Forensic Psychology 4th edition by Joanna Pozzulo – Test Bank

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Forensic Psychology 4th edition by Joanna Pozzulo – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

Chapter 4: Multiple Choice

 

1) Methods of detecting deception in Ancient China required suspects to do which of the following tasks?

  1. Putting their hand on a hot iron
  2. Walking across hot coals
  3. Putting their arm in a cauldron of boiling water
  4. Chewing dry rice powder
  5. Chewing a piece of bread

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95

 

2) The first polygraph test was developed by:

  1. John Larson
  2. William Marston
  3. a group of FBI researchers
  4. James Frye
  5. Hugo Munsterberg

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95

 

3) Which of the following is not measured by the polygraph test?

  1. heart rate
  2. galvanic skin response
  3. micro facial expressions
  4. breathing
  5. the polygraph measures all of these things

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95

 

4) The polygraph measures

  1. changes in emotional arousal associated specifically with deception
  2. changes in blood pressure, voice modulation, and perspiration
  3. changes in blood pressure, respiration, and skin conductance
  4. increases in emotional arousal in response to the control question compared to the relevant question, indicative of deception
  5. changes in blood pressure, brain-wave activity, and respiration

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95

 

5) Which of the following are potential applications of the polygraph in Canada?

  1. Polygraph testing is used to screen prospective employees in certain agencies.
  2. Polygraph results are used to pressure individuals to confess to a crime.
  3. A polygraph test may be administered to the alleged victim of a crime to help determine whether the crime has indeed occurred.
  4. A polygraph test may be administered to verify insurance claims.
  5. All of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95-96

 

6) In Canada the polygraph is used primarily in which context?

  1. police investigations
  2. employment screening
  3. treatment of sexual offenders
  4. management of sexual offenders
  5. court to assess the credibility of witnesses

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95

 

7) Which of the following organizations would not be permitted to use the polygraph to screen or test employees?

  1. Intelligence agencies
  2. Police services
  3. Government agencies
  4. Private management companies
  5. All of the above would be permitted to use the polygraph

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96

 

8) What type of test is used to uncover information about an offender’s past behaviour?

  1. Concealed information test
  2. Guilty knowledge test
  3. Polygraph disclosure test
  4. Control question test
  5. Historical assessment test

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96

 

9) “During the first 20 years of your life, did you ever think of seriously hurting someone?” This is an example of what type of polygraph question?

  1. a relevant question
  2. an irrelevant question
  3. a concealed information question
  4. a comparison question
  5. a suppressed question

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96-97

 

10) Most polygraph examiners using the Comparison Question Test (CQT) score according to the:

  1. suspect’s demeanour during the test
  2. information from the case file
  3. physiological responses
  4. suspect’s past criminal record
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96-97

 

11) The Comparison Question Test has been criticized for:

  1. being susceptible to countermeasures
  2. having a high false-false rate
  3. using subjective methods of scoring
  4. assuming that innocent suspects will show larger responses to the comparison questions as compared to the relevant
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96-97

 

12) Which polygraph test does not assess deception but seeks to determine whether the suspect knows details about a crime that only the person who committed the crime would know?

  1. Polygraph disclosure test
  2. Comparison question test
  3. Concealed information test
  4. Ground truth test
  5. Truth evasion test

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 98

 

13) Which of the following is a criticism of the Concealed Information Test?

  1. It requires full disclosure from the suspect.
  2. The test will only work if the suspect remembers the details of the crime.
  3. Reactions to relevant questions may be the same for an anxious but innocent person as a guilty party,
  4. Arousal to crime-related questions decreases over time the more a suspect is asked about them.
  5. It frequently returns inconsistent results relative to other questioning methods.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 98

 

14) According to your textbook, what is the most common physiological response measured when administering the Concealed Information Test (CIT)?

  1. palmar sweating
  2. heart rate
  3. blood pressure
  4. eye blinks
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 98

 

15) Several types of studies may be used to validate polygraph techniques. Which type of study would likely involve a comparison of the accuracy between original examiners and blind evaluators, using actual criminal suspects?

  1. field analogue study
  2. laboratory study
  3. ground truth study
  4. guilty knowledge study
  5. field study

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 98-99

 

16) One advantage of using laboratory studies to test the accuracy of the polygraph is that __________; one disadvantage is __________ as compared to field studies.

