Essentials of Understanding Psychology 10th Edition by Robert Feldman- Test Bank

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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

Essentials of Understanding Psychology 10th Edition by Robert Feldman- Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

ch05
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Psychologists use the term _____ to refer to a relatively permanent change in behavior resulting from
experience.
A. growth
B. maturation
C. cognition
D. learning
2. Learning reflects _____. Maturation reflects _____.
A. nurture; nature
B. nature; nurture
C. nature; nature as well
D. nurture; nurture as well
3. _____ is the decrease in response to a stimulus that occurs after repeated presentations of the same
stimulus.
A. Sensation
B. Disinhibition
C. Habituation
D. Conservation
4. You toss a newly purchased felt mouse across the floor; your cat chases it excitedly, clutches it in her
paws and rolls around with it. Several tosses later, your cat yawns pointedly and settles herself for a nap.
The change in your cat’s behavior illustrates:
A. adaptation.
B. habituation.
C. conditioning.
D. maturation.
5. _____ refers to a decrease in the response to a stimulus when it is presented repeatedly, whereas _____
refers to the eventual disappearance of a conditioned response when an unconditioned stimulus is no
longer presented.
A. Extinction; habituation
B. Habituation; extinction
C. Habituation; adaptation
D. Adaptation; habituation
6. _____ is credited with laying the foundation for the study of classical conditioning in psychology.
A. Thorndike
B. Skinner
C. Pavlov
D. Watson
7. _____ is a type of learning in which a neutral stimulus comes to bring about a response after it is paired
with a stimulus that naturally brings about that response.
A. Classical conditioning
B. Operant conditioning
C. Observational learning
D. Instrumental conditioning
8. _____ stimulus is a stimulus that does not naturally bring about the response of interest.
A. Reflexive
B. Unconditioned
C. Neutral
D. Normative
9. _____ stimulus is a stimulus that naturally brings about a particular response without having been
learned.
A. Conditioned
B. Unconditioned
C. Neutral
D. Normative
10. In Pavlov’s study, the UCS was _____; the neutral stimulus was _____; and, finally, the CS was
_____.
A. meat; the bell; meat
B. meat; the bell; the bell
C. the bell; meat; meat
D. meat; meat; the bell
11. Tim loves dill pickles. Now, the sight of a jar on the supermarket shelf makes his mouth water. In the
terminology of classical conditioning, the sight of the jar is a(n) _____.
A. conditioned stimulus
B. unconditioned stimulus
C. neutral stimulus
D. conditioned response
12. Alexis uses cocaine, which activates her sympathetic nervous system. Expecting her dealer, her hands
shake and her heart pounds when she hears a knock on the door. Which alternative below CORRECTLY
identifies the neutral stimulus, the CS, and the UCS?
A. Neutral stimulus—knock on the door; CS—cocaine; UCS—cocaine
B. Neutral stimulus—knock on the door; CS—knock on the door; UCS—pounding heart
C. Neutral stimulus—knock on the door; CS—knock on the door; UCS—cocaine
D. Neutral stimulus—cocaine; CS—knock on the door; UCS—cocaine
13. In classical conditioning, how are the neutral stimulus and the conditioned response related?
A. They are not related; they are completely different stimuli.
B. They are the same thing; the terms are interchangeable.
C. The neutral stimulus becomes the conditioned stimulus.
D. The conditioned stimulus becomes the neutral stimulus.
14. Nature is to nurture what _____ is to _____.
A. conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus
B. conditioned response; unconditioned response
C. neutral stimulus; conditioned stimulus
D. unconditioned response; conditioned response
15. Classical conditioning is most successful when the neutral stimulus begins:
A. just before the unconditioned stimulus begins.
B. at exactly the same time that the unconditioned stimulus begins.
C. long before the unconditioned stimulus begins.
D. immediately after the unconditioned stimulus begins.
16. Which pair below CORRECTLY identifies a stimulus or response in Watson and Rayner’s “Little Albert”
study?
A. Unconditioned stimulus—noise
B. Conditioned stimulus— fear
C. Unconditioned response—rat
D. Neutral stimulus—fear
17. Jonas is a veteran of the war in Iraq. He suffers from PTSD. Now, back home in a quiet California
neighborhood, he jumps when he hears a firecracker or a car backfire. In the terminology of classical
conditioning, these sounds are best thought of as _____ stimuli.
A. neutral
B. unconditioned
C. conditioned
D. normative
18. _____ occurs when a previously conditioned response decreases in frequency and eventually
disappears.
A. Extinction
B. Habituation
C. Adaptation
D. Deconditioning
19. Which of the following scenarios exemplifies extinction?
A.
Alexis is a former cocaine user. Now that she no longer uses cocaine, her hands no longer shake and her
heart no longer pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do in his car.
B. Alexis uses cocaine. She no longer feels quite the same rush as she did when she first started using.
C.
Alexis is a former cocaine user in recovery. After a relapse, though, her hands shake and her heart
pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do in his car.
D. Alexis uses cocaine. She finds that she is slowly losing her sense of smell.
20. Which of the following sequences CORRECTLY arranges the phases of the classical conditioning
process, from first to last?
A. Acquisition → spontaneous recovery → extinction
B. Acquisition → extinction → spontaneous recovery
C. Spontaneous recovery → acquisition → extinction
D. Extinction → acquisition → spontaneous recovery
21. The reemergence of an extinguished conditioned response after a period of rest and with no further
conditioning is known as _____.
A. extinction
B. habituation
C. spontaneous recovery
D. deconditioning
22. Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies spontaneous recovery?
A.
Alexis is a former cocaine user. Now that she no longer uses cocaine, her hands no longer shake and her
heart no longer pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do in his car.
B. Alexis uses cocaine. She no longer feels quite the same rush as she did when she first started using.
C.
Alexis is a former cocaine user in recovery. After a relapse, though, her hands shake and her heart
pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do in his car.
D. Alexis uses cocaine. She finds that she is slowly losing her sense of smell.
23. _____ is a process in which, after a stimulus has been conditioned to produce a particular response,
stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus produce the same response.
A. Stimulus location
B. Stimulus generalization
C. Stimulus reflexive
D. Stimulus discrimination
24. Which of the following is true of stimulus generalization?
A. It is the process that occurs if two stimuli are sufficiently distinct from one another.
B. The greater the similarity between two stimuli, the greater the likelihood of stimulus generalization.
C.
The conditioned response elicited by the new stimulus is usually more intense than the original
conditioned response.
D. Stimulus generalization provides the ability to differentiate between stimuli.
25. Rosa becomes anxious when she enters the examination room at the clinic before a blood test. She also
squirms when she views injections on television. This illustrates:
A. observational learning.
B. stimulus generalization.
C. spontaneous recovery.
D. stimulus discrimination.
26. _____ occurs if two stimuli are sufficiently distinct from each other that one evokes a conditioned
response but the other does not.
A. Stimulus location
B. Stimulus generalization
C. Stimulus diffusion
D. Stimulus discrimination
27. Which of the following terms best expresses the relationship between stimulus generalization and
stimulus discrimination?
A. They are unrelated.
B. They are opposites.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Stimulus discrimination is a type of stimulus generalization.
28. June’s cat runs to the kitchen at the sound of the electric can opener, which she has learned is used to open
her food when her dinner is about to be served. The cat does not run when a blender is used, although it
sounds similar. June’s cat is demonstrating stimulus:
A. control.
B. discrimination.
C. generalization.
D. diffusion.
29. Janine completed several tours of duty in Afghanistan. She suffers from PTSD. Now, back home in
Texas, she is frightened by firecrackers and cars backfiring. The fact that these sounds scare her reflects a
process of stimulus:
A. diffusion.
B. discrimination.
C. generalization.
D. control.
30. Sheryl makes pleasant small talk and pays her boss a compliment before asking for a personal day,
because such a strategy was successful with a few of her previous bosses. This example most clearly
illustrates:
A. stimulus generalization.
B. stimulus control.
C. stimulus discrimination.
D. shaping.
31. Stimulus _____ provides the ability to differentiate between stimuli.
A. control
B. discrimination
C. generalization
D. diffusion
32. In what way does learned taste aversion seem to contradict the basic principles of classical conditioning?
A. In learned taste aversion, the CS and the UCR are separated by only a brief interval.
B. Learned taste aversion can occur after only a single CS-UCR pairing.
C. Learned taste aversion takes longer to develop than do most classical conditioning processes.
D. Learned taste aversion is subject to biologically based constraints while, classical conditioning is not.
33. _____ is learning in which a voluntary response is strengthened or weakened, depending on its favorable
or unfavorable consequences.
A. Classical conditioning
B. Operant conditioning
C. Observational learning
D. Instrumental conditioning
34. Operant conditioning most importantly involves forming associations between:
A. neutral and unconditioned stimuli.
B. stimuli and involuntary behavior.
C. behavior and consequences.
D. conditioned response and reflex.
35. Classical conditioning applies mostly to _____. Operant conditioning applies mainly to _____.
A. biological responses; voluntary responses
B. voluntary behavior; involuntary behavior
C. voluntary behavior; biological behavior
D. involuntary response; involuntary behavior
36. The root of operant conditioning may be traced to _____’s early studies of hungry cats learning to escape
from cages.
A. Skinner
B. Thorndike
C. Watson
D. Pavlov
37. “Responses that lead to satisfying consequences are more likely to be repeated.” This is the law of:
A. consequences.
B. reward.
C. effect.
D. reinforcement.
38. The most influential psychologist to study operant conditioning was:
A. Freud.
B. Watson.
C. Pavlov.
D. Skinner.
39. The process by which a stimulus increases the likelihood that a preceding behavior will be repeated is
called:
A. habituation.
B. reinforcement.
C. learning.
D. spontaneous recovery.
40. Which of the following approaches to treating a phobia is/are CORRECTLY matched with the type of
learning it reflects?
A.
Conditioning client to associate a response of relaxation rather than anxiety to the feared object –
observational learning
B. Reinforcing client directly by interacting with the feared object – operant conditioning
C. Exposing client to a model interacting successfully with the feared object – classical conditioning
D.
A new behavior is learned but not demonstrated until some incentive is provided for displaying it –
Perceptual learning
41. A _____ is any stimulus that increases the probability that a preceding behavior will occur again.
A. catalyst
B. rejoinder
C. reinforcer
D. stimulant
42. Reinforcers that satisfy a biological need are called _____ reinforcers.
A. primary
B. positive
C. unconditioned
D. reflexive
43. Nature is to nurture what _____ reinforcers are to _____ reinforcers.
A. positive; negative
B. secondary; primary
C. unconditioned; conditioned
D. primary; secondary
44. Which of the following reinforcers is INCORRECTLY categorized?
A. Food—primary reinforcer
B. Money—primary reinforcer
C. Praise—secondary reinforcer
D. Relief—primary reinforcer
45. Which of the following is an example of a secondary reinforcer?
A. Food
B. Sex
C. Money
D. Relief
46. As part of a behavior modification program, Kendra and her partner each agree to praise the other if she
completes her assigned household chores by the end of the day. Such praise is an example of:
A. primary reinforcement and positive reinforcement.
B. secondary reinforcement and positive reinforcement.
C. positive reinforcement only.
D. primary reinforcement only.
47. The term reward is synonymous with:
A. positive reinforcement only.
B. reinforcement generally.
C. negative reinforcement only.
D. primary reinforcement only.
48. A(n) _____ reinforcer is a stimulus added to the environment, like getting paid to work, that specifically
brings about an increase in a preceding response.
A. primary
B. positive
C. unconditioned
D. neutral
49. A(n) _____ reinforcer refers to the removal of an unpleasant stimulus, putting on a sweater when your
cold for example, which leads to an increase in the probability that a preceding response will be repeated
in the future.
A. negative
B. secondary
C. unconditioned
D. neutral
50. One reason Carlos continues to work at his job is the check he receives every two weeks. Carlos’
paycheck is a _____ reinforcer.
A. neutral
B. primary
C. secondary
D. negative
51. Dr. DiFonzo notices several students nodding in agreement as he lectures. Subsequently, his rhetoric
becomes more confident and more passionate. The students have provided _____ reinforcement.
A. positive
B. secondary
C. conditioned
D. neutral
52. Negative reinforcement:
A. is the same thing as punishment.
B. increases the likelihood that preceding behaviors will be repeated.
C. decreases the likelihood that a behavior will be performed.
D.
is a stimulus whose removal leads to a decrease in the probability that a preceding response will be
repeated.
53. Which of the following scenarios exemplifies negative reinforcement?
A. Vanna fastens her seatbelt as soon as she gets in her car to stop the annoying alert sound.
B. Drake no longer cuts class, now that his parents confiscated his iPod.
C. Maria now buys a different brand of cigarettes to get two packs for the price of one.
D. Nate no longer arrives late at work following a reprimand from his boss.
54. _____ weakens a response through the application of an unpleasant stimulus.
A. Negative reinforcement
B. Negative punishment
C. Positive punishment
D. Normative reinforcement
55. _____ punishment consists of the removal of something pleasant.
A. Prescriptive
B. Negative
C. Positive
D. Normative
56. Which of the following scenarios exemplify negative punishment?
A. Astrid tells her daughter she is grounded for misbehaving and cannot meet her friends for a week.
B. Carly yells at her husband when he comes home drunk.
C. Jim makes his middle-schoolers run extra laps when they are unruly in gym class.
D. Joanie takes several ibuprofen tablets when she has a headache.
57. Which of the following is an example of positive punishment?
A. You fight with your significant other and walk away
B. Getting a speeding ticket
C. Grounding a child for misbehaving and not letting him/her watch television
D. Giving your dog a treat for rolling over
58. Sheryl’s parents have told her that she is “grounded” and will not be allowed to watch any television for a
week, because she is not completing her assignments on time. This is an example of:
A. negative punishment.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. positive punishment.
D. positive reinforcement.
59. Which of the following is an example of negative punishment?
A. You fight with your significant other and walk away.
B. Spanking a child for misbehaving.
C. Yelling at your spouse for being irresponsible.
D. Informing an employee that he has been demoted because of a poor job evaluation.
60. Which of the following types of consequences is CORRECTLY matched with an example?
A. Positive reinforcement – Vickie applies lotion to lessen the discomfort of a small burn
B. Negative reinforcement – Ella’s parents confiscate her car keys for breaking curfew
C. Positive punishment – Laurel’s mother yells at her when Laurel takes $20 from her mom’s purse
D. Negative punishment – Maddie receives a bonus for outstanding work performance
61. Which of the following types of consequences is CORRECTLY matched with an example?
A. Positive reinforcement – Harvey is suspended when he vandalizes school property
B. Negative reinforcement – Jeff puts up his umbrella when it starts to sprinkle so he won’t get wet
C.
Positive punishment – Jacqueline’s teacher puts a cute sticker on an arithmetic exercise completed
without mistakes
D.
Negative punishment – Tommy receives a written reprimand from his boss following a series of
customer complaints
62. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of punishment?
A. It is ineffective if it is not delivered immediately after the undesirable behavior.
B. Physical punishment sends the message that aggressive behavior is appropriate.
C. It tends to change behavior very slowly.
D. Punishment does not suggest which alternative behaviors might be more desirable.
63. Behavior that is reinforced every time it occurs is said to be on a(n) _____ reinforcement schedule
A. secondary
B. positive
C. intermittent
D. continuous
64. You don’t receive a smile or a “thank you” each time you hold a door for the person behind you. It is
acknowledged sometimes. Door-holding is reinforced on a(n) _____ reinforcement schedule.
