture
  3. C) comminuted fracture
  4. D) compression fracture
  5. E) greenstick fracture

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 168

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

22) The physician knew her patient was most likely a child before she walked into the examination room because the X-ray revealed a(n) ________.

  1. A) impacted fracture
  2. B) compression fracture
  3. C) comminuted fracture
  4. D) greenstick fracture
  5. E) open fracture

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 168

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

23) A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n) ________.

  1. A) impacted fracture
  2. B) compression fracture
  3. C) spiral fracture
  4. D) depressed fracture
  5. E) simple fracture

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 168

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

24) The axial skeleton contains ________.

  1. skull
  2. scapula
  3. true and false ribs
  4. vertebrae
  5. phalanges
  6. A) 1, 3, 4, 5
  7. B) 1, 3, 4
  8. C) 2, 5
  9. D) 2, 3, 4, 5
  10. E) 1, 2, 3, 5

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

25) The suture situated anteriorly between the parietal bones and occipital bone is the ________.

  1. A) squamous suture
  2. B) lambdoid suture
  3. C) sagittal suture
  4. D) coronal suture
  5. E) both the squamous suture and the sagittal suture

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 172

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

26) Identify the bones that do NOT house a paranasal sinus ________.

  1. A) frontal bones
  2. B) maxillary bones
  3. C) ethmoid bones
  4. D) sphenoid bones
  5. E) zygomatic bones

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 172-175

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

27) The fibrous connections between the bones of a fetal skull are ________.

  1. A) alveolar margins
  2. B) sinuses
  3. C) palates
  4. D) crista galli
  5. E) fontanels

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 176

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

28) Which of these bones is associated with the hand?

  1. A) talus
  2. B) calcaneus
  3. C) metatarsals
  4. D) tarsals
  5. E) metacarpals

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 185

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

29) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.

  1. A) is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone
  2. B) is an irregular bone
  3. C) belongs to both the axial and appendicular skeletons
  4. D) has no specific function
  5. E) largely consists of cartilage

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 175

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

30) What feature is uniquely associated with cervical vertebrae?

  1. A) spinous processes
  2. B) transverse processes
  3. C) vertebral foramina
  4. D) transverse foramina
  5. E) pedicles

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 180

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

31) How many true ribs do humans have?

  1. A) three
  2. B) five
  3. C) seven
  4. D) twelve
  5. E) fifteen

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 181, 182

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

32) The dens is a process projecting from the ________.

  1. A) sacrum
  2. B) coccyx
  3. C) intervertebral discs
  4. D) atlas
  5. E) axis

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 178

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

33) The atlas is the ________.

  1. A) last lumbar vertebra
  2. B) first thoracic vertebra
  3. C) part of the sacrum
  4. D) second cervical vertebra
  5. E) first cervical vertebra

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 178

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

34) Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior?

  1. A) floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs
  2. B) floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs
  3. C) true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
  4. D) true ribs, floating ribs, false ribs
  5. E) false ribs, floating ribs, true ribs

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 181, 182

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

35) The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the ________.

  1. A) ischium, ilium, coccyx
  2. B) pubis, ischium, ilium
  3. C) manubrium, body, xiphoid process
  4. D) jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint
  5. E) true ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 181

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

36) Which two bones constitute the forearm?

  1. A) radius and humerus
  2. B) humerus and scapula
  3. C) fibula and tibia
  4. D) ulna and radius
  5. E) femur and fibula

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 185

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

37) The tailbone is the ________.

  1. A) ischium
  2. B) sacrum
  3. C) pubis
  4. D) coccyx
  5. E) patella

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 180

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

38) You examine an articulated skeleton in the laboratory and determine the skeleton to be a female since ________.

  1. A) the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller than in a male
  2. B) the distance between the female ischial spines is greater than in a male
  3. C) the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less than in a male
  4. D) the female iliac bones are less flared than in a male
  5. E) the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker than in a male

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 186

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

 

39)

 

The type of joint shown in Figure 5.4 is ________.

  1. A) a suture
  2. B) a fibrous joint
  3. C) an amphiarthrotic joint
  4. D) a cartilaginous joint
  5. E) a synovial joint

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 194

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

40) A structure found on the femur is the ________.

  1. A) anterior crest
  2. B) trochlea
  3. C) lateral malleolus
  4. D) intercondylar fossa
  5. E) medial malleolus

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 188-189

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

41) Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________, whereas articulations permitting no movement are called ________.

  1. A) amphiarthroses; synarthroses
  2. B) synarthroses; amphiarthroses
  3. C) diarthroses; amphiarthroses
  4. D) amphiarthroses; diarthroses
  5. E) diarthroses; synarthroses

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 190

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

42) The wrist bones are actually ________.

  1. A) tarsals
  2. B) metacarpals
  3. C) phalanges
  4. D) metatarsals
  5. E) carpals

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 185

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

43) Which of these bones articulates with the acetabulum of the coxal bone?

  1. A) femur
  2. B) patella
  3. C) fibula
  4. D) sacrum
  5. E) tibia

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 188

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

44) Four of the five answers listed below are parts of the same anatomical area. Select the exception.

  1. A) humerus
  2. B) radius
  3. C) scapula
  4. D) fibula
  5. E) clavicle

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 182-184

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

45) The elbow is classified as a(n) ________.

  1. A) plane joint
  2. B) hinge joint
  3. C) pivot joint
  4. D) saddle joint
  5. E) condylar joint

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 194

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

5.3   True/False Questions

 

1) Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 159

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

2) Articular cartilage covers the diaphysis of long bones.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

3) The arrangement of lamellae around central (Haversian) canals forms osteons (Haversian systems).