  1. you have better control over the variables; ground truth cannot be established
  2. ground truth is known; the motivational level of the subject
  3. you can randomly assign subjects to innocent and guilty conditions; you have more control over the variables
  4. university students are used; the motivational level of the subject
  5. you can randomly assign subjects to innocent and guilty conditions; it is unethical

 

Answer: b

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 98-99

 

17) One disadvantage of using field studies to study deception in criminal suspects is that:

  1. the ground truth cannot be established.
  2. most are guilty reflecting a lie-bias.
  3. many suspects are able to fool the polygraph.
  4. suspects are often not motivated to be truthful.
  5. suspects rarely agree to be a part of a research study.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 99

 

18) In laboratory studies of the accuracy of polygraph tests, it has been found that the Comparison Question Test is _______ effective at detecting ________ suspects, whereas the Concealed Information Test is ______ effective at detecting ________ suspects.

  1. more, guilty / more, innocent
  2. less, guilty / more, guilty
  3. more, innocent / less, guilty
  4. less, innocent / less, guilty
  5. more, guilty / less, innocent

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 99-100

 

19) What has been identified as a major problem particular to the Comparison Question Test (CQT)?

  1. high false-negative rate
  2. high false-positive rate
  3. the use of extra-polygraph cues by the examiner
  4. falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent
  5. difficult to tell, because no North American studies have been conducted on the CQT

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 100

 

20) What sorts of decision errors are problematic when using the Concealed Information Test (CIT)?

  1. false-positive errors
  2. false-negative errors
  3. true-positive errors
  4. true-negative errors
  5. false-true errors

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 100

 

21) You have been falsely accused of stealing a laptop computer from a professor’s office. The police have requested that you take a polygraph test to prove your innocence. In light of your knowledge of the types of errors most likely to be made by different types of polygraph exams, you agree to do so only if the examiner uses the:

  1. comparison question test
  2. relevant/irrelevant test
  3. zone of comparison format of scoring
  4. statement validity procedure
  5. concealed information test

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 99-100

 

22) Which of the following statements concerning the use of thermal imaging to detect deception is accurate?

  1. Thermal imaging of faces only is useful for identifying truth-tellers.
  2. Thermal imaging is no better than chance at identifying liars and truth-tellers.
  3. Trained interviewers perform better than thermal imaging to detect deception.
  4. Thermal imaging is highly effective at determining both liars and truth-tellers.
  5. Thermal imaging often misidentifies truth-tellers as liars, but accurately detects liars.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 100

 

23) Which of the following has not been found effective as a countermeasure to “beat” the polygraph test?

  1. tongue-biting
  2. pressing toes on the floor
  3. counting backwards
  4. anti-anxiety drugs
  5. all of the above have been found effective as countermeasures

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 101

 

24) Which of the following is true of the polygraph?

  1. Polygraph results are regularly admitted as evidence in Canadian courts.
  2. The most common polygraph method used currently is the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
  3. The polygraph directly measures whether a person is lying.
  4. Research indicates that physical countermeasures are largely ineffective in “beating” the polygraph.
  5. Research conducted thus far indicates the polygraph is highly accurate at detecting deception.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 101-102

 

25) In what case did the Supreme Court of Canada rule that polygraph evidence should not be admitted in court to help determine truthfulness?

  1. R. v. Hubbert
  2. R. v. Mohan
  3. R. v. Swain
  4. R. v. Beland
  5. R. v. Frye

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 102-103

 

26) When using brain-based polygraph techniques, what does ERP stand for?

  1. emotional response pattern
  2. event response pattern
  3. event-related brain potential
  4. emotional-related brain potential
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 103

 

27) Which of the following techniques has not been proposed as a method of detecting deception?

  1. ERPs
  2. fMRI
  3. “facial temperature”
  4. polygraph
  5. TAT

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96-100, 103-104

 

28) When using an ERP to detect deception, guilty suspects should respond to crime-relevant events and details with a large __________ relative to noncrime-relevant events.

  1. P300 response
  2. N100 response
  3. increase in blood flow
  4. rise in facial temperature
  5. activation of the frontal lobe

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 103-104

 

29) Testing using fMRI procedures has indicated that the areas of the brain most commonly associated with lying are:

  1. the temporal and frontal lobes
  2. the frontal lobe and the limbic system
  3. the amygdala and the posterior cingulate cortex
  4. the association cortex and temporal lobe
  5. the prefrontal lobe and anterior cingulate cortex

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 104

 

30) In a study by McCabe, Castel, and Rhodes (2011), which type of lie detection test was associated with the greatest number of guilty verdicts returned by mock jurors?