A. continuous
B. partial
C. regular
D. fixed
65. Vending machine is to slot machine what _____ reinforcement is to _____ reinforcement.
A. secondary; primary
B. continuous; intermittent
C. partial; intermittent
D. variable; fixed
66. A fixed-ratio schedule is a schedule:
A. by which reinforcement is given only after a specific number of responses are made.
B. by which reinforcement occurs after a varying number of responses rather than after a fixed number.
C.
that provides reinforcement for a response only if a fixed time period has elapsed, making overall rates
of response relatively low.
D. by which the time between reinforcements varies around some average rather than being fixed.
67. Which of the following promotions exemplifies the use of a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement?
A.
A café prints “You are a winner” on a random one-twelfth of its coffee lids; patrons receiving such a lid
can redeem it for a free beverage.
B.
A café offers its customers a punch card. Each time a patron purchases a beverage, a hole is punched;
when ten holes are punched, the patron receives a free beverage.
C.
A café offers each patron an early morning two-for-one free-beverage-with-purchase deal from 5 to 6
a.m. on Monday mornings.
D. Now and then, a café announces a two-for-one deal.
68. Dr. Arceneaux wants his students to take advantage of online practice quizzes on his course site. Which
of the following is the most effective plan to increase the number of practice quizzes completed?
A. 1 bonus point for every 2 online practice quizzes completed
B. 5 points deducted from course total if no quizzes are completed
C. 1 bonus point awarded every 2 weeks if 2 or more quizzes have been completed
D.
1 bonus point awarded every now and then (about 2 weeks on average) if 2 or more quizzes have been
completed recently
69. A variable-ratio schedule is a schedule:
A. by which reinforcement is given only after a specific number of responses are made.
B.
by which reinforcement occurs after a fluctuating number of responses rather than after a fixed
number.
C.
that provides reinforcement for a response only if a fixed time period has elapsed, making overall rates
of response relatively low.
D. by which the time between reinforcements varies around some average rather than being fixed.
70. Dr. Arceneaux has developed several alternative plans to increase the number of online practice quizzes
his students complete. Which plan below is incorrectly matched with the related schedule?
A. 1 bonus point for every two online practice quizzes completed—fixed-ratio
B. 1 bonus point awarded every 2 weeks if two or more quizzes have been completed—fixed-interval
C.
1 bonus point awarded every now and then (about 2 weeks on average) if two or more quizzes have
been completed recently—variable-ratio
D.
1 bonus point awarded randomly, either for every 2 online quizzes taken or 2 bonus points for all those
students taken within the first week—variable interval
71. Imagine that you graphed the cumulative number of bar-press responses over time of four rats, each
reinforced on a different one of the four schedules of intermittent reinforcement. Each rat’s behavior is
graphed on a separate line. The line with the greatest slope should be that displaying the behavior of the
rat reinforced on the _____ schedule.
A. fixed-ratio
B. fixed-interval
C. variable-interval
D. variable-ratio
72. In general, _____ schedules of reinforcement yield high response rates.
A. variable-interval
B. fixed-interval
C. variable-ratio
D. fixed-ratio
73. Typically long pauses in responding are found in _____ schedules.
A. fixed-interval
B. fixed-ratio
C. variable-interval
D. variable-ratio
74. A privately funded program pays low-income parents $50 every two months for each child who attends
school regularly during that period. This incentive illustrates a _____ schedule of reinforcement.
A. fixed-interval
B. fixed-ratio
C. variable-interval
D. variable-ratio
75. A fixed-interval schedule is a schedule:
A. by which reinforcement is given only after a specific number of responses are made.
B. by which reinforcement occurs after a varying number of responses rather than after a fixed number.
C.
that provides reinforcement for a response only if an unvarying time period has elapsed, making overall
rates of response relatively low.
D. by which the time between reinforcements varies around some average rather than being constant.
76. Paychecks and semester grades are delivered on a _____ schedule of reinforcement.
A. fixed-ratio
B. fixed-interval
C. variable-ratio
D. variable-interval
77. A variable-interval schedule is a schedule:
A. by which reinforcement is given only after a specific number of responses are made.
B. by which reinforcement occurs after a varying number of responses rather than after a fixed number.
C.
that provides reinforcement for a response only if a fixed time period has elapsed, making overall rates
of response relatively low.
D. by which the time between reinforcements fluctuates around some average rather than being fixed.
78. Which of the following is true about stimulus control training?
A. In stimulus control training, a behavior is reinforced in the presence of a specific stimulus.
B. In stimulus control training, a behavior is reinforced in the absence of a specific stimulus.
C.
Stimulus control training is the process of teaching a complex behavior by rewarding closer and closer
approximations of the desired behaviour.
D.
Stimulus control training is the process of teaching a simple behavior by rewarding closer and closer
approximations of the desired behaviour.
79. Which of the following does not accurately reflect a distinction between classical and operant
conditioning?
A.
Classical conditioning entails forming an association between stimuli; operant conditioning involves
forming an association between a behavior and its consequences.
B.
Classical conditioning applies to voluntary behavior, while operant conditioning applies to involuntary
behavior.
C.
In the case of classical conditioning, before conditioning, an unconditioned stimulus leads to an
unconditioned response; in operant conditioning reinforcement leads to an increase in behavior.
D.
In the case of classical conditioning, after conditioning, a conditioned stimulus leads to a conditioned
response; in operant conditioning punishment leads to a decrease in behavior.
80. Which of the following is true of classical conditioning?
A.
Its basic principle is that reinforcement increases the frequency of the behavior preceding it;
punishment decreases the frequency of the behavior preceding it.
B. It applies to involuntary behavior.
C. According to classical conditioning, reinforcement leads to an increase in behavior.
D.
According to classical conditioning, organism voluntarily operates on its environment to produce a
desirable result. After behavior occurs, the likelihood of the behavior occurring again is increased or
decreased by the behavior’s consequences.
81. Ewan is convinced that a woman across the bar is “sending signals.” A learning theorist would term such
signals:
A. conditioned stimuli.
B. discriminative stimuli.
C. positive reinforcers.
D. intermittent reinforcers.
82. The process of teaching complex behavior by reinforcing ever closer approximations of the desired
behavior is called:
A. stimulus control training.
B. discrimination training.
C. shaping.
D. behavior modification.
83. Mrs. Martin, a third-grade teacher, is instructing cursive writing. At first, she reinforces even crude
attempts to reproduce letters with an encouraging word; as time goes on, though, she reinforces only
well-formed letters. By reinforcing progressively better attempts at writing letters, Mrs. Martin is
using:
A. discrimination training.
B. shaping.
C. stimulus control training.
D. behavior modification.
84. Dr. Simonelli is a practicing behavior analyst. What does she do?
A. She helps clients explore the unconscious motivations behind their behaviors.
B. She helps clients change how they think about their own behavior and that of others.
C. She specializes in behavior modification techniques.
D. She conducts basic research into conditioning mechanisms and principles.
85. _____ is a formalized technique for promoting the frequency of desirable conducts and decreasing the
incidence of unwanted ones.
A. Functional modification
B. Genetic modification
C. Posttranslational modification
D. Behavior modification
86. The cognitive learning concept of _____ learning is associated most prominently with _____.
A. latent; Tolman
B. latent; Thorndike
C. implicit; Tolman
D. implicit; Thorndike
87. The _____ is an approach to the study of learning that focuses on the thought processes that underlie
learning.
A. transformative learning theory
B. behavioral learning theory
C. cognitive learning theory
D. constructivism learning theory
88. Psychologists working within the cognitive learning perspective:
A. deny the importance of classical and operant conditioning.
B. go beyond classical and operant conditioning.
C. perform research essentially identical to that conducted by more traditional learning theorists.
D. have probably never heard of classical and operant conditioning.
89. Which of the following does the cognitive learning theory emphasize?
A. Expectations
B. Imitation
C. Consolidation
D. Associations
90. The focus of classical and operant conditioning is on _____; the focus of the cognitive learning approach
is on _____.
A. external stimuli, responses, and reinforcement; internal thoughts and expectations of learners
B. external stimuli, responses, and reinforcement; external stimuli, responses, and reinforcement as well
C. internal thoughts and expectations of learners; external stimuli, responses, and reinforcement
D. internal thoughts and expectations of learners; internal thoughts and expectations of learners as well
91. Learning in which a new behavior is acquired but is not demonstrated until some incentive is provided for
displaying it is known as _____ learning.
A. tangential
B. latent
C. perceptual
D. spatial
92. Which theorist is CORRECTLY matched with the concept with which he is associated?
A. Bandura—classical conditioning
B. Tolman—latent learning
C. Pavlov—observational learning
D. Watson—associative learning
93. _____ learning occurs without reinforcement.
A. Latent
B. Operant
C. Subliminal
D. Manifest
94. Recall Tolman’s latent learning experiments in which rats learned to run a maze. What was the critical
result?
A. Rats that were never given an incentive, never learned to run the maze.
B. Rats that were never given an incentive still learned to run the maze.
C.
Rats that began to receive an incentive halfway through the experiment rapidly matched the
performance of rats that had been reinforced from the beginning of the experiment.
D. Rats that began to receive an incentive halfway through the experiment never learned to run the maze.
95. A(n) _____ is a mental representation of spatial locations and directions.
A. algorithm
B. prototype
C. cognitive map
D. perceptual blueprint
96. You have a kind of picture in your head of your hometown, a mental representation of its layout and
the location of key landmarks, like rivers, buildings, freeways, and parks. This representation is called
a(n):
A. internal navigator.
B. mental GPS.
C. cognitive map.
D. perceptual blueprint.
97. Learning by watching the behavior of another person, or model is known as _____.
A. perceptual learning
B. observational learning
C. latent learning
D. tangential learning
98. Bandura’s “Bobo doll” experiments were intended to demonstrate:
A. shaping.
B. observational learning.
C. latent learning.
D. stimulus control training.
99. Observational learning is based in part on the activity of _____ neurons in the brain.
A. mirror
B. reflexive
C. imitative
D. modeling
100.Which of the following statements INCORRECTLY describes the effects on observational learning of the
reinforcement or punishment of the model?
A. We are more likely to imitate reward models than we are to imitate non-reward models.
B. Observational learning does not occur when the model is punished.
C. Observing the punishment of a model does not stop observers from learning the behavior.
D. Observational learning is likely to occur when the model is rewarded.
101.Which of the following parts of the brain is associated with the process of mentalizing?
A. Amygdala
B. Prefrontal cortex
C. Hippocampus
D. Thalamus
102.According to the text, the average child in the U.S. has viewed more than _____ murders on network TV
by the time he or she graduates from elementary school.
A. 12
B. 500
C. 8,000
D. 6,000
103.According to one survey, approximately one-_____ of violent young male offenders in Florida had
attempted to commit a media-inspired copycat crime.
A. fifth
B. fourth
C. third
D. half
104.According to the text, exposure to actual firearm violence increases by a factor of _____ the likelihood
that an adolescent will commit serious violence within the succeeding two years.
A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
105.Travis is an intuitive thinker with a highly developed ability to remember verbal material, especially if
it is highly relevant. Janet is detail-oriented, with an excellent memory for abstract material. She is not
easily dissuaded by dull tasks. Which of the following statements best identifies the learning styles of
these two individuals?
A. Travis has an analytical learning style. Janet’s learning style is relational.
B. Travis has a relational learning style. Janet’s learning style is analytical.
C. Both Travis and Janet have analytical learning styles.
D. Both Travis and Janet have relational learning styles.
106.Which alternative below CORRECTLY pairs a learning style described in your text with one of its
characteristics?
A. Relational style – shows intuitive thinking
B. Relational style – able to focus on details
C. Analytical style – displays improvisational, intuitive thinking
D. Analytical style – displays good memory for relevant, verbal material
107.Neal, an Asian-American student would most likely:
A. focus on detail.
B. have a good memory for verbally presented ideas and information.
C. learn materials that have a human, social content.
D. perceive information as part of total picture.
108.An analytic learning style is most likely to be displayed by:
A. Caucasian males.
B. Asian-American females.
C. Hispanic-American females.
D. Native-American males.
109.Which of the following students is most likely to display an analytical learning style?
A. Jamal, an African-American male
B. Lee, an Asian-American male
C. Mona, a Caucasian female
D. Nina, a Hispanic-American female
110._____ is a decline in the behavioral response following repeated exposure to the same stimulus.
________________________________________
111.In Pavlov’s study, the bell is both a(n) _____ stimulus and a conditioned stimulus.
________________________________________
112.A bright flash automatically causes us to blink. It is a(n) _____ response.
________________________________________
113._____ are intense, irrational fears.
________________________________________
114._____ occurs when an extinguished conditioned response reappears after a period of rest.
________________________________________
115.Adam was badly stung by a bee when he was a child. Now he is frightened not only of bees but of all
flying insects. This example illustrates _____.
________________________________________
116.Olympia consumed some poorly stored sushi on a hot day; she became violently ill. Now Olympia can’t
stand the sight of sushi. She has developed a(n) _____.
________________________________________
117.A stimulus that increases the probability that a preceding behavior will be repeated is termed a(n)
_____.
________________________________________
118.Money is an example of a _____ reinforcer.
________________________________________
119.Positive punishment _____ a response through the application of an unpleasant stimulus.
________________________________________
120.A weekly paycheck is an example of _____ schedule.
________________________________________
121.When a behavior is reinforced in the presence of a specific stimulus, but not in its absence it is known as
_____ training.
________________________________________
122.When your partner says “I’m going up to bed early,” you follow expectantly. When he or she says, “I’m
tired,” you stay behind and say you’ll read in the living room for a while. This is an example of a _____
stimulus.
________________________________________
123.Shaping is one way that organisms learn _____ behavior.
________________________________________
124.Dr. Margate specializes in using behavior modification techniques to help adults engage in healthpromoting
behaviors, such as exercising, quitting smoking, and so forth. Dr. Margate is a behavior
_____.
________________________________________
125.Dr. Tabachnik focuses on the expectations participants develop regarding the likelihood that a given
behavior will be punished. Dr. Tabachnik might be described as a(n) _____ theorist.
________________________________________
126.In the latent learning study described in the text, the rats that were reinforced only during the latter
portion of the experiment would be considered a(n) _____ group.
________________________________________
127.In observational learning, the organism whose behavior is observed is termed the _____.
________________________________________
128._____ is a process which involves understanding someone’s mental state.
________________________________________
129.Although a “phonics” approach to reading instruction might capitalize on an analytic learning style,
the “whole-word” approach may be better suited to a(n) _____ learning style.
________________________________________
130.Explain classical conditioning with a suitable example.
131.In the case of Pavlov and his dog identify and describe the following: neutral stimulus, unconditioned
stimulus, unconditioned response, conditioned stimulus, and conditioned response.
132.Making specific reference to such terms as UCS, CS, UCR, CR, and stimulus generalization, explain how
classical conditioning may account for the development of a specific phobia.
133.Making reference to neutral, unconditioned, conditioned stimuli, unconditioned, and conditioned
responses, distinguish between (a) extinction and spontaneous recovery and (b) stimulus generalization
and stimulus discrimination. Give an original example of either extinction or spontaneous recovery, and
of either stimulus generalization and stimulus discrimination.
134.How have psychologists challenged Pavlov’s traditional account of classical conditioning?