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

4) Hypercalcemia promotes the deposition of calcium to bones.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 166

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

5) A closed, or simple, fracture is one that penetrates through the skin’s surface.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 169

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

6) The last two pairs of ribs are called true ribs because they have no anterior attachments.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 182

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

7) Teeth are anchored in the maxillary bones and the mandible.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 173, 175

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

8) The spinal cord passes through the body of each vertebra.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 178

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

9) The intervertebral discs that cushion the spine and absorb shock are composed of fibrocartilage.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 193

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

10) In anatomical position, the lateral lower leg bone is the fibula.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 189

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

11) There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 176-177

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

12) A newborn baby has an S-shaped spinal curvature known as a primary curvature.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 177

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

13) Diarthroses have a greater degree of mobility and flexibility than synarthroses.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 190-191

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

14) Joint inflammation is known as ankylosis.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 196

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

5.4   Matching Questions

 

Match the following:

 

  1. A) greenstick fracture
  2. B) depression fracture
  3. C) impacted fracture
  4. D) comminuted fracture
  5. E) spiral fracture

 

1) Incomplete bone break

Page Ref: 168

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

2) Broken bone portion is pushed inward

Page Ref: 168

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

3) Ragged bone break resulting from twisting forces

Page Ref: 168

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

4) Bone breaks into many fragments

Page Ref: 168

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

5) Broken bone ends are forced into each other

Page Ref: 168

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

Answers: 1) A 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) C

 

Match the following:

 

  1. A) osteoclasts
  2. B) epiphyseal plate
  3. C) lamellae
  4. D) osteoblasts
  5. E) canaliculi

 

6) Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix

Page Ref: 166

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

7) Layers or rings of calcification that are found in compact bone

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

8) Small channels that radiate through the matrix of compact bone

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

9) Cells that can build bony matrix

Page Ref: 165

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

10) Area where bone growth takes place in a long bone

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

Answers: 6) A 7) C 8) E 9) D 10) B

 

 

Match the following:

 

  1. A) ball-and-socket joint
  2. B) pivot joint
  3. C) plane joint
  4. D) hinge joint
  5. E) condylar joint

 

11) Wrist joint

Page Ref: 194

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

12) Shoulder joint

Page Ref: 196

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

13) Ankle joint

Page Ref: 194

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

14) Knuckle joints

Page Ref: 196

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

15) Joint between atlas and axis

Page Ref: 194

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

Answers: 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) E 15) B

 

 

Match the following:

 

  1. A) appendicular skeleton
  2. B) axial skeleton

 

16) Tarsals

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

17) Femur

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

18) Phalanges

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

19) Ulna

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

20) Atlas

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

21) Sternum

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

22) Fibula

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

23) Coxal bone

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

24) True ribs

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

25) Parietal bones

Page Ref: 170

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

Answers: 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) B

 

5.5   Essay Questions

 

1) Explain the five functions of the skeletal system.

Answer:

  1. Support—the skeletal system forms the body’s internal structural framework. The bones of the legs act as pillars to support the body trunk when we stand, and the rib cage supports the thoracic wall.
  2. Movement—the skeletal muscles, attached to bones by tendons, use the bones as levers to move the body and its parts.
  3. Protection—bones, such as the skull, thorax, and pelvis, protect the enclosed soft body organs.
  4. Storage—fat is stored in the internal cavities of bones. Bones also serve as a storehouse for minerals, the most important being calcium and phosphorus.
  5. Hematopoiesis—blood cell formation occurs within the red marrow of certain bones.

Page Ref: 159

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

2) Differentiate between the functions of yellow marrow and red marrow.

Answer:  Yellow or red marrow may be found in the medullary (marrow) cavity of a long bone, depending on the age of the individual. Yellow marrow is adipose tissue that stores energy. Red marrow functions in blood cell production, a process known as hematopoiesis.

Page Ref: 161

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

3) List and explain the steps in the repair process of a simple fracture.

Answer:

Step 1 is hematoma formation. A hematoma, or blood-filled swelling, forms when bone breaks and blood vessels rupture. Bone cells are deprived of nutrition and die.

Step 2 is fibrocartilage callus formation. The site of damage experiences growth of new capillaries into the clotted blood and disposal of dead tissue by phagocytes. Connective tissue cells of various types form a mass of repair tissue called fibrocartilage callus. This fibrocartilage callus contains several elements: some cartilage matrix, some bony matrix, and collagen fibers. This fibrocartilage callus acts to splint the broken bone, closing the gap.

Step 3 is bony callus formation. As more osteoblasts and osteoclasts migrate into the area and multiply, fibrocartilage is gradually replaced by a callus of spongy bone (the bony callus).

Step 4 is bone remodeling. Over the next few months, bony callus is remodeled in response to the mechanical stresses placed on it, so that it forms a strong, permanent patch at the fracture site.

Page Ref: 169

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

4) Explain how the anatomy of compact bone differs from that of spongy bone.

Answer:  Compact bone is composed of osteons (Haversian systems). Concentric rings of matrix, called lamellae, are situated around a central (Haversian) canal. The rings and central canal constitute an osteon, or Haversian system. Other canals, called canaliculi, spread outward from central canals to connect to lacunae which house osteocytes.

Spongy bone is open, airy, spiky and is composed of small, needlelike pieces of bone. Spongy bone lacks osteons and a network of canals.

Page Ref: 159, 161-162

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

5) Explain how bones are remodeled in response to parathyroid hormone (PTH).

Answer:  Parathyroid hormone (PTH) activates bone-destroying cells called osteoclasts to break down the bone’s matrix and release the stored calcium into the blood. PTH determines when bone will be broken down in response to the level of calcium ions in the blood.

Page Ref: 166

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

6) List some of the features of a female pelvis that make it different from a male pelvis.

Answer:  The female pelvis:

  1. has a larger and more circular inlet.
  2. is shallower than the male pelvis.
  3. has lighter and thinner bones.
  4. has a shorter and less curved sacrum.
  5. has a more rounded pubic arch.
  6. has shorter ischial spines that are also farther apart.