  1. The polygraph
  2. Thermal imaging
  3. Voice stress analysis
  4. fMRI lie detection
  5. ERP brain fingerprinting

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 104

 

31) Which verbal indicator has been most strongly associated with deception?

  1. speech fillers
  2. voice pitch
  3. speech pauses
  4. speech errors (e.g., slips of the tongue)
  5. rate of speech

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 107-108

 

32) Which nonverbal cue has consistently been found to indicate deception?

  1. smiling
  2. gaze aversion
  3. self-manipulations (e.g., fidgeting)
  4. blinking
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 106-108

 

33) Which of the following statements is false?

  1. Liars consistently provide fewer details than truth-tellers.
  2. Truth-tellers are less likely to change their stories.
  3. Liars are less likely to admit to lack of memory.
  4. Liars’ stories are less fluent than the stories of truth-tellers.
  5. Liars tell less compelling stories than truth-tellers.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 108

 

34) Recent research by Matsumoto, Hwang, Skinner, and Frank (2011) has recommended that during interrogations, investigators should pay attention not only to what a suspect says but also the suspect’s face. Why was this recommendation made?

  1. Evidence suggests facial temperature increases when suspects are lying.
  2. Studies have found that eye movements and gaze aversion are indicative of deception.
  3. Research suggests that micro facial expressions reflect the true emotions someone is feeling
  4. Truth tellers have been found to display greater facial movements relative to liars
  5. An increase in mouth and forehead movements have been linked to telling a lie.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 106-107

 

35) A study by Hillman, Vrij, and Mann (2012) found that _____________ were more associated with truth-telling relative to lying.

  1. illustrators
  2. shrugs and indications of “I don’t know”
  3. head nodding
  4. rhythmic hand gestures
  5. smiling

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 107-108

 

36) Research on the accuracy of online dating profiles has found the following is true.

  1. Online daters are most likely to lie about whether they are married, divorced, or single.
  2. Online daters are most likely to lie about the number of children they have.
  3. Online daters provide most accurate information about their height and weight.
  4. Online daters are most accurate about whether they had children.
  5. Online daters always include a photo of themselves in order to increase their odds of finding a match.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 109

 

37) In general, how accurate do people tend to be when using verbal and non-verbal behaviour to detect deception (where a value of 100% indicates that they can accurately discriminate between truthful people and deceptive people all of the time)?

  1. under 10%
  2. between 25% and 35%
  3. between 45% and 65%
  4. around 25%
  5. around 90%

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 109-110

 

38) Which of the following statements is true regarding the detection of deception?

  1. People can be trained to improve their ability to detect deception in others.
  2. People are generally better at detecting truth than detecting lies.
  3. High-stake lies are easier to detect than low-stake lies.
  4. Many professionals (e.g., police officers) are no better than detecting deception than the general population.
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 109-113

 

39) In a study on beliefs about lying, what was the most common stereotype about liars?

  1. Liars avoid eye contact.
  2. Gut instincts are reliable indicators of deception.
  3. People telling the truth never say they don’t remember.
  4. Liars often fidget and blink excessively.
  5. Liars speak with a higher pitch of voice.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 110

 

40) Melissa is participating in a deception detection study. She is given a set of 12 videos to watch and is required to indicate whether the person in the video is telling the truth or lying. She indicates that she believes 10 of the 12 to be telling the truth. Her results demonstrate what phenomenon in deception detection studies?

  1. A lie bias
  2. The challenge of determining ground truth
  3. A truth bias
  4. Wizard-like detection ability
  5. The cognitive complexity hypothesis

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 110

 

41) Which one of the following statements concerning deception detection is accurate?