135.Imagine that you are a parent, a teacher, or a supervisor in a workplace. Give specific examples of how
you might use (a) positive reinforcement, (b) negative reinforcement, (c) positive punishment, and (d)
negative punishment to bring about desirable changes in the behavior of a child, student, or subordinate
worker.
136.Suppose that you are asked to lead a workshop for parents on the use of punishment and reinforcement
to manage child and adolescent behavior. What might you tell the parents regarding the appropriate and
inappropriate use of punishment? Provide concrete examples to support your points. Suggest how parents
might use punishment more effectively and how they might substitute reinforcement for punishment.
Provide concrete examples to support your points.
137.What are the pros and cons of punishment?
138.Draw on your knowledge of positive and negative reinforcement, punishment, schedules of
reinforcement, stimulus control training, discriminative stimuli, shaping, and biological constraints on
learning to describe how you might use operant conditioning to train domestic animals—e.g., dogs, cats,
horses, etc.—to perform desired behaviors.
139.Identify and define the four schedules of intermittent or partial reinforcement. Provide day-to-day
examples of each of the four schedules. Identify two specific ways that college professors might use our
understanding of the schedules to increase the frequency with which students study course materials.
140.Identify a behavior of your own that you would like to perform more frequently (e.g., studying,
completing household chores or yard work) or less frequently (e.g., snacking, smoking cigarettes).
Outline a step-by-step behavior modification program that might help you achieve your goal.
141.How do the phenomena of latent and observational learning force a reconsideration of the view of
learning offered by classical and operant conditioning theorists? Provide as thoughtful a response as you
can.
142.Briefly describe what observational learning and Bandura’s BoBo doll research. Discuss how this
research altered conventional views of learning. What role might mirror neurons play in observational
learning?
143.Observational learning research suggests that seeing others reinforced for particular behaviors may
encourage our own acquisition of similar behaviors. To what extent is exposure to media violence
associated with the acquisition of aggressive behavior?
144.To what extent does culture influence learning style? Distinguish between analytic and relational learning
styles and suggest how they might vary across sociocultural groups. How might they reflect cross-cultural
differences in parenting or teaching practices?
ch05 Key

To demonstrate classical conditioning, Pavlov attached a tube to the salivary gland of a dog, allowing him to measure precisely the dog’s
salivation. He then rang a bell and, just a few seconds later, presented the dog with meat. This pairing occurred repeatedly and was carefully
planned so that, each time, exactly the same amount of time elapsed between the presentation of the bell and the meat. At first the dog would
salivate only when the meat was presented, but soon it began to salivate at the sound of the bell. In fact, even when Pavlov stopped presenting the
meat, the dog still salivated after hearing the sound. The dog had been classically conditioned to salivate to the bell.
Classical conditioning is a type of learning in which a neutral stimulus (such as the experimenter’s footsteps) comes to elicit a response after being
paired with a stimulus (such as food) that naturally brings about that response.
130. (p. 170) Students’ examples may vary.
We also have meat, which naturally causes a dog to salivate—the response we are interested in conditioning. The meat is considered an
unconditioned stimulus (UCS) because food placed in a dog’s mouth automatically causes salivation to occur. The response that the meat elicits
(salivation) is called an unconditioned response (UCR)—a natural, innate, reflexive response that is not associated with previous learning.
Unconditioned responses are always brought about by the presence of unconditioned stimuli. When conditioning is complete, the bell has evolved
from a neutral stimulus to a conditioned stimulus (CS). At this time, salivation that occurs as a response to the conditioned stimulus (bell) is
considered a conditioned response (CR). After conditioning, then, the conditioned stimulus evokes the conditioned response.
131. (p. 170-171) Before conditioning, there are two unrelated stimuli: the ringing of a bell and meat. We know that normally the ringing of a bell
does not lead to salivation but to some irrelevant response, such as pricking up the ears or perhaps a startle reaction. The bell is therefore called the
neutral stimulus, because it is a stimulus that, before conditioning, does not naturally bring about the response in which we are interested.
Example: Fear of flying: A fear of flying may be seen as essentially a fear of falling, of the loss of bodily support. During a period of turbulence,
a flight passenger may experience a dropping or plummeting sensation, an unconditioned stimulus eliciting an unconditioned fear response.
Surrounding stimuli, such as the flight cabin, may act as conditioned stimuli capable of eliciting a conditioned fear response. This response may
generalize to the airplane itself and to other stimuli associated with flying.
132. (p. 174-176) The acquisition of a phobia begins with an unconditioned stimulus that reflexively elicits a startled, anxious, or fearful response.
Such UCSs include loud noises, a loss of bodily support, and tissue damage. Neutral stimuli occurring along with the unconditioned stimulus may
become conditioned stimuli, able to elicit a conditioned response of fear or anxiety. In Watson and Rayner’s “Little Albert” study, for example,
a previously neutral white rat was presented along with an unconditioned stimulus of loud noise; Little Albert came to fear the rat. Through the
process of stimulus generalization, fear or anxiety may be elicited not only by the original CS, but by similar stimuli as well; Little Albert, for
example, became fearful of other white or furry objects in addition to rats.
Stimulus generalization vs. stimulus discrimination: Stimulus generalization occurs when a conditioned stimulus is elicited not only by the original
conditioned stimulus, but also by similar stimuli. An individual with a needle phobia may react with anxiety not only to injections or blood tests,
but to also to the mere sight of an injection on television or of a discarded needle on the sidewalk. By contrast, stimulus generalization occurs
when a stimulus that might seem somewhat similar to the original conditioned stimulus fails to elicit the conditioned stimulus. For example, an
individual with a needle phobia may react with anxiety to the sight of an injection on television or of a discarded needle on the sidewalk, but not to
the sight of scissors, knives, or other sharp objects.
Extinction vs. spontaneous recovery: Extinction refers to the weakening and eventual disappearance of a conditioned response when the
conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. For example, a cat conditioned to run toward the
kitchen at the sound of an electric can opener may eventually stop doing so when its owner begins to feed it only dry food, rather than canned wet
food. Spontaneous recovery refers to the reemergence of an extinguished conditioned response when the unconditioned stimulus is again presented
along with the conditioned stimulus. Returning to the previous example, a cat may immediately resume running toward the kitchen at the sound of
the can opener when its owner again feeds it canned wet food after a period of feeding it only dry food.
133. (p. 174-176) The answer should contain the following points:
Learning theorists influenced by cognitive psychology have argued that learners actively develop an understanding and expectancy about which
particular unconditioned stimuli are matched with specific conditioned stimuli. A ringing bell, for instance, gives a dog something to think
about: the impending arrival of food Pavlov implied that all associations may be acquired with more or less equal ease. However, it appears that
organisms are biologically prepared to learn certain associations more readily than others. One example is conditioned taste aversion. If a food
makes an organism sick, the organism may acquire an association between stimuli associated with the food, such as its appearance or smell, and
illness or nausea rapidly, perhaps after a single experience with illness following the food.
134. (p. 175) Psychologists have challenged Pavlov’s original description of classical conditioning by suggesting that biology influences the ease
with which associations may be conditioned.
Negative punishment. A supervisor may eliminate a perk such as free coffee when employees abuse workplace privileges. Workers should be less
likely to abuse privileges in the future.
Positive punishment. A supervisor may lecture an employee for making an off-color remark to another worker; the employee may be less likely to
make such remarks in the future.
Negative reinforcement. A supervisor may grant an employee a personal day or an extended lunch hour for exemplary work performance,
encouraging high performance in the future.
Positive reinforcement. A supervisor may give an employee a value card to a local restaurant or department store following a highly productive
week, thereby encouraging future productivity.
Supervisor:
Negative punishment. A child may be forced to sit alone in a corner or in the cloakroom if he or she behaves aggressively toward classmates;
aggressive behavior should decrease in the future as a result.
Positive punishment. A teacher may write harsh comments on a carelessly done homework assignment, perhaps reducing the likelihood that
assignments will be completed sloppily in the future.
Negative reinforcement. A teacher may eliminate a homework assignment if recent homework has been completed in a timely and accurate
fashion; the student’s performance may improve in the future as a result.
Positive reinforcement. A teacher may praise a student for completing an assignment without errors, thereby increasing the likelihood that he or
she will complete assignments correctly in the future.
Teacher:
Negative punishment. A parent may send a child to his or her room without dessert if the child throws a tantrum during the evening meal. The
child should be less likely to throw tantrums in the future.
Positive punishment. A parent may reprimand a child harshly for hitting a sibling. The child should be less likely to hit the sibling in the future.
Negative reinforcement. Following the exemplary completion of a series of chores, a parent might excuse the child from an odious chore he or she
may have originally been expected to perform. The child may be more likely in the future to complete his or her chores.
Positive reinforcement. A parent may give a child money for completing household chores, thereby increasing the likelihood that he or she will
complete chores in the future.
Parent:
The answer might include examples such as the following:
135. (p. 180-181) Students’ examples may vary.
Punishment is often used ineffectively by parents. First, punishment is only effective if it is delivered immediately after the undesirable behavior.
For example, the threat, “Wait until your father gets home!” will do little to stop a toddler from writing on the wall. If punishment is to be used,
it should be delivered while the behavior is underway. Second, the use of physical punishment—e.g., spanking, whipping—conveys the message
that physical aggression is appropriate. It may cause the child to fear or evade the parent, and it may damage a child’s self-esteem. A child may
conceal his undesirable behavior, such as by writing on the walls inside a closet. Third, punishment is really only effective if it is accompanied by
the reinforcement of desirable alternatives to the punished behavior. A parent might additionally reinforce drawing or writing on paper rather than
on the wall, rather than only punishing the child when he writes on the wall. Punishment in and of itself does little to convey information regarding
more appropriate behaviors.
Punishment is sometimes appropriate. It is the most rapid means of suppressing behavior that may be dangerous to continue, such as running into
the street or playing with matches. Punishment has also been applied successfully to prevent self-injury among autistic children.
136. (p. 181-182) Students’ examples may vary.
Punishment has several disadvantages that make its routine questionable. For one thing, punishment is frequently ineffective, particularly if it
is not delivered shortly after the undesired behavior or if the individual is able to leave the setting in which the punishment is being given. Even
worse, physical punishment can convey to the recipient the idea that physical aggression is permissible and perhaps even desirable. In addition,
physical punishment is often administered by people who are themselves angry or enraged. It is unlikely that individuals in such an emotional state
will be able to think through what they are doing or control carefully the degree of punishment they are inflicting. Finally, punishment does not
convey any information about what an alternative, more appropriate behavior might be. To be useful in bringing about more desirable behavior
in the future, punishment must be accompanied by specific information about the behavior that is being punished, along with specific suggestions
concerning a more desirable behavior.
137. (p. 180-181) Punishment often presents the quickest route to changing behavior that, if allowed to continue, might be dangerous to an
individual. There are some rare instances in which punishment can be the most humane approach to treating certain severe disorders. For example,
some children suffer from autism, a psychological disorder that can lead them to abuse themselves by tearing at their skin or banging their heads
against the wall, injuring themselves severely in the process. In such cases—and when all other treatments have failed—punishment in the form of
a quick but intense electric shock has been used to prevent self-injurious behavior. Such punishment, however, is used only to keep the child safe
and to buy time until positive reinforcement procedures can be initiated.
Biological constraints on learning. We may take advantage of species-typical behaviors to train animals. Examples include the tendency of cats to
bury their feces, the tendency of some breeds of dogs to burrow, and so on.
Shaping. When training a puppy to sit on command, we might reinforce successive approximations to the desired behavior. For example, we might
initially reinforce even fairly general squatting motions; later we might reinforce only a full sit.
Stimulus control training and discriminative stimuli. We might wish to train a cat to use an outdoor litter box rather than a flower bed; we might
reinforce the cat for using the box but punish it for using the flower bed.
Schedules of reinforcement. When training a puppy to sit on command, we might reinforce it on a continuous schedule at first to facilitate the
acquisition of the behavior; we may then fade the reinforcement schedule, reinforcing it on a fixed- or variable-ratio intermittent schedule to make
the behavior resistant to extinction.
Punishment. We may squirt a cat with water each time it climbs on the furniture or the curtains.
Positive reinforcement. We may reward a kitten with a cuddle when it begins to use its litter box.
138. (p. 180-186) Students’ answers may vary.
Professors might try to take advantage of the higher rates of responding seen under ratio schedules. Using an FR schedule, for example, professors
could award points for each chapter summary or review completed. The text also suggests that giving quizzes on a VI rather than an FI schedule—
that is, giving “pop” quizzes—might encourage students to study more regularly.
Variable-ratio (VR). Reinforcement is delivered following a variable number of responses. Salespeople are reinforced with sales on such a
schedule. Slot machines deliver payoffs on a VR schedule.
Variable-interval (VI). Reinforcement is delivered following a time period that varies around an average. Fishing and holding on the phone are
reinforced on a VI schedule.
Fixed-ratio (FR). Reinforcement is delivered following a set or constant number of responses. Piecework offers a typical example.
Fixed-interval (FI). Reinforcement is delivered following a set or constant time period. Typical examples include grades and paychecks.
Definitions and examples:
Four schedules of intermittent reinforcement: Fixed-interval (FI), fixed-ratio (FR), variable-interval (VI), and variable-ratio (VR) schedules.
The answer should include the following:
139. (p. 183-184) Students’ examples may vary.
Evaluating and altering the ongoing program. Compare program data to the baseline data to determine the success of the program. If the program
has been successful, it can be gradually faded; if it has not, changes may be made.
Keeping records. Monitor target behaviors. Example: record the number of cigarettes smoked each day; record the delivery of reinforcements, etc.
Implementing the program. Apply the program consistently.
Selecting a behavior change strategy. Select strategies based on operant conditioning principles. More than one strategy should be used. For
example, one might reward oneself with a desired activity (e.g., a phone call to a friend) each day that one meets the five-cigarette target. One
might also reinforce activities incompatible with smoking cigarettes, such as visiting the gym.
Designing a data-recording system and recording preliminary data. Collect baseline data. Example: record the number of cigarettes smoked each
day for one week prior to attempting to change the behavior.
Identifying goals and target behaviors. Define the desired behavior change and state goals and specific targets in observable, measurable terms.
Example: Goal—to smoke fewer cigarettes; Target—to smoke no more than five cigarettes each day.
140. (p. 189) The behavior students identify may differ.
In Tolman’s latent learning work, rats who began reinforcement for running a maze only halfway through the experiment rapidly matched
the performance of rats who had been receiving reinforcement from the beginning, suggesting that they had been developing some internal
representation of the maze all along. Reinforcement was not necessary for learning to occur; it was necessary only for the demonstration of
learning in behavior. In Bandura’s “Bobo doll” experiments, children only needed to see a model reinforced for aggressive behavior to become
more aggressive themselves. Observational learning is supported internally by networks of mirror neurons.
141. (p. 192-194) Two key ideas should form the core of the answer: (1) latent and observational learning phenomena suggest that direct
reinforcement may not be necessary for an individual to learn; and (2) latent and observational learning phenomena suggest that internal processes
may be a necessary component of any complete explanation of learning.