Page Ref: 186

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

7) If 6-year-old Sarah fell and broke her femur, damaging the proximal epiphyseal plate, what might she expect as she grows older? What is an epiphyseal plate and why is it significant to this situation?

Answer:  The epiphyseal plate is a flat plate of hyaline cartilage seen in young growing bone. Epiphyseal plates cause the lengthwise growth of long bone. Since this child is still growing and has not completed puberty, she may expect impaired growth in that one epiphyseal plate. Lucky for Sarah, there is an epiphyseal plate located at both the distal and proximal ends of the femur. The healthy distal plate can continue to grow.

Page Ref: 161, 165-166

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

 

8) Maria observes a patient in her clinic with a spinal curvature abnormality. She notices the patient’s spine curves laterally from the midline. Determine the abnormality she observed and explain how she differentiated it from the other two types of spinal abnormalities.

Answer:  Maria observed a patient with scoliosis in which the spinal strays laterally from the midline. Lordosis, or sway back, results in lumbar curvature exaggerated in the ventral (anterior) direction. Kyphosis produces a humped back due to a thoracic curvature exaggerated in the dorsal (posterior) direction.

Page Ref: 177-178

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

9) Explain how atlas and axis are different from other vertebrae. Discuss the roles they play in the body.

Answer:

  1. Unlike all other vertebra, atlas (C1) has no body. Axis (C2) has a large process called the dens.
  2. The structural differences of these two vertebrae allow you to rotate your head from side to side to indicate “no.” The joint between these two vertebrae is a pivot joint.

Page Ref: 178, 180

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

10) Differentiate among the three types of joints based on structural and functional classification. Provide examples of each type of joint.

Answer:

  1. Synarthroses are immovable joints. These joints are structurally classified as fibrous joints since the bones are united by fibrous tissue. Skull sutures are one example of a fibrous joint.
  2. Amphiarthroses are slightly movable joints. These joints are structurally classified as cartilaginous joints since the bone ends are connected by cartilage. The pubic symphysis and intervertebral joints are two examples.
  3. Diathroses are freely movable joints. These joints are structurally classified as synovial joints since the articulating bone ends are separated by a joint cavity containing synovial fluid. There are many examples of synovial joints, including the elbow, knee, and shoulder.

Page Ref: 190-191

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

Essentials of Human Anatomy and Physiology, 11e, (Marieb)

Chapter 7   The Nervous System

 

7.1   Multiple Choice Part I Questions

 

 

Using Figure 7.1, identify the following:

 

1) The neural processes that convey incoming messages toward the cell body are indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label H
  2. B) Label G
  3. C) Label A
  4. D) Label F
  5. E) Label B

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 253, 254

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

2) The metabolic center of the neuron is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label D
  2. B) Label F
  3. C) Label A
  4. D) Label H
  5. E) Label I

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 253, 254

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

3) The axon terminals are indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label I
  2. B) Label G
  3. C) Label B
  4. D) Label A
  5. E) Label C

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 253, 254

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

4) The axon is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label B
  2. B) Label F
  3. C) Label H
  4. D) Label I
  5. E) Label A

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 253, 254

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

5) The gaps between Schwann cells are indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label D
  2. B) Label H
  3. C) Label B
  4. D) Label F
  5. E) Label A

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 253, 254

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

6) The nucleus of the neuron is indicated by ________.

  1. A) Label E
  2. B) Label I
  3. C) Label A
  4. D) Label B
  5. E) Label F

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 253, 254

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

7) The nervous system is structurally subdivided into two systems: ________ nervous system and ________ nervous system.

  1. A) central; peripheral
  2. B) somatic; autonomic
  3. C) parasympathetic; sympathetic
  4. D) autonomic; sympathetic

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 250-251

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

8) ________ cells form the myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the PNS.

  1. A) Satellite
  2. B) Ependymal
  3. C) Schwann
  4. D) Nerve

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 253

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

9) Support cells in the central nervous system are collectively called ________.

  1. A) myelin sheaths
  2. B) neuroglia
  3. C) oligodendrocytes
  4. D) microglia

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 252

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

10) The part of the neuron that typically conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is the ________.

  1. A) dendrite
  2. B) cell body
  3. C) synaptic cleft
  4. D) axon

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 253

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

11) The gaps between Schwann cells found at regular intervals in peripheral system neurons are called ________.

  1. A) synaptic clefts
  2. B) axon terminals
  3. C) nodes of Ranvier
  4. D) myelin sheaths

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 255

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

12) Sensory receptors located in muscles and tendons are termed ________.

  1. A) Meissner’s corpuscles
  2. B) proprioceptors
  3. C) lamellar corpuscles
  4. D) association neurons

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 256

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

13) Bundles of nerve fibers (neuron processes) running through the CNS are called ________, whereas in the PNS they are called ________.

  1. A) tracts; nerves
  2. B) gray matter; white matter
  3. C) axons; dendrites
  4. D) afferent neurons; efferent neurons

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 256

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

14) The cell bodies of the ________ neurons are always located within the CNS.

  1. A) proprioceptor
  2. B) afferent
  3. C) motor
  4. D) sensory

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 257

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

15) Myelinated fibers (tracts) form ________ matter while unmyelinated fibers form ________ matter.

  1. A) sensory; motor
  2. B) gray; white
  3. C) motor; sensory
  4. D) white; gray

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 256

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

16) ________ connect sensory and motor neurons in neural pathways and their cell bodies are typically located in the central nervous system.

  1. A) Interneurons (association neurons)
  2. B) Afferent
  3. C) Efferent
  4. D) Proprioceptors

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 257

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

17) During repolarization, ________ ions are pumped out of the cell.