  1. Deception judgments depend more on the liar than the judge.
  2. Professionals are consistently better than laypersons at detecting deception.
  3. Relatives lying about killing their loved ones are more likely to smile than innocent suspects.
  4. Judgments of truthfulness are dependent upon the personality of the judge.
  5. Complex lies are associated with fewer cues to deception relative to simple lies.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 111-112

 

42) Recommendations concerning training programs for improving deception detection abilities in professionals include:

  1. Utilizing new techniques such as thermal imaging and voice stress analysis.
  2. Teaching professionals how to elicit cues to deception in interviewing.
  3. Focusing on teaching both deception cues and truthfulness cues to counteract lie biases in professional populations.
  4. Instructing police officers to go “back to the basics” and rely on their gut instincts in determining truthfulness.
  5. Focusing on behavioural cues to deception and debunking myths about verbal cues.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 113

 

43) What disorder consists of symptoms that are intentionally produced or falsified in the absence of obvious external rewards?

  1. Munchausen syndrome
  2. malingering disorder
  3. factitious disorder
  4. somatoform disorder
  5. non-deceptive disorder

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 114

 

44) Susan gives her infant son various medications to make him appear like he is suffering from an unknown illness, and takes him regularly to doctors and the emergency room to assess these fake symptoms. This is an example of what disorder of deception?

  1. Munchausen syndrome by proxy
  2. Malingering disorder
  3. Factitious disorder
  4. Somatoform disorder
  5. Non-deceptive disorder

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 114-115

 

45) What is one of the key components to malingering?

  1. Symptoms are not intentionality produced.
  2. There are only internal motivations for the production of symptoms.
  3. There are external motivations for the production of symptoms.
  4. Symptoms are produced in order to assume the sick role.
  5. There is an absence of external incentives.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 115

 

46) The incidence of malingering in the general population is:

  1. less than 1%
  2. about 5%
  3. about 10%
  4. about 20%
  5. unknown

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 115

 

47) A patient who actually has schizophrenia denies his auditory hallucinations when questioned by doctors. This patient is likely exhibiting:

  1. defensiveness
  2. Munchausen syndrome by proxy
  3. factitious disorder
  4. somatoform disorder
  5. malingering

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 116

 

48) Which model postulates that offenders with antisocial personality disorder are more likely to malinger than other offenders?

  1. criminological model
  2. pathogenic model
  3. adaptational model
  4. antisocial personality model
  5. DSM-5 model

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 116-117

 

49) Samson is believed to be faking symptoms of physical and psychological illnesses because he has another underlying mental disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder. Which model of malingering is most applicable to this example?

  1. criminological model
  2. pathogenic model
  3. adaptational model
  4. antisocial personality model
  5. DSM-5 model

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 116-117

 

50) According to research findings, the most probable explanation of malingering is captured by:

  1. a pathogenic model
  2. a criminological model
  3. an adaptational model
  4. an antisocial model
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 116-117

 

51) Most research on malingering uses a ___________ design.

  1. known-groups
  2. simulation
  3. case study
  4. cross-sequential
  5. cross-sectional

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 117

 

52) Which statement is true of the ethical aspects of research on malingering?

  1. Studies on malingering most often provide negative incentives to participants.
  2. Ethics boards have disallowed the use of deception by experimenters in the study of malingering.
  3. While deception by experimenters has been used in research on malingering, the participants usually remain unmotivated by the made-up incentives.
  4. Researchers must often balance ethical concerns with attempts to increase the internal validity of their study.
  5. None of the above

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 118

 

53) Dr. Parsons conducted a study comparing a group of individuals diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder to a group of individuals believed to be faking post-traumatic stress disorder in order to obtain worker’s compensation. What type of study design is Dr. Parsons using to investigate malingering?

  1. known-groups
  2. simulation
  3. case study
  4. cross-sequential
  5. cross-sectional

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 119

 

54) Research has found that feigning psychosis often was associated with diagnosis of what other mental disorder?

  1. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
  2. Hypochondriasis
  3. Antisocial personality disorder
  4. Borderline personality disorder
  5. Bipolar depression

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 119

 

55) What was the major conclusion drawn by Rosenham (1973) on the research involving the hospitalization of pseudo-patients?

  1. All pseudo-patients were correctly identified by hospital staff.
  2. None of the pseudo-patients were correctly identified by hospital staff.
  3. About half the pseudo-patients were correctly identified by hospital staff.
  4. Pseudo-patients came to internalize their symptoms to such an extent that their condition progressively worsened during their hospital stay.
  5. None of the above

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 120

 

56) Which of the following is an indicator of malingered psychosis?