142. (p. 194-196) According to psychologist Albert Bandura and colleagues, a major part of human learning consists of observational learning,
which is learning by watching the behavior of another person, or model. Because of its reliance on observation of others—a social phenomenon—
the perspective taken by Bandura is often referred to as a social cognitive approach to learning. Observational learning is particularly important
in acquiring skills in which the operant conditioning technique of shaping is inappropriate. Observational learning may have a genetic basis. For
example, we find observational learning at work with mother animals teaching their young such activities as hunting. In addition, the discovery
of mirror neurons that fire when we observe another person carrying out a behavior suggests that the capacity to imitate others may be innate. Not
all behavior that we witness is learned or carried out, of course. One crucial factor that determines whether we later imitate a model is whether
the model is rewarded for his or her behavior. Models who are rewarded for behaving in a particular way are more apt to be mimicked than are
models who receive punishment. Observing the punishment of a model, however, does not necessarily stop observers from learning the behavior.
Observers can still describe the model’s behavior—they are just less apt to perform it. Observational learning is central to a number of important
issues relating to the extent to which people learn simply by watching the behavior of others.
The text mentions three specific mechanisms by which media violence may contribute to real-life aggression: (1) it may lower inhibitions against
behaving aggressively; (2) it may predispose us to see others’ behavior as aggressive even when it is not; and (3) it may desensitize us to violence.
—College students who frequently played violent video games were more likely to have been involved in delinquent behavior and aggression
—One survey of incarcerated, violent young male offenders showed that 25% had tried to commit a media-inspired copycat crime.
143. (p. 194-195) Different levels of media violence are associated with aggressive behavior. The text offers the following evidence:
Parenting and teaching practices may encourage the development of one or the other of the learning styles. Western education tends to reinforce
the acquisition of an analytic style, as does Caucasian-American parenting; it is possible that parenting styles among other sociocultural groups
tend to encourage a more relational style.
Caucasian and Asian-American males tend to display an analytic learning style; Caucasian females and African-, Native-, and Hispanic-American
males and females tend to display a relational style.
Relational learning style—Individuals with a relational learning style perform best when they are first exposed to a full unit or complete
phenomenon; the individual parts are best understood through their relationship to the whole.
Analytic learning style—Individuals with an analytic learning style perform best when they can undertake an initial analysis of the principles and
components underlying a phenomenon.
144. (p. 197-198) The answer should include the following elements:
ch05 Summary
Category # of Questions
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2 41
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 1.3 33
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 1.3, 4.2 5
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 1.3, 4.2, 4.4 3
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 1.3, 4.2, 9.3 2
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 1.3, 4.4 21
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 1.3, 7.3 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 1.3, 9.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 2.3, 4.4 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.1 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.2 10
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.4 6
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.4, 5.5, 8.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 5.5, 8.2 3
APA Goal Outcome: 1.3 3
APA Goal Outcome: 1.3, 2.4 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.3, 4.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.3, 4.2, 9.3 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.3, 4.4, 10.4 1
APA Goal Outcome: 10.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 2.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 4.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 4.2 2
APA Goal Outcome: 4.2, 4.4, 9.3 1
APA Goal Outcome: 4.4 1
APA Goal Outcome: 4.4, 10.2 1
Blooms Taxonomy: Apply 35
Blooms Taxonomy: Remember 55
Blooms Taxonomy: Understand 54
Difficulty: Easy 67
Difficulty: Medium 77
Feldman – Chapter 05 144
Learning Outcome: 15-1 6
Learning Outcome: 15-2 38
Learning Outcome: 16-1 61
Learning Outcome: 16-2 4
Learning Outcome: 17-1 33
Learning Outcome: 18-1 2ch07
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. _____ psychology is the branch of psychology that focuses on the study of higher mental processes,
including thinking, language, memory, problem solving, knowing, reasoning, and judging.
A. Clinical
B. Developmental
C. Cognitive
D. Evolutionary
2. Which of the following is true about mental images?
A. They refer only to visual representations.
B. They have only a few of the properties of the actual stimuli they represent.
C. They are representations in the mind of an object or event.
D. They cannot be rotated.
3. Which of the following statements best expresses the nature of mental images?
A. They are binary in format.
B. They are always auditory in format.
C. They may be produced by any sensory modality.
D. They are linguistic.
4. Dr. Randazza shows participants a stylized map of a fictitious city. The map includes landmarks, such
as a post office, a library, a shopping mall, a bus depot, and an airport. Some of the landmarks are close
together, such as the library and the post office. Others are far apart, such as the airport and the shopping
mall. Dr. Randazza removes the map. Participants are asked to imagine walking from one landmark to
another, either a nearby one or a more distant one. Participants press a key when they’ve reached the
destination in their minds. Based on your text’s discussion of mental imagery, what do you think Dr.
Randazza should find? What would such a result say about mental imagery?
A.
Participants should take the same amount of time to travel mentally between distant as between close
landmarks. This result would suggest that mental imagery reflects the actual actions we perform with
respect to real objects.
B.
Participants should take the same amount of time to travel mentally between distant as between close
landmarks. This result would suggest that mental imagery does not reflect the actual actions we perform
with respect to real objects.
C
.
Participants should take longer to travel mentally between distant than between close landmarks. This
result would suggest that mental imagery reflects the actual actions we perform with respect to real
objects.
D.
Participants should take longer to travel mentally between distant than between close landmarks. This
result would suggest that mental imagery does not reflect the actual actions we perform with respect to
real objects.
5. Clint is mentally rehearsing his golf swing in his mind’s eye. Based on the text’s discussion of mental
imagery, which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
A
.
Clint’s mental rehearsal should improve his golf swing. Carrying out the task involves the same network
of brain cells as the network used in mentally rehearsing it.
B.
Clint’s mental rehearsal should do little to improve his golf swing. The brain areas active during Clint’s
mental rehearsal should be the same as those active when Clint actually swings the golf club.
C.
Clint’s mental rehearsal should improve his golf swing. The brain areas active during Clint’s mental
rehearsal should be different than those active when Clint actually swings the golf club.
D.
Clint’s mental rehearsal should do little to improve his golf swing. The brain areas active during Clint’s
mental rehearsal should be different than those active when Clint actually swings the golf club.
6. Mental representations of objects are called _____; mental grouping of similar objects, events, or people
are called _____.
A. images; concepts
B. images; images as well
C. concepts; concepts as well
D. concepts; images
7. Which of the following is most nearly synonymous with the term concept, as it is used by cognitive
psychologists?
A. Idea
B. Relationship
C. Category
D. Image
8. Mental groupings of objects, events, or people that share common features are called:
A. concepts.
B. ideas.
C. heuristics.
D. algorithms.
9. A prototype is:
A. the most typical or highly representative example of a concept.
B. the first example of a concept that one encounters.
C. the most frequent or common example of a concept.
D. the most unusual or distinctive example of a concept.
10. Which of the following is MOST likely the prototype of the concept “fruit”?
A. Carrot
B. Apple
C. Tomato
D. Blueberry
11. You check the time on your phone. Your friend should be out of class by now. You call her. She should
answer if she’s out of class. In this example, your thought processes are best seen as exemplifying:
A. problem solving.
B. conceptualization.
C. reasoning.
D. creativity.
12. A rule that guarantees the solution to a problem when it is correctly applied is termed as a(n):
A. heuristic.
B. algorithm.
C. premise.
D. syllogism.
13. Which of the following is true of algorithms?
A. In cases where heuristics are not available we may use algorithms.
B. Even if it is applied appropriately, an algorithm cannot guarantee a solution to a problem.
C. Algorithms may sometimes lead to errors.
D. We can use an algorithm even if we cannot understand why it works.
14. Which of the following is true of heuristics?
A. In cases where algorithms are not available, we may use heuristics.
B. If applied appropriately, a heuristic guarantees a solution to a problem.
C. Heuristics never lead to errors.
D. Heuristics decrease the likelihood of success in coming to a solution.
15. Which of the following terms best captures the meaning of the term heuristic, as cognitive psychologists
use it?
A. Principle
B. Formula
C. Strategy
D. Program
16. When you play tic-tac-toe using certain mental shortcuts, you are using cognitive strategies psychologists
call:
A. algorithms.
B. mental sets.
C. heuristics.
D. syllogistic reasoning.
17. Matt picks up a pamphlet at a counseling center titled How to Succeed at College Course Work. Which
type of problem-solving strategies is MOST LIKELY offered in this pamphlet?
A. Algorithms
B. Insights
C. Heuristics
D. Syllogisms
18. Which of the following most likely makes use of heuristics?
A. A chemical equation for the synthesis of sulfuric acid
B. A recipe for making cookies on the back of a box of cornflakes
C. An article by a Nobel Prize winner titled “How to Succeed in Science”
D. A computer program for keeping track of inventory at a department store
19. Which of the following is an advantage of the use of heuristics?
A. A heuristic will present a clearly defined solution to a problem.
B. A heuristic is often efficient.
C. A heuristic is guaranteed to result in a correct response.
D. A heuristic results in only one possible solution to a problem.
20. Which of the following is TRUE of heuristics?
A. Heuristics always lead to correct solutions of a problem.
B. Heuristics are a slower way to solve problems than are other strategies.
C. Heuristics represent commonly used approaches to the solution of a problem.
D. Heuristics are used by computers but not by humans as problem-solving tools.
21. Lori and Monica are looking at the cans of coffee on display at a local supermarket. They are trying to
decide which of two different-sized cans is the better buy. Lori attempts to divide the price of each can
by the number of ounces of coffee each _____ contains. Monica suggests that “the larger size is usually a
better buy”. Lori is using a(n); Monica, a(n) _____.
A. heuristic; algorithm
B. algorithm; heuristic
C. prototype; algorithm
D. heuristic; prototype
22. The _____ is a rule we apply when we judge people by the degree to which they depict a certain category
or group of people.
A. availability heuristic
B. representativeness heuristic
C. confirmation bias
D. stereotypic bias
23. When you use the representativeness heuristic, you are:
A. making frequency estimates based on the ease with which things come to mind.
B. overcoming a mental set.
C. mistaking visual images and other forms of mental representations for reality.
D. assuming that something is typical of its class.
24. Suppose you meet a woman who opposes the death penalty. You then decide that, generally, women
are more likely to oppose the death penalty than are men. That is, you assume that the individual case is
depictive of its category. Here you have fallen prey to:
A. functional fixedness.
B. the representativeness heuristic.
C. the availability heuristic.
D. the confirmation bias.
25. Carl is the one person Craig has ever met from New Zealand. Carl strikes Craig as being quite friendly
and funny. When asked what he would expect to find if he went to New Zealand, Craig says that he
would expect the people to be quite friendly and funny. What might he have used to make this judgment?
A. The representativeness heuristic
B. The confirmation bias
C. Functional fixedness
D. The availability heuristic
26. The _____ heuristic involves judging the probability of an event on the basis of how easily the event can
be recalled from memory.
A. availability
B. representativeness
C. confirmation
D. frequency
27. According to the _____ heuristic we assume that events we remember easily are likely to have occurred
more frequently in the past—and are more likely to occur in the future—than events that are harder to
remember.
A. availability
B. representativeness
C. confirmation
D. frequency
28. Following the September 11, 2001, Twin Towers attacks, many Americans elected to drive rather than
fly. The media coverage of the hijackings caused Americans to overestimate the danger of flying. As it
was an event they remember easily they assumed it could occur more frequently. This example illustrates
the:
A. availability heuristic.
B. representativeness heuristic.
C. confirmation bias.
D. stereotypic bias.
29. When people are asked which is more common, death by homicide or death by stroke, they often choose
homicide because they simply hear more about murders than they do about strokes. In this instance,
people are led astray in their judgments by:
A. the representativeness heuristic.
B. the stereotypic bias.
C. the confirmation bias.
D. the availability heuristic.
30. Last week, Mike heard about five separate airplane crashes on the news. Even though, overall,
motorcycle accidents account for more accidents than plane crashes do, Mike decides to ride his
motorcycle from Washington to Atlanta instead of flying. Which bias is reflected in Mike’s decision?
A. The availability heuristic
B. The confirmation bias
C. The syllogistic error
D. The representativeness heuristic
31. Joanne will not go out at night because she hears from her local news station about the large number of
muggings and robberies that occur in her city. However, crime in Joanne’s city has actually gone down in
the past few years. To which bias is Joanne falling victim?
A. The representativeness heuristic
B. Functional fixedness
C. The availability heuristic
D. The confirmation bias
32. “You always clam up when I ask you what’s wrong,” Iris tells her boyfriend. Iris is probably making this
frequency judgment because she can remember a few times that her boyfriend wouldn’t tell her what was
bothering him. Iris is using the _____ heuristic.
A. representativeness
B. availability
C. functional
D. frequency
33. In a _____ heuristic, known items are seen as superior to those that are unknown.
A. representativeness
B. availability
C. functional
D. familiarity
34. When you go to the supermarket, you see the brand of cookies you usually buy, and settle for it. Usually
it’s a good rule of thumb, because it saves a lot of time. You do not ponder over every type of cookie
available in the store. This is an example of a(n) _____.
A. representativeness heuristic
B. syllogistic reasoning
C. algorithm
D. familiarity heuristic
35. _____ intelligence is the field that examines how to use technology to imitate the outcome of human
thinking, problem solving, and creative activities.
A. Artificial
B. Bodily-kinesthetic
C. Spatial
D. Existential
36. Which of the following sequences best reflects the order of the three broad phases of the problem-solving
process, from first to last?
A. Preparation → judgment → production
B. Judgment → production → preparation
C. Preparation → production → judgment
D. Judgment → preparation → production
37. In _____ problems, the nature of the problem and the information needed to solve it are clear; in _____
problems, either or both the nature of the problem and the information required to solve it are unclear.
A. well-defined; ill-defined
B. algorithmic; heuristic
C. arrangement; inducing structure
D. transformation; arrangement
38. Which of the following is an ill-defined problem?
A. Navigating to a museum in a nearby city
B. Composing a good concerto
C. Finding out where several well-known authors were born
D. Playing Scrabble
39. “Convert to a mixed numeral: 18/5,” states one problem in a fifth-grader’s arithmetic text. This is a(n)
_____ problem. It is best solved through the application of _____.
A. well-defined; algorithms
B. well-defined; heuristics
C. ill-defined; algorithms
D. ill-defined; heuristics
40. Dr. Ireland’s class is attempting to find derivatives; Dr. Jamison’s class is developing campaign strategies
for a local politician. Which of the following statements is MOST likely TRUE?
A. Dr. Ireland’s class is solving a well-defined problem.
B. Dr. Jamison’s class is solving a well-defined problem.
C. Dr. Ireland’s class is using syllogistic reasoning.
D. Dr. Jamison’s class is using familiarity heuristic.
41. _____ problems require the problem solver to rearrange or recombine elements in a way that will satisfy a
certain criterion.
A. Arrangement
B. Inducing structure
C. Transformation
D. Prescriptive
42. In problems of _____, a person must identify the existing relationships among the elements presented and
then construct a new relationship among them.
A. arrangement
B. inducing structure
C. transformation
D. prescriptive
43. _____ problems consist of an initial state, a goal state, and a method for changing the initial state into the
goal state.
A. Arrangement
B. Inducing structure
C. Transformation
D. Prescriptive
44. Which of the following problem types is CORRECTLY matched with a description?
A. Arrangement—moving from an initial to a goal state according to a specific method
B.
Inducing structure—identifying relationships among problem elements and constructing new
relationships
C. Transformation—rearranging or recombining elements to satisfy a particular criterion
D.
Transformation— identifying relationships among problem elements and constructing new
relationships
45. Janelle is solving anagrams; Kamika is puzzling over verbal analogies; Lamar is playing chess with a
friend. Which alternative below CORRRECTLY matches each individual with the type of problem he or
she is solving?