  1. A) sodium
  2. B) potassium
  3. C) both sodium and potassium
  4. D) calcium

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 260

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

18) ________ reflexes include the secretion of saliva, changes in the size of our pupils, and digestion involve the activities of smooth muscles.

  1. A) Somatic
  2. B) Voluntary
  3. C) Autonomic
  4. D) Sympathetic

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 261

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

19) The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus collectively constitute the ________.

  1. A) cerebellum
  2. B) dicephalon (interbrain)
  3. C) brain stem
  4. D) cerebrum

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 265, 269

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

20) The brain dysfunction where blood supply to a region (or regions) of the brain is blocked and vital brain tissue dies, as by a blood clot or a ruptured blood vessel, is called ________.

  1. A) cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke
  2. B) Parkinson’s disease
  3. C) Huntington’s disease
  4. D) multiple sclerosis

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 275

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

21) The brain and spinal cord are protected and cushioned by three connective tissue membranes that are collectively called ________.

  1. A) ventricles
  2. B) arachnoid villi
  3. C) meninges
  4. D) sinuses

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 271

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

22) Cerebrospinal fluid is formed from blood by clusters of capillaries in the brain known as ________.

  1. A) choroid plexuses
  2. B) arachnoid villi
  3. C) ventricles
  4. D) sinuses

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 272

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

23) The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the ________ lobe of the cerebrum.

  1. A) parietal
  2. B) frontal
  3. C) temporal
  4. D) occipital

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 264

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

24) The blood-brain barrier is formed by ________ junctions that nearly seamlessly bind capillaries in the brain.

  1. A) gap
  2. B) intercalated
  3. C) desmosome
  4. D) tight

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 274

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

25) One of the major functions of the pons is to control ________.

  1. A) breathing
  2. B) hunger
  3. C) thirst
  4. D) consciousness

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

26) The fissure in the brain that separates the two cerebral hemispheres is called the ________.

  1. A) transverse fissure
  2. B) longitudinal fissure
  3. C) sagittal fissure
  4. D) tentorium cerebelli

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 263

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

27) The hypothalamus regulates the ________.

  1. A) pineal gland
  2. B) pituitary gland
  3. C) pons
  4. D) thalamus

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

28) The large fiber tract that allows communication between the two cerebral hemispheres is called the ________.

  1. A) corpus callosum
  2. B) fornix
  3. C) pons
  4. D) thalamus

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 268

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

29) The portion of the diencephalon that acts as a relay station for sensory impulses traveling to the sensory cortex is the ________.

  1. A) pons
  2. B) pituitary gland
  3. C) thalamus
  4. D) hypothalamus

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 265, 269

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

30) The delicate innermost membrane, or meningeal layer, that clings to the surface of the brain and spinal cord is known as the ________ mater.

  1. A) dura
  2. B) arachnoid
  3. C) periosteal
  4. D) pia

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 271

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

31) Hemiplegia and aphasia characterize those patients who have experienced a ________.

  1. A) concussion
  2. B) cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke
  3. C) contusion
  4. D) cerebral edema

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 275

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

32) There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves and ________ pairs of spinal nerves in the peripheral nervous system.

  1. A) 5; 7
  2. B) 18; 34
  3. C) 12; 31
  4. D) 15; 25

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 281

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

33) ________ disease results from a degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the substantia nigra.

  1. A) Parkinson’s
  2. B) Alzheimer’s
  3. C) Huntington’s
  4. D) Autoimmune

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 276

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

34) The ________ is a connective tissue wrapping around fascicles of neuron fibers.

  1. A) epineurium
  2. B) endoneurium
  3. C) perineurium
  4. D) perimysium

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 280

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

35) Sweat glands that produce perspiration when stimulated are innervated only by the ________ fibers.

  1. A) sympathetic
  2. B) parasympathetic
  3. C) somatic
  4. D) afferent

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 292

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

36) The only pair of cranial nerves to extend to the thoracic and abdominal cavities is the ________ nerves.

  1. A) glossopharyngeal
  2. B) oculomotor
  3. C) vestibulocochlear
  4. D) vagus

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 281

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

37) Cranial nerve III is known as the ________ nerve.

  1. A) optic
  2. B) olfactory
  3. C) oculomotor
  4. D) trochlear

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 282

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

38) The number of neurons involved in transmission of impulses in the autonomic nervous system is ________.

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) four
  4. D) eight

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 289

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

39) One of the last areas of the CNS to mature is the ________, which regulates body temperature.

  1. A) hypothalamus
  2. B) thalamus
  3. C) cerebellum
  4. D) cerebrum

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 293

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

40) The largest nerve in the body, the sciatic nerve, belongs to the ________ nerve plexus.

  1. A) lumbar
  2. B) sacral
  3. C) brachial
  4. D) cervical

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 286

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

41) Each spinal nerve divides into a dorsal and a ventral ________.

  1. A) ramus
  2. B) tract
  3. C) ganglion
  4. D) plexus

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 281

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

42) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is often called the “rest-and-digest” division.

  1. A) somatic
  2. B) sympathetic
  3. C) parasympathetic
  4. D) afferent

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 291

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

7.2   Multiple Choice Part II Questions

 

1) The term central nervous system refers to the ________.

  1. A) autonomic and peripheral nervous systems
  2. B) brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves
  3. C) brain and cranial nerves
  4. D) spinal cord and spinal nerves
  5. E) brain and spinal cord

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 250, 251

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

2) Fibers that carry information from the skin, joints, and skeletal muscles to the central nervous system are ________.

  1. A) motor
  2. B) visceral sensory
  3. C) somatic sensory
  4. D) interneurons (association neurons)
  5. E) parasympathetic

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 251

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

3) Which of these neuroglial cells forms the myelin sheath in the central nervous system?

  1. A) astrocytes
  2. B) oligodendrocytes
  3. C) Schwann cells
  4. D) ependymal cells
  5. E) satellite cells

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 253

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

4) The Schwann cell forms a myelin sheath around the ________.