  1. report of blunted affect
  2. reported ability to “make the voices go away”
  3. reporting negative symptoms of psychosis
  4. eagerness to discuss delusions
  5. hallucinations in colour

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 119-121

 

57) Which of the following is not a cue to malingered psychosis in criminal defendants?

  1. hallucinations with delusions
  2. understandable motive for committing crime
  3. absence of subtle signs of psychosis
  4. presence of a partner in the crime
  5. visual hallucinations in black and white

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 119-121

 

58) The Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms includes which of the following scales?

  1. suggestibility
  2. criminal motivation for offending
  3. sudden emergence of psychotic symptoms
  4. blatant symptoms
  5. compliance symptoms

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 122-123

 

59) Which malingering measure has been extensively validated using both simulation and known-group design studies?

  1. Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)
  2. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
  3. M Test
  4. F Scale Test
  5. Symptom Validity Test

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 122-123

 

60) What self-report questionnaire has been most widely utilized in studies of malingering by examining validity scales (i.e., faking bad)?

  1. Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)
  2. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2)
  3. Trauma Symptom Inventory (TSI-2)
  4. Test of Memory Malingering (TOMM)
  5. NEO Five Factor Personality Inventory Revised (NEO-PI-R)

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 123

 

Chapter 7: Multiple Choice

 

1) Mrs. White is suing Mr. Black for psychological damages she incurred while working for Mr. Black. During this time, Mrs. White was injured while working on an assembly line when a machine clamped down on her arm. Although she is healed, she claims to suffer PTSD as a result and argues that Mr. Black knew the machine was malfunctioning and should pay the consequences of his negligent action. Which of the following statements about this case is correct?

  1. This case is not eligible to be tried by a jury.
  2. This criminal case would be tried by judge alone.
  3. This criminal case would be tried by judge and jury.
  4. This civil case would be tried by a 6-8 member jury.
  5. This civil case would be tried by a jury and require a unanimous verdict.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 188

 

2) In Canada, jury verdicts do not have to be unanimous in what type of trial?

  1. Less serious indictable offences
  2. Highly serious indictable offences
  3. Summary conviction offences
  4. Hybrid offences
  5. Civil trials

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 188

 

3) In Canada, summary offences:

  1. are tried by judge alone
  2. are tried by judge and jury
  3. are either tried by judge alone or by judge and jury as specified by the wishes of the defendant
  4. are either tried by judge alone or by judge and jury depending on the severity of the offence
  5. are either tried by judge alone or by judge and jury depending on the decision of the Crown prosecution

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 188

 

4) Fred Wilson violated his probation order. According to your text, Mr. Wilson would be charged with a(n) ___________ offence and his trial would likely be heard by __________.

  1. summary offence/judge only
  2. summary offence/judge and jury
  3. indictable offence/judge only
  4. indictable offence/judge and jury
  5. hybrid offence/judge only

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 188

 

5) Which of the following is not true regarding indictable offences in Canada?

  1. The accused can choose whether the trial proceeds by judge alone or judge and jury in some indictable offences.
  2. Less serious indictable offences are heard by a judge sitting alone.
  3. Highly serious indictable offences are tried by judge and jury.
  4. Highly serious indictable offences can be tried by judge alone if the accused and attorney general agree.
  5. All of the above are true regarding indictable offences in Canada.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 188-189

 

6) Which legislation outlines the criteria for jury eligibility in each of the provinces and territories in Canada?

  1. Criminal Code of Canada
  2. Juries Act
  3. Corrections and Conditional Release Act
  4. Jury Selection Code
  5. Summons Act

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 189

 

7) Thomas receives a jury summons in the mail, but he throws it in the trash and does not show up to the courthouse at the appointed time. What is the likely outcome for Thomas?

  1. No penalty
  2. Jail time
  3. A monetary fine
  4. Will not be excused from jury duty
  5. Either b or c

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 189

 

8) In most Canadian trials, the defence and Crown are each allowed ___ peremptory challenges.

  1. 6
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 16
  5. 20

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 189

 

9) In Canadian murder trials, the defence and Crown are each allowed ___ peremptory challenges.

  1. 6
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 16
  5. 20

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 189

 

10) A(n) _______________ can be used by the Crown or the defence to reject a potential juror without have to provide a reason for doing so.