A. Janelle—arrangement; Kamika—transformation; Lamar—inducing structure
B. Janelle—transformation; Kamika—inducing structure; Lamar—arrangement
C. Janelle—arrangement; Kamika—inducing structure; Lamar—transformation
D. Janelle—transformation; Kamika—arrangement; Lamar—inducing structure
46. Thomas Edison invented the lightbulb only because he experimented with thousands of different kinds of
materials for a filament before he found one that worked (carbon). This shows that at the most basic level,
we can solve problems through _____.
A. the availability heuristic
B. means-ends analysis
C. insight
D. trial and error
47. _____ involves repeated tests for differences between the desired outcome and what currently exists.
A. Forming subgoals
B. Means-ends analysis
C. Insight
D. Trial and error
48. According to the text, the most frequently used problem-solving heuristic is:
A. forming subgoals.
B. means-ends analysis.
C. insight.
D. trial and error.
49. Millie is stumped by a problem in her pre-calculus text. She furtively glances at the answer provided
in the back of the text to get an idea of how the solution should look before she returns to the problem.
Millie’s strategy most closely resembles the problem-solving heuristic of:
A. forming subgoals.
B. trial and error.
C. working backward.
D. insight.
50. A political science professor attempts to facilitate her students’ completion of a term paper assignment
by requiring to first submit a topic statement, then a list of references, then a draft of the introduction,
then, finally, the completed paper. The professor is encouraging her students to use the problem-solving
strategy of:
A. forming subgoals.
B. working backward.
C. means-ends analysis.
D. trial and error.
51. Which problem-solving strategy or method is CORRECTLY matched with its definition?
A. Means-ends analysis – dividing a problem into intermediate steps
B. Forming subgoals – focusing on a problem’s goal rather than its starting point
C.
Working backward – reducing the apparent difference between the current state of the problem and the
goal
D. Insight – experiencing a sudden awareness of the relationships among a problem’s components
52. Kent and Kirsten are both trying to reduce their consumer debt. Kent isolates several more concrete
problems he can solve to achieve his goal, such as paying the highest-interest debts first and freezing
credit card spending. Kirsten simply pays her largest debt first, because this would seem to be the fastest
way to move her debt as close to zero as possible. Kent’s plan reflects the problem-solving strategy of
_____. Kirsten’s method illustrates the strategy of _____.
A. forming subgoals; trial and error
B. means-end analysis; trial and error
C. working backward; means-end analysis
D. forming subgoals; means-end analysis
53. The study of insight is associated with the German psychologist _____; he studied problem solving
among _____.
A. Kohler; chimpanzees
B. Kohler; humans
C. Wundt; cats
D. Wundt; humans
54. _____ is defined as a sudden awareness of the relationship among problem elements; it is thought to lead
rapidly to the problem’s solution.
A. Convergent thinking
B. Divergent thinking
C. Insight
D. Creativity
55. The text’s discussion of insight suggests that its key characteristic is its:
A. brevity.
B. complexity.
C. uniqueness.
D. suddenness.
56. According to the text, the apparent suddenness of insightful problem solutions:
A. may rest in part on the foundation of trial and error.
B. may be based on the availability heuristic.
C. has been affirmed by empirical research.
D. requires the application of confirmation bias.
57. Which of the following impediments to effective problem solving is INCORRECTLY matched with an
illustrative problem?
A. Confirmation bias—problem of security in the Middle East
B. Functional fixedness—water jar problem
C. Mental set—water jar problem
D. Functional fixedness—candle problem
58. _____ refers to the tendency for old patterns of problem solving to persist.
A. Mental set
B. Representativeness heuristic
C. Availability heuristic
D. Syllogistic frame
59. Zelma is asked to think of all the words she can, beginning with the letters “squ,” such as squeak. She
is then given a fill-in-the-blank task on which one of the items is “s _ _ o n g.” Zelma keeps trying to
make “squong” a word, and has trouble thinking of the common word strong. Zelma’s ability to solve this
problem has been hampered by:
A. syllogistic reasoning.
B. a mental set.
C. the confirmation bias.
D. the representativeness heuristic.
60. Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between mental and functional
fixedness?
A. Functional fixedness is an example of a broader phenomenon known as mental set.
B. Mental set is actually a specific instance of functional fixedness.
C. Functional fixedness and mental set are the same thing.
D. Functional fixedness and mental set are distinct problem-solving impediments.
61. Making several minor household repairs, Alyssa uses a shoe as a hammer and a butter knife as a
screwdriver. Which of the following statements best characterizes Alyssa’s problem solving?
A. She is constrained by a powerful mental set.
B. She has been released from functional fixedness.
C. She is taking advantage of the representative heuristic.
D. She is forming subgoals.
62. A jeweler is unable to fix a particular mounting in a ring because she can imagine only the conventional
uses for her tools. This best demonstrates which of the following?
A. Syllogistic reasoning
B. Functional fixedness
C. Algorithmic thinking
D. Means-end analysis
63. Henry’s dog, Sparky, has been rolling in the mud. Henry must bathe Sparky before the dog gets mud
all over the carpet. However, Henry is unable to find the plug for the tub. Sitting on the counter right
beside the tub is a fifty-cent piece. In his frustration, Henry fails to see that the coin could be used as an
emergency plug for the tub. What happened to Henry?
A. He took a heuristic approach.
B. He fell prey to the confirmation bias.
C. He suffered from mental set.
D. He employed representational thought.
64. _____ is the tendency to seek out and weight more heavily information that supports one’s initial
hypothesis and to ignore contradictory information that supports alternative hypotheses or solutions.
A. Functional fixedness
B. A mental set
C. Confirmation bias
D. Representativeness heuristic
65. Which of the following impediments to effective problem solving is CORRECTLY matched with its
definition?
A. Functional fixedness—the tendency for old patterns of problem solving to persist
B. Mental set—the tendency to think of an object only in terms of its customary use
C.
Confirmation bias—the tendency to favor existing hypotheses and to ignore evidence favoring
alternatives
D.
Representative heuristic—involves judging the probability of an event on the basis of how easily the
event can be recalled from memory.
66. Nigel often cites newspaper editorials favoring the presidential candidate he supports; he appears to
ignore editorials critical of the candidate. Nigel appears prone to:
A. functional fixedness.
B. mental set.
C. the confirmation bias.
D. the representativeness heuristic.
67. Sandy, a true believer in astrology, reads in her horoscope that today is her lucky day. She gets so excited
that she spills coffee all over herself, necessitating a change of clothes. As a result, she is late for work
and for a very important meeting, which in turn gets her into serious trouble with her boss. That evening,
her brother is taken to the emergency room. On her way to visit him, Sandy finds a dime in the hospital
parking lot. What does research on the confirmation bias suggest that Sandy will do?
A.
Sandy will renounce astrology as completely wrong because of all the horrible things that happened on
her “lucky day.”
B.
Sandy will begin to question her belief in astrology because of all the horrible things that happened on
her “lucky day.”
C. Sandy will seize on the dime she found as evidence of astrology’s accuracy.
D. Confirmation bias has little or no relevance to how Sandy will think about astrology in the future.
68. The ability to generate original ideas or develop novel solutions to problems is known as:
A. convergent thinking.
B. insight.
C. creativity.
D. syllogistic reasoning.
69. Which of the following statements accurately expresses one failing of cognitive psychologists’ study of
problem solving?
A. Cognitive psychologists have failed to identify the strategies people use in solving problems.
B.
Cognitive psychologists have failed to explain why some people generate better solutions than others
do.
C. Cognitive psychologists have failed to specify how people represent problems in their minds.
D.
Cognitive psychologists have failed to identify the barriers to effective problem solving that people
face.
70. Someone relying on convergent thinking would answer _____ to the query “What can you do with a
toothbrush?”
A. “You brush your teeth with it”
B. “You use it for painting”
C. “You use it for cleaning tools”
D. “You use it to make toys”
71. Someone relying on divergent thinking would answer _____ to the query “What can you do with a
pencil?”
A. “You write with it”
B. “You use it for sketching”
C. “You use it when you can’t find a pen”
D. “You use it to make toys”
72. As compared to less creative individuals, creative persons:
A. prefer more complex stimuli.
B. are more dependent.
C. are more interested in concrete problems.
D. have a narrower range of interests.
73. Which of the following is true of creativity?
A. One factor that is closely related to creativity is intelligence.
B. Traditional tests are a good way to gauge an individual’s creativity.
C. Highly creative individuals show signs of convergent thinking.
D. Cognitive complexity is an important aspect of creativity.
74. Which of the following factors is NOT closely related to creativity?
A. Cognitive complexity
B. Abstract problems
C. Range of interests
D. Intelligence
75. Traditional intelligence tests tend to assess _____ thinking; tests of creativity tap into _____.
A. divergent; convergent thinking
B. divergent; divergent thinking as well
C. convergent; divergent thinking
D. convergent; convergent thinking as well
76. According to the text, critical or creative thinking may be enhanced by each of the following strategies
EXCEPT:
A. using analogies.
B. considering opposites.
C. avoiding heuristics.
D. experimenting with solutions.
77. Phonology is the study of:
A. combination of words.
B. speech sounds.
C. word order.
D. meaning.
78. Linguists have identified more than _____ different phonemes among all the world’s languages.
A. 26
B. more than 800
C. 52
D. an infinite number
79. Approximately how many phonemes are found in English?
A. 26
B. more than 800
C. 52
D. an infinite number
80. Dr. Salim is a linguist, studying the rules guiding the order of words and phrases in several of the world’s
languages. Dr. Salim is a(n):
A. syntactician.
B. semanticist.
C. phonologist.
D. translator.
81. In written language, letters most closely represent _____, whereas sentences may be said to reflect
_____.
A. syntax; semantics
B. syntax; phonemes
C. phonemes; syntax
D. phonemes; semantics
82. Which of the following language acquisition stages or phenomena is CORRECTLY matched with an
illustrative example?
A. Babbling—”Goo goo, ga ga.”
B. Telegraphic speech—”I ran from the library to the bus stop.”
C. Overgeneralization—”Daddy has come home.”
D. Overgeneralization—”Drawing house”
83. What is meant by the notion of a critical period for language acquisition?
A. It is the period of transition between one-word and two-word utterances.
B.
It is the time in one’s childhood in which a child is particularly sensitive to language cues and most
easily acquires language.
C. It is the period isolated children spend by themselves before someone teaches them language.
D.
It is the period between six and ten years of age in which certain complex aspects of syntax are
learned.
84. The text reports the case of a girl named Genie, who was exposed to virtually no language from the age
of 20 months until the age of 13. In what way does Genie’s case offer support for the notion of a critical
period in language acquisition?
A.
With intensive instruction, Genie acquired a sizeable vocabulary after the age of 13; moreover, she
eventually mastered the rules of syntax.
B
.
Even with intensive instruction, Genie acquired only a very small vocabulary after the age of 13;
furthermore, she never mastered the complexities of language.
C.
Once she was no longer isolated, Genie acquired a sizeable vocabulary and eventually mastered the
rules of syntax, even without intensive formal instruction.
D. Genie’s case is irrelevant to the notion of a critical period.
85. Tina is 6 months old, Vincenzo is 2 years and 7 months old, and Wayne is 3.5 years old. Which
alternative below CORRECTLY pairs each child with the appropriate language acquisition stage or
phenomenon?
A. Tina—overgeneralization; Vincenzo—babbling; Wayne—telegraphic speech
B. Tina—babbling; Vincenzo—telegraphic speech; Wayne—overgeneralization
C. Tina—telegraphic speech; Vincenzo—babbling; Wayne—overgeneralization
D. Tina—babbling; Vincenzo—overgeneralization; Wayne—telegraphic speech
86. Dorian is 2 years old; Constance is 2.5. Dorian’s vocabulary probably contains around _____ words;
Constance’s, _____ words.
A. about 100; several hundred
B. about 50; about 100
C. about 50; several hundred
D. several hundred; about 1000
87. “All gone milk,” says two-year-old Wesley, placing the empty glass on the table. Wesley’s remark
exemplifies the language acquisition phenomenon termed:
A. babbling.
B. telegraphic speech.
C. holographic speech.
D. agrammatism.
88. Ricky tells his grandmother, “Momma holded the rabbit.” According to your text, Ricky’s statement
exemplifies:
A. idiomatic speech.
B. telegraphic speech.
C. babbling.
D. overgeneralization.
89. Connie is telling her mother a story about a scary dog she encountered in a neighbor’s yard. “Then I
runned away,” Connie concludes. Which language acquisition phenomenon is Connie demonstrating?
About how old is Connie?
A. Connie is babbling. She is probably about 2 years old.
B. Connie is overgeneralizing. She is probably 3-4 years old.
C. Connie is babbling. She is probably about 4 years old.
D. Connie is overgeneralizing. She is probably 5-6 years old.
90. The theory that language acquisition follows the principles of reinforcement and conditioning is known as
the _____ approach.
A. learning-theory
B. nativist
C. interactionist
D. prescriptive
91. The theory that a genetically determined, innate mechanism directs language development is known as
the _____ approach.
A. learning-theory
B. nativist
C. interactionist
D. prescriptive
92. The nativist approach to language acquisition is associated with:
A. B. F. Skinner.
B. Benjamin Whorf.
C. Noam Chomsky.
D. Wolfgang Kohler.
93. The view that language development is produced through a combination of genetically determined
predispositions and environmental circumstances that help teach language is known as the _____
approach.
A. learning-theory
B. nativist
C. interactionist
D. prescriptive
94. Theorists taking an interactionist approach to language acquisition:
A. reject both the learning theory and nativist approaches.
B. agree that the brain is hardwired to acquire language.
C. downplay the role of the environment in language acquisition.
D. remain unconvinced by the idea of a language-acquisition device.
95. The notion that language shapes and may determine the way people in a particular culture perceive and
understand the world is known as the _____ hypothesis.
A. output
B. interaction
C. linguistic-relativity
D. monitor
96. The _____ hypothesis suggests language leads to thought.
A. output
B. interaction
C. linguistic-relativity
D. monitor
97. Which figure best approximates the number of Americans for whom English is a second language?
A. 13 million
B. 25 million
C. 47 million
D. 100 million
98. In _____, students are educated in their native language and in English simultaneously; in _____, they are
educated only in English.
A. immersion programs; bilingual education
B. bilingual education; immersion programs
C. an alternation approach; immersion programs
D. immersion programs; alternation programs
99. In the introduction to its discussion of intelligence, your text suggests that conceptions of intelligence
vary cross-culturally. To the Trukese of the South Pacific, for example, intelligence may mean the ability
to navigate on the open water without technological assistance; to an American high schooler, it may
mean the ability to score well on standardized tests of academic achievement and aptitude. Nevertheless,
one element of the understanding of intelligence that is consistent across culture is:
A. the ability to use the resources provided by one’s environment.
B. the ability to understand and relate to others.
C. to think rationally; that is, with one’s head rather than one’s heart.
D. to solve abstract, complex problems.
100.Psychologists define _____ as the capacity to understand the world, think rationally, and use resources
effectively.
A. cognition
B. intelligence
C. sensation
D. perception
101.Ashley, a psychology major, remarks that she has become interested in the study of intelligence. In other
words, Ashley is interested in:
A. the capacity to understand the world, think rationally, and use resources effectively.
B. how behavior changes as a result of experience.
C. the factors directing behavior toward a goal.
D. the ability to generate novel solutions to problems.
102.The g-factor is:
A. the factor that helps us reason abstractly.
B. a broad factor that supports every aspect of intelligence.
C. one of several components of intelligence.
D. the same thing as crystallized intelligence.
103._____ is the single factor for mental ability assumed to underlie intelligence in some early theories of
intelligence.