  1. A) dendrites
  2. B) cell body
  3. C) nucleus
  4. D) axon
  5. E) nodes of Ranvier

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 253

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

5) The neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called ________.

  1. A) axons
  2. B) dendrites
  3. C) neurolemmas
  4. D) Schwann cells
  5. E) satellite cells

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 253

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

6) Unmyelinated nerve fibers are known as ________.

  1. A) white matter
  2. B) sensors
  3. C) myelin sheaths
  4. D) receptors
  5. E) gray matter

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 256

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

7) The major role of the interneuron (association neuron) is to ________.

  1. A) carry information from the central nervous system to muscles and/or the viscera
  2. B) form a lipid-protein (lipoprotein) cell membrane on the outside of axons
  3. C) transmit nerve impulses from the skin and organs to the central nervous system
  4. D) connect motor and sensory neurons in their pathways
  5. E) detect the amount of stretch in skeletal muscles or tendons and their joints

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 257

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

8) Neurons with several processes branching off the cell body, such as motor neurons and interneurons (association neurons), are structurally classified as ________.

  1. A) efferent
  2. B) multipolar
  3. C) afferent
  4. D) bipolar
  5. E) unipolar

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 258

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

9) The two major functional properties of neurons are ________.

  1. A) cover and line body surfaces
  2. B) contraction and movements
  3. C) irritability and conductivity
  4. D) connect and protect
  5. E) lubricate and secrete

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 258

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

10) Ganglia are collections of ________.

  1. A) nuclei
  2. B) dendrites
  3. C) cell bodies
  4. D) axons
  5. E) axon terminals

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 255

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

11) Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are ________.

  1. A) myelinated
  2. B) unmyelinated
  3. C) sensory
  4. D) motor
  5. E) cerebral

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 260

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

12) Bipolar neurons are commonly ________.

  1. A) motor neurons
  2. B) called neuroglia
  3. C) found in ganglia
  4. D) found in the eye and nose
  5. E) more abundant in adults than in children

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 258

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

13) During the resting state, a neuron is ________.

  1. A) polarized with more sodium ions outside the cell and more potassium ions inside the cell
  2. B) propagating the action potential
  3. C) depolarizing and generating an action potential
  4. D) restoring the ionic conditions utilizing the sodium-potassium pump
  5. E) repolarizing as potassium ions diffuse out of the cell

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 258

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

14) Immediately after an action potential is propagated, which one of the following ions rapidly diffuses out of the cell into the tissue fluid ________.

  1. A) sodium
  2. B) chloride
  3. C) calcium
  4. D) potassium
  5. E) magnesium

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 260

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

15) An action potential is caused by an influx of these ions into the cell ________.

  1. A) potassium
  2. B) sodium
  3. C) calcium
  4. D) magnesium
  5. E) both potassium and sodium

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 260

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

16) Nerve impulse transmissions occurring along myelinated neurons are called ________.

  1. A) saltatory conduction
  2. B) threshold
  3. C) graded potential
  4. D) sodium-potassium pump
  5. E) all-or-none response

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 260

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

17) Neurons either conduct action potentials along the length of their axons, or they remain at rest. This statement best describes ________.

  1. A) a reflex arc
  2. B) the all-or-none response
  3. C) repolarization
  4. D) saltatory conduction
  5. E) graded potential

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 260

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

18) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events that correlates to the sequence of events of a nerve impulse?

  1. the membrane becomes depolarized
  2. sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward
  3. the membrane becomes repolarized
  4. potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward while sodium is actively transported out of the cell
  5. A) 3, 2, 4, 1
  6. B) 2, 1, 4, 3
  7. C) 2, 1, 3, 4
  8. D) 1, 2, 4, 3
  9. E) 4, 1, 3, 2

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 259

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

19) Which ion causes neurotransmitter vesicles to fuse with the axon’s membrane during the conduction of a nerve impulse from one neuron to the next?

  1. A) chlorine
  2. B) sodium
  3. C) potassium
  4. D) calcium
  5. E) magnesium

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 260

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

20) The gap between two communicating neurons is termed ________.

  1. A) synaptic cleft
  2. B) cell body
  3. C) effector
  4. D) Schwann cell
  5. E) node of Ranvier

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 253, 263

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

21) The substance that is released at axonal endings to propagate a nervous impulse is called ________.

  1. A) an ion
  2. B) nerve glue
  3. C) a neurotransmitter
  4. D) the sodium-potassium pump
  5. E) an action potential

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 253, 260

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

22) Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical reflex arc?

  1. A) effector, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, receptor
  2. B) receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector
  3. C) effector, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, receptor
  4. D) receptor, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, effector
  5. E) receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, integration center, effector

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 261, 262

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

23) Rick quickly pulled his hand away from the hot stove. This reflex is best known as a(n) ________.

  1. A) two-neuron reflex
  2. B) patellar reflex
  3. C) knee-jerk reflex
  4. D) withdrawal reflex
  5. E) autonomic reflex

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 263

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

24) Which type of reflex involves skeletal muscles?

  1. A) parasympathetic
  2. B) sympathetic
  3. C) autonomic
  4. D) somatic
  5. E) visceral

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 261

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

25) The sensory homunculus is located in the primary somatic sensory area in the ________.

  1. A) parietal lobe
  2. B) occipital lobe
  3. C) frontal lobe
  4. D) temporal lobe
  5. E) cerebellum

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 264

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

26) A stroke in the primary motor area has caused Don to lose control over his skeletal muscles on the right side of his body. What lobe of his brain was damaged?

  1. A) occipital lobe
  2. B) temporal lobe
  3. C) frontal lobe
  4. D) parietal lobe
  5. E) pyramidal tract

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 264

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

27) Sally has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but can’t vocalize the words. The part of her brain that deals with the ability to speak is the ________.