  1. adjournment
  2. challenge for cause
  3. nullification
  4. voir dire
  5. peremptory challenge

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 189

 

11) You have been summoned as a prospective juror, and are being asked questions by the Crown and defence. When the defence finds out you are taking a course in forensic psychology, he argues that you should be excused on this basis and not eligible to be a juror in this case. What type of challenge is the defence council using in this situation?

  1. Ex-post-facto challenge
  2. Challenge for cause
  3. Nullification challenge
  4. Voir dire challenge
  5. Peremptory challenge

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 189-190

 

12) According to the Supreme Court of Canada, the two fundamental characteristics of jurors are:

  1. representativeness and commitment
  2. commitment and truthfulness
  3. impartiality and truthfulness
  4. commitment and impartiality
  5. representativeness and impartiality

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 190

 

13) The case of R. v. Brown (2005) was used in your text as an example of what jury-related concept?

  1. Jury representativeness
  2. Jury nullification
  3. Jury impartiality
  4. Peremptory challenge
  5. Challenge for cause

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 191

 

14) According to retired Supreme Court Justice of Canada Frank Iacobucci, which population is currently under-represented on Canadian juries?

  1. Women
  2. Aboriginals
  3. Asians
  4. Youth
  5. Men

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 190

 

15) The term used to describe a juror who is unbiased is:

  1. representative
  2. impartial
  3. naïve
  4. immature
  5. partial

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 191

 

16) An option to reject biased jurors is known as a:

  1. change of venue
  2. adjournment
  3. challenge for cause
  4. nullification
  5. deliberation

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 189-190

 

17) Research on the effects of pretrial publicity and juror decision-making by Ruva and colleagues has revealed that

  1. only negative pretrial publicity influences verdicts
  2. only positive pretrial publicity influences verdicts
  3. both negative and positive pretrial publicity influences verdicts
  4. verdicts are not influenced by this publicity as it is disregarded by jurors.
  5. jurors are only selected if they have not been exposed to any publicity about the defendant.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 192

 

18) Which of the following is not a strategy used to increase the chances of an impartial jury?

  1. Adjournment
  2. Challenge for cause
  3. Change of venue
  4. Peremptory challenge
  5. Postponing the trial

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 193-194

 

19) When probing jurors during a challenge for cause, what are lawyers not allowed to ask prospective jurors about?

  1. backgrounds
  2. personalities
  3. attitudes
  4. a and b
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 193-194

 

20) In a challenge for cause, jurors are selected by:

  1. the judge
  2. the Crown
  3. the defence
  4. members of the jury pool
  5. the accused

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 194

 

21) Which of the following is not one of the functions of a jury?

  1. to use the wisdom of 12 to reach a verdict
  2. to promote democracy
  3. to protect against outdated laws
  4. to increase knowledge about the justice system
  5. to act as the conscience of the community

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 195

 

22) What is the term used to describe a jury that ignores the law when reaching a verdict?

  1. jury nullification
  2. jury resistance
  3. jury tampering
  4. jury invalidation
  5. jury conscience

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 195

 

23) The 1975 change to Quebec law whereby a jury verdict could no longer be overturned on appeal is known as the:

  1. Morgentaler Amendment
  2. Deadlock Amendment
  3. Latimer Amendment
  4. Authoritarian Amendment
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 196

 

24) The Morgentaler and Latimer cases discussed in your text are illustrations of:

  1. challenge for cause
  2. jury nullification
  3. jury impartiality
  4. case-specific approaches
  5. the black sheep effect

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 196

 

25) Chaos theory in relation to jury nullification refers to:

  1. jurors being guided by emotions and personal biases rather than the law
  2. jurors upholding the law despite the public outcry that their verdict will likely cause
  3. jurors disregarding the law based on extralegal factors such as the appearance of the defendant
  4. jurors being dismissed from juries in controversial cases when biased decision-making is evident
  5. jurors following the law so as not to incite chaos in the courtroom

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 195-196

 

26) Meissner, Brigham, and Pfeifer (2003) reached what overall conclusion regarding nullification instructions?

  1. Nullification instructions produce socially favourably and socially unfavourably verdicts.
  2. Nullification instructions only produce socially favourably verdicts.
  3. Nullification instructions only produce socially unfavourably verdicts.
  4. Nullification instructions do not influence verdicts.
  5. The effect of nullification instructions cannot be predicted.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 195-196

 

27) Which research method is most commonly used to study jury decision making?