A. G-factor
B. P-factor
C. I-factor
D. M-factor
104.Laverne’s scores on different parts of an IQ test are very different from one another. Laverne’s profile of
scores on the test:
A. contradicts the view of intelligence offered by early theorists such as Spearman.
B. supports the view of intelligence offered by early theorists such as Spearman.
C. contradicts the view of intelligence offered by contemporary theorists such as Gardner.
D. supports the g-factory theory of mental ability.
105.Early theorists such as Spearman argued that g represented general intelligence. According to these
theorists, individuals high in g:
A. have an advantage in every intellectual endeavor.
B. excel at numerical but not verbal tasks.
C. excel at visual but not verbal tasks.
D. excel at verbal and numerical tasks, but not visual ones.
106.Early theorists inferred the existence of a general intelligence g factor from:
A. the high reliability coefficients for the results of individual tests.
B. the low correlations among tests of different intellectual skills.
C. the negative correlations among tests of different intellectual skills.
D. the positive correlations among tests of different intellectual skills.
107.In what way do current theories of intelligence differ from those offered earlier in psychology’s history?
A.
Contemporary theories propose that there may be many multiple forms of intelligence, rather than just
one.
B.
Contemporary theories propose that there may be a single broad factor underlying every aspect of
intelligence; earlier theories proposed that there are probably multiple forms of intelligence.
C.
Contemporary theories tend to dismiss the notion that cultural differences are important to a definition
of intelligence.
D.
Contemporary theories claim that people who did poorly on one test tended to do poorly on others as
well.
108.Intelligence that reflects the ability to reason abstractly is termed _____ intelligence.
A. fluid
B. reflexive
C. spatial
D. crystallized
109.Janet has a knack for figuring things out. When faced with puzzles and problems she has never seen
before, Janet always manages to find a solution. Janet is high in _____ intelligence.
A. spatial
B. flexible
C. fluid
D. crystallized
110._____ intelligence is the accumulation of information, skills, and strategies that people have learned
through experience.
A. Fluid
B. Reflexive
C. Spatial
D. Crystallized
111.In contrast to _____, _____ is more a reflection of the culture in which a person is raised.
A. existential intelligence; fluid intelligence
B. crystallized intelligence; existential intelligence
C. fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence
D. existential intelligence; kinesthetic intelligence
112.Which of the following is MOST likely to draw on fluid intelligence?
A. Solving a new kind of puzzle
B. Answering trivia questions
C. Figuring out how to fix a familiar appliance
D. Participating in a discussion about the solution to the causes of poverty
113.Jody is completing a test in which she has to name as many state capitals as she can in one minute;
Alex is trying to complete analogies between pairs of abstract diagrams. Jody is taking a test of _____
intelligence; Alex, a test of _____.
A. fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence
B. fluid intelligence; fluid intelligence as well
C. crystallized intelligence; crystallized intelligence as well
D. crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence
114.Bonnie studied car mechanics in high school and spent a lot of time helping out at her dad’s garage. Her
ability to replace a blown gasket relies primarily on her _____ intelligence.
A. fluid
B. flexible
C. kinesthetic
D. crystallized
115.Studies of changes in intelligence as a function of aging suggest that:
A. crystallized intelligence tend to decline with age in adults.
B. crystallized intelligence tends to increase with age in adults.
C. fluid intelligence tends to decline with age in adults.
D. fluid intelligence tends to increase with age in adults.
116._____ is Gardner’s intelligence theory that proposes that there are eight distinct spheres of
intelligence.
A. Triarchic theory of intelligence
B. Theory of primary mental abilities
C. Theory of multiple intelligences
D. Theory of general intelligence
117._____ involves identifying and thinking about the fundamental questions of human continuance.
A. Emotional intelligence
B. Analytical intelligence
C. Crystallized intelligence
D. Existential intelligence
118.According to the text, a positive feature of Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences is:
A. the empirical support it has received.
B. the intuitive appeal of the underlying concept.
C. that it has led to the development of intelligence tests that allow test takers to be creative.
D. its focus on cases of brain damage, as well as of mental retardation and giftedness.
119.Which of the following is one of Gardner’s forms of intelligence?
A. General intelligence
B. Analytical intelligence
C. Crystallized intelligence
D. Musical intelligence
120.Gardner’s theory includes each of the following types of intelligence EXCEPT:
A. tacit intelligence.
B. musical intelligence.
C. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence.
D. interpersonal intelligence.
121.Bodily kinesthetic intelligence refers to skills:
A. in problem solving and scientific thinking.
B.
in using the whole anatomy or various portions of it in the solution of problems or in the construction
of products or displays.
C. involving spatial configurations.
D. involved in the production and use of language.
122.Dancers, athletes, actors, and surgeons display:
A. bodily kinesthetic intelligence.
B. naturalist intelligence.
C. intrapersonal intelligence.
D. spatial intelligence.
123.Which of the following professionals would most likely display spatial intelligence?
A. Dancer
B. Actor
C. Social worker
D. Architect
124.Logical-mathematical intelligence refers to skills:
A. in problem solving and scientific thinking.
B.
in using the whole anatomy or various portions of it in the solution of problems or in the construction
of products or displays.
C. involved in the ability to identify patterns in nature.
D. involved in the production and use of language.
125.Knowledge of the internal aspects of oneself is termed as _____.
A. naturalistic intelligence
B. interpersonal intelligence
C. intrapersonal intelligence
D. spatial intelligence
126._____ refers to skills involved in the production and use of language.
A. Naturalistic intelligence
B. Linguistic intelligence
C. Intrapersonal intelligence
D. Spatial intelligence
127.Kyana is an excellent salesperson because she can always find a way of connecting with a potential
client. Based on this information, in which kind of intelligence would Gardner expect Kyana to be high?
A. Analytic
B. Bodily kinesthetic
C. Interpersonal
D. Spatial
128.Collectivist cultures, such as Taiwan’s, place a high priority on how individuals relate to each other. It
might be reasonable to hypothesize that Taiwanese adults might outscore American adults on a test of
Gardner’s _____ intelligence.
A. naturalistic
B. intrapersonal
C. practical
D. interpersonal
129.Which of the following alternatives does NOT correctly use Gardner’s terminology to identify the type of
intelligence with the characteristic of a well-known individual?
A. Babe Ruth – athletic
B. Barbara McClintock – numerical
C. T. S. Eliot – linguistic
D. Virginia Wolf – naturalistic
130.Etta is taking an intelligence test based on Gardner’s multiple intelligences theory. How is Etta’s
performance likely to be scored?
A. She will receive a score for each of eight types of intelligence.
B. She will receive a score for each of three types of intelligence.
C. She will be classified as having one of eight types of intelligence.
D. She will receive an overall intelligence score, like an IQ.
131.According to Sternberg, intelligence related to overall success in living is known as _____
intelligence.
A. practical
B. crystallized
C. emotional
D. creative
132.The notion of practical intelligence is associated with:
A. Gardner.
B. Sternberg.
C. Weschler.
D. Spearman.
133.Traditional tests were designed to relate to _____.
A. academic success
B. career success
C. spiritual success
D. familial success
134.People who are high in _____ intelligence are able to learn general norms and principles and apply them
appropriately.
A. practical
B. crystallized
C. emotional
D. linguistic
135.Which of the following is true of academic success and career success?
A.
Academic success and career success both rely on the sort of intelligence assessed by traditional
intelligence tests.
B. Academic success and career success are based on two different types of intelligence.
C.
Traditional tests were designed to relate to career success while, contemporary tests are designed to
relate to academic success.
D. Both academic and career success relate to practical intelligence.
136.The three types of intelligence proposed by Sternberg include each of the following except _____
intelligence.
A. analytical
B. practical
C. logical
D. creative
137._____ intelligence is the set of skills that underlie the accurate assessment, evaluation, expression, and
regulation of one’s mental state.
A. Emotional
B. Practical
C. Fluid
D. Crystallized
138.Which of the major intelligence concepts described in your text is CORRECTLY matched with a
description?
A. Practical intelligence – intelligence attuned to the feelings and needs of oneself or others
B. Crystallized intelligence – information, skills, and strategies learned through experience
C. Gardner’s theory – intelligence relates to reasoning, memory, and information-processing capabilities
D. Information-processing approach – eight independent forms of intelligence
139.The first intelligence tests were developed by:
A. Galton.
B. Binet.
C. Spearman.
D. Weschler.
140.The practical problem Alfred Binet was trying to solve when he developed his intelligence test was:
A. devising a culturally fair measure of intelligence.
B. devising an uncontaminated measure of intelligence.
C. identifying gifted children for accelerated programs.
D. identifying slow learners for remedial aid.
141.The age for which a given level of performance is average or typical is known as _____.
A. mental age
B. societal age
C. chronological age
D. behavioral age
142.Imagine that overall, 6-year-olds can complete a particular block design puzzle in 5 minutes. It takes
Bailey almost 8 minutes to complete the task. In Binet’s terms, Bailey’s _____ age is _____ than 6.
A. chronological; higher
B. chronological; lower
C. mental; higher
D. mental; lower
143.The formula for the intelligence quotient as Binet defined it is:
A. CA/MA x 100.
B. MA/CA x 100.
C. CA/(MA x 100).
D. MA/(CA x 100).
144.Laura is 8; her performance on a series of tasks is equivalent to that of the average 10-year-old. Her
intelligence quotient is:
A. 125.
B. 80.
C. 110.
D. 150.
145.If we were to plot the IQ scores of every person living in the United States on a graph, we would end up
with:
A. a downward sloping curve.
B. a vertical line.
C. a uniform distribution—that is, a straight horizontal line.
D. a bell-shaped curve.
146.Coral’s IQ score is 104. She is in good company: nearly _____ out of 10 people have IQ scores between
85 and 115.
A. 3
B. 7
C. 5
D. 9
147.Approximately _____ of the population have an IQ score between 85 and 115.
A. 52%
B. 68%
C. 77%
D. 85%
148.Below are several statements about the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Which statement is
CORRECTLY identified as false?
A. The test is administered orally – False
B. The test includes verbal and nonverbal assessments – False
C. The same items are used for test-takers of different ages – False
D. The test can be scored on 20 different subtests. – False
149.Which of the following statements best describes the fate of Binet’s intelligence test within psychology?
A. It really has had little lasting influence on contemporary intelligence testing.
B. It is still used, and it is in virtually the same form as Binet’s original test.
C. It was used for a number of decades, but was then abandoned.
D. It is still used, but in a heavily revised form.
150.The most commonly used IQ test in the United States is the:
A. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale.
B. Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale-IV.
C. Spearman G Scale.
D. Terman Intelligence Batter.
151.Which of the following best expresses the distinction between the WAIS-IV and WISC-IV?
A. The WAIS-IV is for use on males only, whereas the WISC-IV is used on females only.
B. The WAIS-IV is a test of verbal intelligence, whereas the WISC-IV is a test of nonverbal intelligence.
C.
The WAIS-IV is used to test adult intelligence, whereas the WISC-IV is used to test children’s
intelligence.
D. The WAIS-IV is the current successor to the WISC-IV, an older test of intelligence.
152.Contemporary tests of intelligence are in widespread use in the United States EXCEPT the:
A. WISC-IV.
B. WAIS-IV.
C. Spearman G Scale.
D. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale.
153.Which of the following is NOT among the disadvantages of group IQ tests?
A. Group IQ tests offer fewer types of questions than do individually administered tests.
B.
People may be less motivated to do their best work on a group-administered than on an individually
administered test.
C. It is not always possible to test people in groups.
D. They are difficult to administer and score on a large-scale basis.
154.The property by which tests measure consistently what they are trying to measure is known as _____.
A. specificity
B. validity
C. reliability
D. sensitivity
155.A psychological test is reliable when it:
A. measures what it is actually supposed to measure.
B. has been normed using samples representative of those for whom the test has been designed.
C. yields consistent measurements.
D. measures the positives in the test.
156.A psychological test is valid when it:
A. actually measures what it is supposed to measure.
B. has been normed using samples representative of those for whom the test has been designed.
C. yields consistent measurements.
D. measures the positives in the test.
157.Which of the following is true about tests?
A. Even if a test is unreliable, it cannot be valid.
B. Test validity and reliability are prerequisites for accurate assessment of intelligence.
C. Test reliability and validity are highly desirable for an accurate assessment of intelligence.
D. Knowing that a test is reliable guarantees that it is also valid.
158.An online intelligence test yields a different IQ each time you take it. The test is:
A. possibly reliable, but definitely not valid.
B. not reliable, and probably not valid either.
C. not reliable, but still possibly valid.
D. possibly reliable, and potentially valid.
159.Sir Francis Galton assumed that skull size is related to intelligence, this was _____ measure of
intelligence.
A. a reliable, but not a valid
B. a valid, but not a reliable
C. both a reliable and a valid
D. neither a reliable nor a valid
160.A researcher develops a questionnaire to assess the personality trait of impulsivity among adults. In a
journal article, she presents evidence that college students tend to get essentially the same score if they
take the test twice, two months apart. She also presents the average score, the highest score, and the
lowest score obtained by two large samples: one of 2,000 college students, and one of 750 communitydwelling
non-college adults. However, when you look at the sample questionnaire items she included in
the article, it seems to you that they relate more to whether a person is sociable, outgoing, and fun than to
whether an individual is impulsive. You are questioning the _____ of the researcher’s questionnaire.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. sensitivity
D. reliability and the validity
161.Dr. Cavanaugh examines the relationship between the personality trait of resilience and senior citizens’
compliance with medication regimes; however, the resilience measure he used was normed only on
college students. Based on this information, which of the following is the most apparent weakness of Dr.
Cavanaugh’s study?
A. The simplicity of the resilience measure
B. The standardization of the resilience measure
C. The specificity of the resilience measure
D. The operationalization of compliance
162.Which of the following statements does not reflect a valid or empirically supported point in favor of or
against adaptive or computerized testing?
A. It is faster than traditional testing.
B. It requires careful calibration of large number of items based on their difficulty.
C. Some groups of test-takers may become more anxious than others during computerized test taking.
D.
Test-takers are forced to spend a great deal of time answering questions that are either much easier or
much harder than they can handle.
163.Regarding standardized testing, which piece of advice is least likely to be right?
A. Check your answers if you can.
B. Time yourself carefully.
C. Guess if you don’t know.
D. Practice makes perfect.
164.Based on the text’s discussion, which of the following alternatives best captures the difference, if any,
between the terms mental retardation and intellectual disability?
A. The terms are used interchangeably and equally.
B. Intellectual disability is becoming the preferred term, while mental retardation is the traditional term.
C. The term intellectual disability has replaced the term mental retardation.
D. The terms refer to different types of deficits in functioning.
165.Of those who are mentally retarded, what percentage are classified as mildly retarded?
A. 90%
B. 75%
C. 65%
D. 50%
166.Peyton has an IQ score of 60. Although her development was typically slower than that of her peers, she
is now able to hold a job and will soon start a family of her own. Peyton is most probably:
A. mildly retarded.
B. moderately retarded.
C. severely retarded.
D. profoundly retarded.
167.People whose IQ score ranges from 40-54 are most probably:
A. mildly retarded.
B. moderately retarded.
C. severely retarded.
D. profoundly retarded.
168.People who are _____ have deficits in their language and motor skills. Although these individuals can
hold simple jobs, they need to have a certain degree of supervision throughout their lives.