  1. A) longitudinal fissure
  2. B) gyrus
  3. C) central sulcus
  4. D) Broca’s area
  5. E) primary motor area

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 264

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

28) The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are housed in the ________.

  1. A) diencephalon
  2. B) hypothalamus
  3. C) brain stem
  4. D) pineal gland
  5. E) cerebellum

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 265, 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

29) What part of the brain stem houses reflex centers for vision and hearing?

  1. A) pons
  2. B) corpora quadrigemina
  3. C) fourth ventricle
  4. D) medulla oblongata
  5. E) reticular formation

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

30) The hypothalamus is the “emotional-visceral” center of the brain and, thus, is an important part of the ________.

  1. A) posterior association area
  2. B) reticular activating system
  3. C) limbic system
  4. D) Broca’s area
  5. E) anterior association area

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

31) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through all of the following EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) subarachnoid space
  2. B) corpus callosum
  3. C) cerebral aqueduct
  4. D) fourth ventricle
  5. E) lateral ventricles

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 271-274

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

32) A special group of neurons in the brain stem that plays a role in consciousness and the awake/sleep cycles is the ________.

  1. A) thalamus
  2. B) reticular activating system (RAS)
  3. C) pineal gland
  4. D) limbic system
  5. E) cerebellum

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

33) Control of temperature, endocrine activity, metabolism, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.

  1. A) medulla oblongata
  2. B) cerebellum
  3. C) hypothalamus
  4. D) thalamus
  5. E) cerebrum

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

34) The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the ________.

  1. A) pons
  2. B) medulla oblongata
  3. C) midbrain
  4. D) cerebrum
  5. E) hypothalamus

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

35) Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the ________.

  1. A) cerebrum
  2. B) hypothalamus
  3. C) cerebellum
  4. D) thalamus
  5. E) midbrain

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 270-271

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

36) Which one of the following represents the correct sequence from outermost to innermost layers of the meninges?

  1. A) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater
  2. B) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
  3. C) arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
  4. D) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
  5. E) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 271

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

37) Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed into venous blood in the dural sinuses via the ________.

  1. A) cerebral aqueduct
  2. B) hypothalamus
  3. C) arachnoid villus
  4. D) choroid plexus
  5. E) pons

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 271

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

38) The cerebrospinal fluid ________.

  1. A) is secreted by the arachnoid villi
  2. B) enters the four ventricles after filling and circulating through the subarachnoid space
  3. C) is secreted mostly by the ependymal cells lining the brain ventricles
  4. D) is continually formed mostly by the choroid plexuses
  5. E) is identical in composition to whole blood

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 272

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

39) The blood-brain barrier is effective against the passage of ________.

  1. A) water
  2. B) nutrients such as glucose
  3. C) alcohol
  4. D) anesthetics
  5. E) metabolic waste such as urea

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 274

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

40) Which of the following brain dysfunctions is also known as a stroke?

  1. A) cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
  2. B) Alzheimer’s disease
  3. C) aphasia
  4. D) cerebral edema
  5. E) Parkinson’s disease

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 275

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

41) The spinal cord terminates around vertebra ________.

  1. A) C7
  2. B) T2
  3. C) T9
  4. D) L3
  5. E) S4

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 277

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

42) Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.

  1. A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
  2. B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
  3. C) the thalamus
  4. D) the hypothalamus
  5. E) sympathetic ganglia

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 278

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

43) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord, from superior to inferior?

  1. A) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
  2. B) cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
  3. C) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
  4. D) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
  5. E) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 278, 285, 286

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

44) Which one of the following is the correct sequence in connective tissue sheaths, going from outermost to innermost layer?

  1. A) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium
  2. B) epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium
  3. C) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium
  4. D) perineurium, endoneurium, epineurium
  5. E) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 280

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

45) Each spinal nerve branches into a ventral and dorsal ________.

  1. A) root
  2. B) ganglion
  3. C) plexus
  4. D) ramus
  5. E) tract

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 281

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

46) How many pairs of cranial nerves branch from the surface of the brain?

  1. A) three
  2. B) five
  3. C) seven
  4. D) twelve
  5. E) eighteen

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 281

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

47) Which cranial nerves control eye movement?

  1. A) cranial nerve II, IV, V
  2. B) cranial nerve III, IV, VI
  3. C) cranial nerve V, VI, VIII
  4. D) cranial nerve VIII, X, XII
  5. E) cranial nerve IX, X, XI

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 282-283

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

48) The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form complex networks of nerves known as a ________.

  1. A) ganglion
  2. B) reflex
  3. C) plexus
  4. D) tract
  5. E) fascicle

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 285

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

49) Which cranial nerve descends into the thoracic and abdominal cavities to regulate heart rate and promote digestive activity?

  1. A) oculomotor
  2. B) vagus
  3. C) hypoglossal
  4. D) accessory
  5. E) glossopharyngeal

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 283

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

50) Which nervous system subdivision is a chain of two motor neurons consisting of a preganglionic neuron and a postganglionic neuron?

  1. A) somatic
  2. B) central
  3. C) autonomic
  4. D) skeletal
  5. E) sensory

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 289

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

51) Which of the following is NOT a major nerve of the brachial nerve plexus?

  1. A) radial
  2. B) axillary
  3. C) musculocutaneous
  4. D) median
  5. E) phrenic

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 286

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

52) The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body resulting from a combination of which two nerves?

  1. A) pudendal and femoral nerves
  2. B) femoral and tibial nerves
  3. C) pudendal and common peroneal nerves
  4. D) common fibular and tibial nerves
  5. E) pudendal and tibial nerves

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 286

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

53) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the ________.