A. mildly retarded
B. moderately retarded
C. severely retarded
D. profoundly retarded
169.Anita is mildly retarded; Brady is moderately retarded; Candace is severely retarded; and Denny is
profoundly retarded. Which of these individuals can probably hold a job? Which of these individuals is
probably unable to care for himself or herself?
A. Anita; Denny
B. Anita; Brady
C. Candace; Anita
D. Candace; Denny
170.People with severe retardation have an IQ:
A. of 40 to 54.
B. of 25 to 39.
C. of 55 to 69.
D. below 25.
171.Which of the following alternatives correctly identifies the range of IQ scores encompassed by the terms
profound, severe, moderate, and mild retardation, respectively?
A. 0-29; 30-49; 50-64; 65-79
B. 0-19; 20-39; 40-59; 60-79
C. 0-24; 25-39; 40-54; 55-69
D. 0-19; 20-34; 35-49; 50-69
172.In approximately _____ of the cases of mental retardation there is an identifiable biological cause; the
most common of these is _____.
A. one-third; fetal alcohol syndrome
B. one-third; Down syndrome
C. one-quarter; fetal alcohol syndrome
D. one-quarter; Down syndrome
173.Which of the following alternatives offers the most accurate assessment of the origin of familial
retardation in nature on the one hand, or nurture on the other?
A. Familial retardation is almost always genetic in origin, thereby reflecting nature.
B. About 1/3 of the cases of familial retardation have a known basis in biology, or nature.
C. Familial retardation is most often environmental in origin; that is, it reflects nurture.
D. We do not know the extent to which familial retardation reflects nature and nurture.
174.Intellectual disability in which no apparent biological defect exists but there is a history of it in the kin is
known as _____ retardation.
A. syndromic
B. cultural
C. familial
D. non-syndromic
175.The inclusive philosophy behind the educational mainstreaming of mentally retarded individuals reflects
federal laws passed in the:
A. late 1960s.
B. mid-1970s.
C. late 1970s.
D. early 1980s.
176.Regarding the integration of mentally retarded students into regular classrooms, which of the following
statements is true?
A.
In full inclusion programs, mentally retarded students are integrated into regular classroom activities to
a greater extent than in the case of mainstreaming.
B
.
In full inclusion programs, mentally retarded students are integrated into regular classroom activities to
a somewhat lesser extent than in the case of mainstreaming.
C. Full inclusion is widely applied today.
D. Schools with full inclusion have separate special education classes.
177.The IQ of intellectually gifted individuals is _____.
A. between 100-110
B. 75
C. 130 or above
D. 90 or below
178.Terman’s long-term study of the intellectually gifted found that they tend to be:
A. social misfits.
B. physically gifted.
C. awkward.
D. outgoing.
179.As compared to more typical individuals, the intellectually gifted are characterized by being all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. outgoing.
B. well-adjusted.
C. awkward.
D. healthy.
180.Which of the following is true of people with high intelligence or intellectually gifted individuals?
A. High intelligence is a homogeneous quality.
B. A person with a high overall IQ is gifted in every academic subject.
C. Intellectually gifted individuals account for 2%-4% of the population.
D. A high IQ is a universal guarantee of success.
181.The study of the intellectually gifted is associated with Terman, who began studying high-IQ children in
the:
A. 1920s.
B. 1930s.
C. 1940s.
D. 1950s.
182.A test that does not discriminate against the members of any minority group is termed as a _____
test.
A. culture-neutral
B. culture-fair
C. culture-free
D. culture-liberated
183.Imagine that American children and African children are asked to memorize the locations of objects on
a chessboard. In one condition, the objects are rocks; in the other, they are household objects common in
the West. What might you predict regarding the children’s performance?
A. The performance of the American children will exceed that of the African children in both conditions.
B. The performance of the African children will exceed that of the American children in both conditions.
C.
The performance of the African children will be equivalent to that of the American children in both
conditions.
D
.
The performance of the African children will exceed that of the American children when the objects are
rocks but not when they are Western household objects.
184.In The Bell Curve, Herrnstein and Murray argued that:
A. intelligence is a product of nurture alone.
B. intelligence is a product of nature alone.
C. the IQ gap between Caucasian and African Americans reflects genetics.
D. both nature and nurture have no role in the IQ gap between Caucasian and African Americans.
185.The term _____ refers to a measure of the degree to which a characteristic can be attributed to genetic
factors.
A. heritability
B. specificity
C. concordance rate
D. cohort effect
186.Which of the following findings support the position Herrnstein and Murray outlined in The Bell Curve?
A. Middle- and upper-SES blacks score the same as middle- and upper-SES whites
B. The black-white IQ gap remains, even when socioeconomic status is controlled.
C. Lower-SES blacks score higher on average than lower-SES whites
D.
Whites score 35 points higher than blacks on traditional IQ tests even when socioeconomic status
(SES) is taken into account.
187.Which of the following statements is true about Herrnstein and Murray’s arguments in The Bell Curve?
A.
Whites score lower than blacks on traditional IQ tests when socioeconomic status (SES) is taken into
account.
B.
An analysis of IQ differences between whites and blacks demonstrated that there were basic genetic
differences between the two races.
C. Middle- and upper-SES blacks score higher than middle- and upper-SES whites.
D.
Intelligence differences between blacks and whites can be attributed to environmental differences
alone.
188.Estelle is playing with images and concepts in her mind. Her cognitive psychology professor would say
that she is _____.
________________________________________
189._____ are representations in the mind of an object or event.
________________________________________
190.A researcher finds that her participants think most readily of a carrot when prompted with the
category “vegetable.” On this basis, the researcher might argue that a carrot is the _____ vegetable.
________________________________________
191.A high school physics teacher reassures his class that no matter how confusing this week’s word problems
appear, they all may be solved quite handily through the use of the formula F = MA. The teacher has
offered his students a(n) _____.
________________________________________
192.Sometimes we are prone to judge an individual based on our notion of the category of people he or she
most closely resembles; that is, we fall prey to the _____ heuristic.
________________________________________
193.A calculus problem has one correct answer and contains all the information necessary for its solution;
thus, it is a(n) _____ problem.
________________________________________
194.Because they involve rules for moving from an initial to a goal state, many board games may be seen as
examples of _____ problems.
________________________________________
195.Renee has an idea of how her living room ought to look. She’s moving furniture, paintings, and
accessories to get closer and closer to that picture in her head. Renee is using the problem-solving
technique of _____.
________________________________________
196.”Eureka! I’ve got it!” That sudden awareness of the path toward a problem’s solution is termed _____.
________________________________________
197.Functional fixedness may be seen as a particular example of _____.
________________________________________
198.People seek and remember evidence in support of their existing hypotheses; they ignore or discount
contradictory evidence. In other words, people are prone to the _____.
________________________________________
199.”How many uses can you think of for a brick?” asks the examiner. You are taking a test of _____
thinking.
________________________________________
200.One synonym for forming subgoals is _____.
________________________________________
201.The rules indicating how words and phrases may be combined to form legitimate sentences are referred to
as _____.
________________________________________
202.If children are not exposed to language during a(n) _____ period early in life, they may never acquire
it.
________________________________________
203.”Sophie kitty,” Tara says, when her aunt asks her whether the stuffed animal belongs to her or to her
sister. Tara’s reply exemplifies _____ speech.
________________________________________
204.With respect to language acquisition, Skinner is to learning theory what _____ is to nativism.
________________________________________
205.Chomsky suggested that the human brain has an inherited neural system that lets us understand the
structure language provides. This is known as _____.
________________________________________
206.According to the _____, language provides us with categories that we use to construct our view of people
and events in the world around us.
________________________________________
207.In _____, students are immediately plunged into English instruction in all subjects.
________________________________________
208.Jesse is very resourceful in the face of adversity; psychologists view this characteristic as one component
of _____.
________________________________________
209.Early psychologists believed that a single, overarching factor called the _____ factor influenced every
aspect of intelligence.
________________________________________
210.Holly is attempting to put together a 3D puzzle. Holly is completing a test of _____ intelligence.
________________________________________
211.Fernando is attempting to recall all of the capitols of each state in the union. Fernando is completing a test
of _____ intelligence.
________________________________________
212.As compared to crystallized intelligence, fluid intelligence is _____ likely to decline with advancing
age.
________________________________________
213._____ is associated with a theory of intelligence proposing eight or more distinct forms of
intelligence.
________________________________________
214.Gardner’s _____ proposes that there are eight distinct spheres of intelligence.
________________________________________
215.Mavis has advanced rapidly in the corporate world, despite her middling scores on such tests as the
WAIS-IV, the SAT, and the GRE. Sternberg would suspect Mavis of high _____ intelligence.
________________________________________
216._____ intelligence is the set of skills that underlie the accurate assessment, evaluation, expression, and
regulation of feelings.
________________________________________
217.Using Binet’s formula, the IQ of a 6-year-child with a mental age of 8 is _____.
________________________________________
218.A plot of the IQ scores of the entire population would yield a(n) _____ distribution.
________________________________________
219.”Every time I take it, it tells me something different!” complains your friend, turning away from the
online personality quiz she just completed. Your friend is complaining about the test’s _____.
________________________________________
220.”That’s so not true! This test can’t have anything to do with my ability to attract women!” Ignacio
protests. Ignacio is disputing the test’s _____.
________________________________________
221.Psychologists are beginning to favor the term _____ in place of the term mental retardation.
________________________________________
222._____ are standards of test performance that permit the comparison of one person’s score on a test to the
scores of others who have taken the same test.
________________________________________
223.Individuals who have IQ scores ranging from 55 to 69 are classified as having _____.
________________________________________
224.Tests for which norms have been developed are known as _____ tests.
________________________________________
225._____ is a process by which individuals with intellectual disabilities are integrated into regular
classrooms as much as possible.
________________________________________
226.The IQ of an intellectually gifted person is greater than or equal to _____.
________________________________________
227.Psychologists continue to seek _____ IQ tests that do not discriminate against the members of minority
groups.
________________________________________
228.As recently as the mid-1990s, Herrnstein and Murray argued in their book _____ that race differences in
IQ are a matter of genetics and not the environment alone.
________________________________________
229.The degree to which a characteristic can be attributed to genetic factors is known as _____.
________________________________________
230.Describe in as much detail as you can the mental representation of objects and categories. Provide
illustrative examples where appropriate.
231.Distinguish between an algorithm and a heuristic. Provide an example of each.
232.Can computers think? Provide as thoughtful an answer as you can, considering the ability of current
computers to solve complex problems and to demonstrate creativity.
233.Distinguish between well-defined and ill-defined problems. Provide an example of each.
234.Identify and describe three different problem-solving strategies described in your text. Suggest how each
strategy might be fruitfully applied in one or more college courses.
235.How do psychologists define creativity? Identify some of the cognitive processes and personality
characteristics that appear to be associated with creativity. How might you describe the relationship
between creativity and intelligence? To what extent does this relationship reflect the traditional
assessment of intelligence?
236.Your friend asks you, “So, what did you get up to last night?” Write two or three sentences in response to
your friend; use your sentences to illustrate the three components of language described in your text.
237.Describe babbling, telegraphic speech, and overgeneralization. Provide an example of each. At which
ages might you expect children to demonstrate each of these language development phenomena?
238.Contrast learning-theory and nativist theory of language development. Point out the strengths and
weaknesses of each approach.
239.Distinguish between crystallized and fluid intelligence. Provide an example of (a) an intellectual task that
mainly reflects crystallized intelligence and (b) an intellectual task that mainly reflects fluid intelligence.
How do crystallized and fluid intelligence change with age in later adulthood?
240.Outline Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences. Make sure to list and describe each of the types
Gardner argues for and provide an example to illustrate the construct.
241.Outline Sternberg’s theory of intelligence.
242.Define (a) practical and (b) emotional intelligence. To what extent are these types of intelligence related
to the sort of intelligence that is traditionally assessed by standardized tests?
243.Identify the levels of mental retardation described in the text. Associate a range of IQ scores with each
level. Review what is known about the causes of mental retardation.
244.”Nerds.” “Geeks.” Briefly describe Terman’s pioneering study of the intellectually gifted and suggest how
its results contradict popular stereotypes of the intellectually gifted.
245.”The discrepancy in IQ scores between whites and blacks in the United States has nothing to do with
race.” Support this reference using empirical data.