  1. A) central nervous system
  2. B) voluntary nervous system
  3. C) autonomic nervous system
  4. D) somatic nervous system
  5. E) peripheral nervous system

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 251, 288

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

54) In contrast to the somatic nervous system, the autonomic nervous system ________.

  1. A) has a chain of two motor neurons
  2. B) has a chain of two sensory neurons
  3. C) stimulates its effector cells
  4. D) has both sensory and motor fibers
  5. E) is a subdivision of the central nervous system

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 289

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

55) Which of the following is favored by the parasympathetic nervous system?

  1. A) emergency
  2. B) exercise
  3. C) digestion
  4. D) embarrassment
  5. E) excitement

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 292

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

56) Preparing the body for the “fight-or-flight” response during threatening situations is the role of the ________.

  1. A) sympathetic nervous system
  2. B) cerebrum
  3. C) parasympathetic nervous system
  4. D) somatic nervous system
  5. E) afferent nervous system

Answer:  A

Page Ref: 290

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

57) Which of the following effects is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system?

  1. A) decreased activity of the digestive system
  2. B) stimulated sweat glands to produce perspiration
  3. C) decreased urine output
  4. D) increased metabolic rate
  5. E) decreased heart rate

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 290, 292

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

58) The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are essentially opposite of the ________.

  1. A) central nervous system
  2. B) parasympathetic nervous system
  3. C) autonomic nervous system
  4. D) motor division
  5. E) sensory division

Answer:  B

Page Ref: 251, 290

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

59) Sympathetic division fibers leave the spinal cord in the ________.

  1. A) craniosacral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
  2. B) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
  3. C) craniosacral region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
  4. D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
  5. E) craniosacral region, and the preganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine

Answer:  D

Page Ref: 290

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

 

60) What congenital disorder results when the vertebrae fail to form completely around the spinal cord, typically in the lumbosacral region?

  1. A) cystic fibrosis
  2. B) anencephaly
  3. C) hydrocephaly
  4. D) cerebral palsy
  5. E) spina bifida

Answer:  E

Page Ref: 293

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

61) Which one of the following statements about aging is most accurate?

  1. A) the brain reaches its maximum weight around the seventh decade of life
  2. B) synaptic connections are too fixed to permit a great deal of learning after the age of 35
  3. C) despite some neuronal loss, an unlimited number of neural pathways are available and ready to be developed; therefore, additional learning can occur throughout life
  4. D) learning throughout the adult and aging years is supported primarily by glial proliferation
  5. E) increased efficiency of the sympathetic nervous system enhances the ability to learn

Answer:  C

Page Ref: 294-295

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

7.3   True/False Questions

 

1) The central nervous system includes the spinal nerves and cranial nerves.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 250

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

2) The parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 250, 251

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

3) Ependymal cells beat their cilia to help circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 252-253

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

4) Gaps between adjacent Schwann cells of a myelin sheath are known as nodes of Ranvier.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 255

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

5) A sensory neuron carries stimuli from the central nervous system to the effector.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 256

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

6) Gray matter contains collections of unmyelinated fibers and cell bodies in the central nervous system.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 256

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

7) Neurons with two processes, an axon and a dendrite, are known as bipolar neurons.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 258

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

8) A graded potential is also known as a nerve impulse.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 260

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

9) Depolarization of neurons results from the entry of sodium ions into the cell.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 260

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

10) The withdrawal, or flexor, reflex is one of the only voluntary reflexes.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 263

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

11) The primary motor area allows us to consciously move our skeletal muscles.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 264

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

12) Difficulty in breathing may reflect damage to respiratory centers located in the cerebellum.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

13) One of the major functions of the pons is to produce releasing factors that control the function of the anterior pituitary.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

14) The thalamus plays a role in regulation of body temperature, metabolism, and water balance.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

15) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and also in the subarachnoid space outside the brain.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 272, 273

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

16) The collection of spinal nerves at the inferior end of the spinal cord is called the cauda equina.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 277

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

17) There is no possibility of damaging the spinal cord below the third lumbar vertebra.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 277

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

18) The ventral and dorsi rami of each spinal nerve contain both sensory and motor nerves.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 281

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

19) Cranial nerve X is the vestibulocochlear nerve, its fibers carry sensations of hearing and equilibrium to the brain.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 282-283

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

20) There are 31 pairs of cranial nerves and 12 pairs of spinal nerves.

Answer:  FALSE

Page Ref: 277, 281

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

21) Complex networks of spinal nerves are termed nerve plexuses.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 285

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

 

22) Sympathetic postganglionic fibers release norepinephrine and the preganglionic axon releases acetylcholine.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 290

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

23) Both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems operate with a chain of two motor neurons.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 289

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

24) The parasympathetic division is also called the craniosacral division since the preganglionic neurons originate in the brain and sacral region of the spinal cord.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 290

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

25) The usual cause of nervous system deterioration as we age is circulatory system problems.

Answer:  TRUE

Page Ref: 294

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

7.4   Matching Questions

 

Match the following:

 

  1. A) Sensory (afferent) division
  2. B) Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
  3. C) Central nervous system (CNS)
  4. D) Motor (efferent) division
  5. E) Autonomic nervous system (ANS)

 

1) Structural nervous system subdivision that consists of the brain and spinal cord

Page Ref: 251

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

2) Functional nervous system subdivision that carries information toward the central nervous system from receptors

Page Ref: 251

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

3) Structural nervous system subdivision that consists of spinal nerves and cranial nerves

Page Ref: 251

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

4) Subdivision of the motor division responsible for controlling involuntary events

Page Ref: 251

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

5) Functional nervous system division that carries information from the central nervous system toward effectors

Page Ref: 251

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

Answers: 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) E 5) D

 

Match the following:

 

  1. A) cerebellum
  2. B) brain stem
  3. C) cerebrum
  4. D) diencephalon

 

6) Thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus

Page Ref: 265

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

7) Primary somatic sensory area

Page Ref: 265

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

8) Primary motor area

Page Ref: 265

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

9) Pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata

Page Ref: 265

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

10) Reticular formation

Page Ref: 265

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

11) Controls balance and equilibrium

Page Ref: 265

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

Answers: 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) B 11) A

 

 

Match the following:

 

  1. A) thalamus
  2. B) pituitary gland
  3. C) epithalamus
  4. D) medulla oblongata
  5. E) hypothalamus
  6. F) midbrain

 

12) Includes the cerebral peduncles and the corpora quadrigemina

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

13) Contains centers that control heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, swallowing, and vomiting

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

14) Gland that hangs from the hypothalamus

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

15) Regulates body temperature, water balance, and metabolism

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

16) Relay station for sensory impulses passing to the sensory cortex

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

17) Includes the pineal gland and choroid plexus of the third ventricle

Page Ref: 270

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

Answers: 12) F 13) D 14) B 15) E 16) A 17) C

 

 

Match the following:

 

  1. A) Parasympathetic nervous system
  2. B) Sympathetic nervous system

 

18) Decreases heart rate

Page Ref: 290, 292

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

19) Stimulates sweat glands to produce perspiration

Page Ref: 292

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

20) Decreases digestive system activities

Page Ref: 292

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

21) Constricts bronchioles of respiratory passageways

Page Ref: 292

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

22) No effect on most blood vessels

Page Ref: 292

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

23) Decreases urine output of the kidneys

Page Ref: 292

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

24) Increases metabolic rate

Page Ref: 292

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

25) Increases the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla

Page Ref: 292

Bloom’s:  1) Knowledge

 

Answers: 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) B 25) B

 

 

7.5   Essay Questions

 

1) List and explain the three general functions of the nervous system

Answer:

  1. Sensory (input) function—the nervous system uses millions of sensory receptors to monitor changes (stimuli) inside and outside the body; the gathered information is called the sensory function.
  2. Integrative function—the nervous system processes and interprets sensory input and makes decisions about what should be done and the magnitude to which it should be done at each moment.
  3. Motor (output) function—the process of reaction to stimuli; the body responds by activating muscles that can produce motion or glands that can produce and secrete hormones.

Page Ref: 249-250

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

2) Explain how neurons and neuroglia are functionally different.

Answer:  In general, neuroglia are cells that support, insulate, and protect neurons. Neuroglia, or glia, are not able to conduct nerve impulses, unlike neurons which are specialized to conduct nerve impulses. Likewise, neuroglia never lose the ability to divide.

Page Ref: 251, 253

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

3) Explain the difference between a polarized neuron and a depolarized neuron.

Answer:  A neuron is polarized when there are more positively charged ions located on the outer surface of the membrane and less positively charged ions situated on the inner surface of the membrane. A neuron is at rest when it is polarized. Depolarization occurs when the sodium ions, normally located outside the neuron’s membrane, rush into the cell. Now, the interior surface of the membrane carries a positive charge due to the presence of more positively charged ions while the exterior surface of the membrane carries a negative charge due to the smaller number of positively charged ions.

Page Ref: 258, 260

Bloom’s:  2) Comprehension

 

4) The family of Mr. Sanchez has learned that his cerebrovascular accident (CVA, or stroke) impaired his ability to move the right side of his body. They were told the CVA involved the primary somatic sensory area in the right cerebral hemisphere. Did they receive correct information? Explain.

Answer:  Mr. Sanchez’s family received two incorrect pieces of information. First, if Mr. Sanchez cannot move the right side of his body, the left cerebral hemisphere is responsible for controlling that movement. The motor pathway crosses to the opposite hemisphere of the brain. Second, the primary motor area provides conscious motor control of skeletal muscles. By contrast, the primary somatic sensory area receives information from the body’s sensory receptors.

Page Ref: 264, 275

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

5) An 18-wheeler just nearly missed hitting Sam head-on while driving. Exasperated, he pulls over to the side of the road with his heart pounding. Which division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is taking control right now? What other symptoms do you think he’s experiencing

Answer:  The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is controlling Sam. In addition to his pounding heart, he is also likely experiencing deep breathing; cold, sweaty skin; a prickly scalp; and dilated pupils of his eyes.

Page Ref: 290-291

Bloom’s:  3) Application

 

6) How does a transient ischemic attack (TIA) differ from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA or stroke)?

Answer:  Temporary restriction of blood flow to the brain results in a TIA; this even can last for 5 to 50 minutes and result in numbness, temporary paralysis, and impaired speech. When blood flow to a particular brain area is blocked, a stroke has occurred. As a result, brain tissue dies. Symptoms of a stroke may include paralysis on one side of the body.

Page Ref: 275-276

Bloom’s:  4) Analysis

 

7) List and describe the protective structures found in the CNS.

Answer:

  1. The brain and spinal cord are protected by a bony skull and a bony vertebral column.
  2. There are three layers of membranes (meninges) covering the structures in the CNS.
  3. The outermost dura mater surround the brain. This double-layered membrane is a leathery covering.
  4. The middle membrane layer is the arachnoid mater, which has a cobweb appearance.
  5. The pia mater is the innermost layer, which clings to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
  6. Cerebrospinal fluid forms a water cushion that circulates in and around the brain and spinal cord. The CSF protects the CNS from blows and other trauma. Also, remember from a previous chapter that water has a high heat capacity that prevents changes in temperature.

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8) Compare and contrast the functions of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.

Answer:  Both the somatic and autonomic nervous systems are subdivisions of the motor (efferent) division of the peripheral nervous system. The somatic nervous system, or voluntary nervous system, allows us to consciously, or voluntarily, control our skeletal muscles. The autonomic nervous system, or involuntary nervous system, regulates activity of smooth and cardiac muscles and glands.

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Bloom’s:  4) Analysis