ch07 Key
1. (p. 240) C
2. (p. 241) C
3. (p. 241) C
4. (p. 241) C
5. (p. 241) A
6. (p. 241-242) A
7. (p. 242) C
8. (p. 242) A
9. (p. 243) A
10. (p. 243) B
11. (p. 243) C
12. (p. 243) B
13. (p. 243) D
14. (p. 243) A
15. (p. 243) C
16. (p. 243) C
17. (p. 243) C
18. (p. 243) C
19. (p. 243) B
20. (p. 243) C
21. (p. 243) B
22. (p. 243) B
23. (p. 243) D
24. (p. 243) B
25. (p. 243) A
26. (p. 244) A
27. (p. 244) A
28. (p. 244) A
29. (p. 244) D
30. (p. 244) A
31. (p. 244) C
32. (p. 244) B
33. (p. 244) D
34. (p. 244) D
35. (p. 244) A
36. (p. 246) C
37. (p. 246) A
38. (p. 246) B
39. (p. 246, 243) A
40. (p. 246) A
41. (p. 246) A
42. (p. 246) B
43. (p. 246) B
44. (p. 246) B
45. (p. 246) C
46. (p. 248) D
47. (p. 249) B
48. (p. 249) B
49. (p. 249-250) C
50. (p. 250) A
51. (p. 250) D
52. (p. 250) D
53. (p. 250) A
54. (p. 250) C
55. (p. 250) D
56. (p. 250) A
57. (p. 252) B
58. (p. 252) A
59. (p. 252) B
60. (p. 252) A
61. (p. 252) B
62. (p. 252) B
63. (p. 252) C
64. (p. 253) C
65. (p. 253) C
66. (p. 253) C
67. (p. 253) C
68. (p. 253) C
69. (p. 253) B
70. (p. 253) A
71. (p. 253) D
72. (p. 253) A
73. (p. 253) D
74. (p. 254) D
75. (p. 254) C
76. (p. 254) C
77. (p. 257) B
78. (p. 257) B
79. (p. 257) C
80. (p. 257) A
81. (p. 257) C
82. (p. 258) A
83. (p. 259) B
84. (p. 259) B
85. (p. 259-260) B
86. (p. 259) C
87. (p. 259) B
88. (p. 259) D
89. (p. 259) B
90. (p. 259) A
91. (p. 260) B
92. (p. 260) C
93. (p. 261) C
94. (p. 261) B
95. (p. 261) C
96. (p. 261) C
97. (p. 263) C
98. (p. 263) B
99. (p. 267) A
100. (p. 267) B
101. (p. 267) A
102. (p. 267) B
103. (p. 267) A
104. (p. 267) A
105. (p. 267) A
106. (p. 267) D
107. (p. 272) A
108. (p. 273) A
109. (p. 273) C
110. (p. 272) D
111. (p. 272) C
112. (p. 272) A
113. (p. 272) D
114. (p. 272) D
115. (p. 272) C
116. (p. 272) C
117. (p. 268) D
118. (p. 268) C
119. (p. 268) D
120. (p. 268) A
121. (p. 269) B
122. (p. 269) A
123. (p. 269) D
124. (p. 269) A
125. (p. 269) C
126. (p. 269) B
127. (p. 269) C
128. (p. 269) D
129. (p. 269) D
130. (p. 268) A
131. (p. 270) A
132. (p. 270) B
133. (p. 270) A
134. (p. 270) A
135. (p. 270) B
136. (p. 272) C
137. (p. 272) A
138. (p. 272) B
139. (p. 272) B
140. (p. 272) D
141. (p. 272) A
142. (p. 273) D
143. (p. 273) B
144. (p. 273) A
145. (p. 273) D
146. (p. 273) B
147. (p. 274) B
148. (p. 273-274) C
149. (p. 273-274) D
150. (p. 274) B
151. (p. 275) C
152. (p. 275) C
153. (p. 275) D
154. (p. 276) C
155. (p. 276) C
156. (p. 276) A
157. (p. 276) B
158. (p. 276) B
159. (p. 276) A
160. (p. 276) B
161. (p. 277) B
162. (p. 277) D
163. (p. 277) C
164. (p. 277) B
165. (p. 278) A
166. (p. 278) A
167. (p. 278) B
168. (p. 278) B
169. (p. 278) A
170. (p. 278) B
171. (p. 278) C
172. (p. 278) A
173. (p. 278) D
174. (p. 278) C
175. (p. 278) B
176. (p. 278) A
177. (p. 279) C
178. (p. 279) D
179. (p. 278) C
180. (p. 279) C
181. (p. 279) A
182. (p. 280) B
183. (p. 281) D
184. (p. 281) C
185. (p. 281) A
186. (p. 281) B
187. (p. 281) B
188. (p. 241) thinking
189. (p. 241) Mental images
190. (p. 243) prototypical
191. (p. 243) algorithm
192. (p. 243) representativeness
193. (p. 246) well-defined
194. (p. 246) transformation
195. (p. 249) means-ends analysis
196. (p. 250) insight
197. (p. 252) mental set
198. (p. 253) confirmation bias
199. (p. 254) divergent
200. (p. 255) fractionation
201. (p. 257) syntax
202. (p. 258) critical
203. (p. 259) telegraphic
204. (p. 259-260) Chomsky
205. (p. 260) universal grammar
206. (p. 261) linguistic-relativity hypothesis
207. (p. 263) immersion programs
208. (p. 267) intelligence
209. (p. 267) g
210. (p. 267) fluid
211. (p. 268) crystallized
212. (p. 268) more
213. (p. 268) Gardner
214. (p. 268) theory of multiple intelligences
215. (p. 270) practical
216. (p. 270) Emotional
217. (p. 272) 125
218. (p. 273) normal/bell-shaped
219. (p. 276) reliability
220. (p. 276) validity
221. (p. 277) intellectual disability
222. (p. 277) Norms
223. (p. 278) mild retardation
224. (p. 280) standardized
225. (p. 278) Mainstreaming
226. (p. 279) 130
227. (p. 280) culture-fair
228. (p. 281) The Bell Curve
229. (p. 308) heritability
Categories. Categories of objects, events, and people that are similar in some way are represented by concepts. Concepts enable us to respond
appropriately to stimuli in the environment and to identify novel objects. Some concepts, such as geometrical shapes and kinship terms, may be
represented by a unique set of properties or features (e.g., triangle—three sides, interior angles sum to 180 degrees). Most concepts are represented
by a best or most typical example, or prototype. An apple, for example, may be the prototypical fruit. Other objects are categorized as fruits to the
extent that they resemble an apple.
Objects. Objects are represented by mental images. Mental images are not only visual; they can be produced by any of our sensory systems. A
familiar example might be the experience of “hearing” a song in one’s head. Images retain many of the properties of the objects they represent; in
addition, we can often perform the same operations on images that we can on the real objects they represent. For example, it takes longer to scan
an image of a large object than it does to scan an image of a small object, just as it takes longer to scan an actual large object than a small one. We
can also rotate an object’s image in our mind, just as we can rotate objects in the physical world. Mental images have been used to enhance the
practice and performance of athletes and musicians.
The answer should contain the following points:
230. (p. 241) Students’ examples may vary.
Algorithm vs. heuristic. An algorithm is a rule that is guaranteed to produce a solution to a problem if it is applied correctly. An example might be
a formula in physics: If F = MA is appropriately applied to a particular word problem, the solution will result. A heuristic is a cognitive strategy
that may result in the solution to a problem, but it is not guaranteed to do so. Heuristics require less time, expertise, and cognitive effort to apply
than do algorithms. In addition, for certain problems, no algorithm may exist. An example of a heuristic is to assume that one can afford the
mortgage to a house if the house costs 2.5 times one’s salary or less; applying this rule is easier than calculating and projecting mortgages for
houses of different prices.
231. (p. 243-244) Students’ examples may vary.
It is a matter of opinion, though, as to whether mimicking someone else’s creativity is the same as being completely original on one’s own.
Computers can solve complex problems. For example, computer programs can evaluate potential chess moves and ignore unimportant
possibilities. Computers can also create new compositions in the style of such masters as Bach, complete with the full scope and emotional appeal
of actual Bach works.
The following text information is relevant to the answer:
232. (p. 245) Students’ answers may vary.
Well-defined vs. ill-defined problems. In well-defined problems, the nature of the problem is clear, as is the information needed to solve it. An
example might be an algebra word problem. In ill-defined problems, either or both the nature of the problem or the information needed to solve it
is unclear. Determining how to get along with a prickly supervisor may be one example.
The answer should contain the following elements:
233. (p. 246) Students’ examples may vary.
Working backward. The strategy involves focusing on the goal rather than the current state of the problem, then determining the action that would
most immediately produce the goal. A common example is looking up the answer to a mathematics problem, then figuring out the preceding steps.
Forming subgoals. This strategy involves dividing a problem into a series of intermediate steps, then solving those. A computer program
assignment might offer an example: one might code one section of the program, then another, and so on. A term paper might be divided into
separate introduction, body, conclusion, and reference assignments.
Means-ends analysis. Means-ends analysis involves repeatedly comparing the current state of the problem to the goal state and attempting to
reduce the difference between the two. In an art course, for example, one might have an idea of the piece one would like to create; one might try to
reduce the difference between the current piece and the desired one by shading here, adding a brush stroke there, smoothing this portion of the clay
a little, and so on.
234. (p. 249-251) The answer should mention the strategies described below. Examples may vary.
Creativity is only weakly associated with intelligence, probably because traditional intelligence tests are strongly centered on convergent, rather
than divergent, thinking problems.
Creativity—the ability to generate novel, yet appropriate solutions to problems. Creativity is associated with divergent thinking—considering
multiple, original answers to questions or solutions to problems. It is associated with a preference for cognitive complexity—a preference for
elaborate or intricate stimuli or thought patterns. Creative individuals often have wide-ranging interests and an interest in abstract or philosophical
problems. They tend to be independent and autonomous.
235. (p. 267-268) The answer should mention the following points:
Semantics: the external meaning of language. Taken together, the three sentences in the example allow the listener to construct a mental picture or
model of how the evening went; they take the listener into a meaningful world.
Syntax: rules to order words so that the appropriate meaning is communicated. For example, in the last sentence, “TV watched I” would not
convey the idea that it was I who watched the television set. Similarly, “Met pizza friends I two” would barely get across the idea of what
happened, if at all.
“I met two friends for pizza. We then went to the library for two hours to work on a homework assignment. After that, I watched TV for a while.”
Phonemes: speech sounds. The vowel sound in “I” and the beginning consonant in “met” are examples.
The answer should be similar to the following:
236. (p. 257-258) Students’ answers may vary.
Overgeneralization: Applying grammatical rules even when doing so results in an error. Example: “It costed one dollar.” Overgeneralization is
common among children 3-4 years of age.
Telegraphic speech: Brief sentence-like constructions which omit noncritical words. Example: “Mommy home.” Telegraphic speech is common
around age 2.
Babbling: Speech-like but meaningless sounds, such as “goo goo, ga, ga.” Children babble from about 3 months to approximately 1 year of age.
237. (p. 259) The answer should include definitions and examples similar to the following:
Nativist theory. Associated with Noam Chomsky, the nativist approach to language development suggests that humans have an innate capacity
to acquire language that unfolds as a result of biological maturation. All the world’s languages share a common underlying structure called a
universal grammar. The brain has a neural system called the language-acquisition device that allows us to acquire this universal grammar, as well
as develop strategies for learning our particular language. Neuroscientists have identified brain areas closely involved in language; in addition,
genes have been identified that contribute to language acquisition. Critics of the nativist approach suggest that the ability of nonhuman animals—
e.g., chimpanzees—to acquire language argues against such uniquely human constructs as a universal grammar and a language-acquisition device.
Learning-theory. By this account, language is acquired through reinforcement—parents shape their children’s successive approximations to adult
language. The more that parents speak to their children, the more proficient the children become in their native language. However, in reality,
adults reinforce incorrect language use by their children just as often as they reinforce correct use, calling into question the central role of shaping
in the theory.
238. (p. 259-260) The answer should include the following points:
In later adulthood, scores on measures of fluid intelligence often decline; by contrast, scores on measures of crystallized intelligence hold steady or
even increase.
Fluid intelligence: Fluid intelligence refers to an individual’s basic information processing, memory, and reasoning abilities. A sample fluid
intelligence task is a digit span test.
Crystallized intelligence: Crystallized intelligence refers to the accumulation of information, skills, and strategies that people have learned through
experience. A vocabulary test is an example of a test of crystallized intelligence.
239. (p. 267-268) The answer should contain the following points:
240. (p. 268-269) This theory proposes that there are at least eight distinct forms of intelligence: musical, bodily kinesthetic, logical, mathematical,
linguistic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalist. There may exist even more types of intelligence, such as existential intelligence. The
types of intelligence are linked to relatively independent brain systems. Each individual possesses each type of intelligence to either a greater or
lesser extent; that is, an individual may have an intelligence “profile” across the eight types. While the types of intelligence may be associated with
different neural systems, most tasks involve the cooperation of multiple forms of intelligence: an architect’s work, for example, may involve both
spatial and mathematical intelligence.
With respect to educational practice, the answer should suggest that classroom activities and the assessment of learning might consider forms of
intelligence other than those that traditionally form the backbone of education—namely, logical, mathematical, linguistic and analytical forms of
intelligence. A greater focus on alternative forms of intelligence might allow a greater proportion of students to realize their true potential.
241. (p. 270-271) Sternberg proposes three forms of intelligence: analytical, the type of intelligence that drives the solution of the sorts of abstract
problems typically found on intelligence; practical, “street smarts”—the intelligence that underlies overall success in life; and creative, the
intelligence that drives the generation of novel ideas and products.
Practical and emotional intelligence are only weakly related to traditional academic intelligence, if at all.
Emotional intelligence—comprises a set of skills underlying the accurate assessment, evaluation, expression, and regulation of emotions.
Underlies the ability to get along with others; the basis of empathy, self-awareness, and social skills. Like practical intelligence, emotional
intelligence may be more strongly related than traditional academic intelligence to life success.
242. (p. 271-272) Practical intelligence—proposed by Sternberg; the sort of intelligence that underlies life and career success. It is developed
through the careful observation of others’ behavior.
Most cases of mental retardation reflect familial retardation. In these instances, there is no apparent biological deficit, but there is history of
retardation in the family.
Causes of mental retardation: There is an identifiable biological or environmental cause in nearly 1/3 of the cases of mental retardation. Among
the most common of these causes are fetal alcohol syndrome and Down syndrome. Fetal alcohol syndrome results from the mother’s use of alcohol
while pregnant. In the U.S., one in every 750 infants is born with fetal alcohol syndrome. Down syndrome occurs when an individual is born with
an extra copy of the 21st chromosome.
Profound: IQ below 25
Severe: IQ 25-39
Moderate: IQ 40-54
Mild: IQ 55-69
Levels of mental retardation:
243. (p. 278) The response should include the following points:
The results showed that from the beginning, the participants were more successful academically and professionally than were their nongifted peers.
More surprisingly, they were better adjusted socially than were their nongifted peers, contradicting the stereotype of the intellectually gifted as
social misfits. Terman’s participants also reported higher life satisfaction than did nongifted individuals.
Beginning in the 1920s, psychologist Lewis Terman began tracking 1,500 children with IQs of 140 or higher. The children were followed for the
rest of their lives.
244. (p. 279) The answer should include the following points:
—IQ tests are still not culture-fair; black respondents may be at an unfair disadvantage from the start when taking the test.
—In other societies, if an IQ gap exists, it is always the economically disadvantaged that come out on the bottom. In a society in which blacks
were an empowered majority and whites a disenfranchised minority, any IQ gap would favor the blacks.
—The environment of black individuals differs in many ways from that of whites, not just in SES; there may be many environmental factors, then,
that could explain an IQ gap.
—The IQ gap attenuates greatly when blacks are in white environments, such as when black children are adopted by white families, or when
blacks attend college.
—There is more variability within racial categories than between them, calling the relevance of the whole race-IQ debate into question. The focus
should be on individuals rather than groups.
245. (p. 279-280) —Although there may be a substantial genetic component to intelligence, racial categories are more socially constructed than
genetically based; twin data and so forth is thus irrelevant to the race-IQ debate
ch07 Summary
Category # of Questions
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2 67
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 10.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 2.3, 2.4, 4.4 3
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 2.3, 3.2, 4.1 2
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 2.3, 4.2 2
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 2.4, 4.2 7
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 2.4, 4.2, 4.4 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.1 6
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.1, 3.4 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.1, 3.4, 4.4 3
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.1, 3.4, 4.4, 9.2, 9.3 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.1, 4.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.1, 4.2, 5.5, 8.2 3
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.1, 4.4 9
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.1, 5.5 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.2 9
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.2, 3.4 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.2, 4.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.3, 4.4 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.4 25
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.4, 4.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 3.4, 4.4 18
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.2 33
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.2, 4.3 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.2, 4.3, 4.5 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.2, 4.4 5
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.2, 4.4, 4.5 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.2, 4.4, 9.3 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.2, 5.5 2
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.2, 5.5, 8.2 4
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.2, 7.3 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.4 11
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.4, 10.3 6
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 4.4, 9.2, 9.3 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 5.5, 8.2 4
APA Goal Outcome: 1.2, 5.5, 8.2, 8.3 1
APA Goal Outcome: 1.4, 10.2 1
APA Goal Outcome: 3.1 1
APA Goal Outcome: 4.2, 4.3, 5.5 3
APA Goal Outcome: 4.2, 4.3, 5.5, 8.2, 8.5 1
APA Goal Outcome: 4.2, 4.4 1
APA Goal Outcome: 5.5, 8.2 2
Blooms Taxonomy: Apply 60
Blooms Taxonomy: Remember 100
Blooms Taxonomy: Understand 85
Difficulty: Difficult 1
Difficulty: Easy 119
Difficulty: Medium 125
Feldman – Chapter 07 245
Learning Outcome: 21-1 14
Learning Outcome: 21-2 31
Learning Outcome: 21-3 18
Learning Outcome: 21-4 29
Learning Outcome: 22-1 17
Learning Outcome: 22-2 17
Learning Outcome: 23-1 15
Learning Outcome: 23-2 53
Learning Outcome: 23-3 27
Learning Outcome: 23-4 17
Learning Outcome: 23-5 3
Learning Outcome: 24-3 1
Learning Outcome: 26-2 1
Learning Outcome: 27-5 2