  1. simulation studies
  2. post-trial interviews
  3. archival studies
  4. examination of media reports
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 197-198

 

28) Which of the following methods of researching jury behaviour is least likely to be used in Canada?

  1. archival research
  2. post-trial interviews
  3. simulation studies
  4. field studies
  5. All of the above are commonly used in Canada.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 197-198

 

29) Which research methodology is limited with the types of questions that can be asked given its method of data collection?

  1. field studies
  2. simulation studies
  3. archives
  4. post-trial interviews
  5. experimental studies

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 197-198

 

30) What is a key characteristic of jury simulation studies?

  1. Archival material is used.
  2. Variables of interest are manipulated.
  3. Individuals who have served on juries in the past typically participate.
  4. Mock trials are usually longer than real trials.
  5. There is high external validity.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 197-198

 

31) Which research method is able to establish cause-and-effect relationships?

  1. archives
  2. simulation studies
  3. post-trial interviews
  4. field studies
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 198

 

32) Note taking by jurors has been proposed as one possible way of improving juror comprehension. However, a number of researchers have pointed out potential problems with this comprehension aid. Which of the following has been proposed as a potential problem with juror note taking?

  1. Jurors who have taken notes may exert an undue influence over those who haven’t.
  2. Note taking may distort perceptions of the case.
  3. Note taking may be disruptive to other jurors.
  4. Note taking may impede memory.
  5. Note taking favours the defence.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 199

 

33) According to a review of research examining juror note taking, Penrod and Heuer (1997) concluded that:

  1. note takers distract jurors who do not take notes
  2. note takers cannot keep up with the evidence being presented
  3. jurors overemphasize the evidence that they have noted, at the expense of evidence they have not recorded
  4. juror note taking favours the Crown/prosecution
  5. notes are an accurate record of the trial

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 199

 

34) According to a review of research examining juror questions, Penrod and Heuer (1997) concluded that:

  1. juror questions help reveal truth
  2. juror questions help increase jurors’, judges’, and lawyers’ satisfaction with the trial and verdict
  3. jury questioning increases a juror’s understanding of the case facts
  4. jurors tend to ask legally inappropriate questions
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 199

 

35) As it currently stands in Canada, the practice of jurors asking questions and taking notes is:

  1. left to the discretion of the juror
  2. left to the discretion of the judge
  3. left to the discretion of the Crown
  4. compulsory
  5. not permitted

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 199-200

 

36) How can the CSI effect be described?

  1. the education of jurors whereby they are more likely to convict if techniques seen on television are used
  2. watching over 20 hours of crime shows a week
  3. the fatigue associated with watching “CSI” type shows
  4. a new mental health syndrome
  5. a term used to distinguish it from the Law and Order effect

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 200

 

37) Freda is serving as a jury member in a murder trial. She strongly feels that the defendant is guilty when she hears evidence presented that is similar to what she has seen on her favourite crime drama Law and Order. Freda’s judgment is likely influenced by what psychological phenomenon?

  1. The story model
  2. Jury nullification
  3. The CSI effect
  4. Leniency bias
  5. Polarization

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 200

 

38) Which of the following is the most empirically supported model of jury decision making?

  1. relative contribution model
  2. just-world attribution model
  3. explanation model
  4. justification model
  5. mathematical model

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 203-204

 

39) Which of the following is an example of an explanation model of jury decision making?

  1. math model
  2. story model
  3. new-age model
  4. structure model
  5. hybrid model

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 204

 

40) In Canada, juries in criminal trials must reach a ___________ verdict.

  1. majority
  2. unanimous
  3. 51% majority
  4. hung
  5. 75% majority

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 204

 

41) A jury is in the process of deliberations. The six jurors who initially felt that the accused was innocent begin to feel even more strongly that the accused is innocent, while the six jurors who initially felt that the accused was guilty begin to feel even more strongly that the accused is guilty. This process is called:

  1. normative influence
  2. compliance
  3. polarization
  4. unconscious transference leniency
  5. leniency bias

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 204

 

42) Numerous studies have now examined the effect of jury size. This research indicates that, compared to a 12-person jury, a 6-person jury is likely to:

  1. be less representative of the community
  2. recall less of the evidence presented at trial
  3. spend less time deliberating
  4. reach a unanimous decision
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 205

 

43) Following deliberations, a jury may be more likely to return a verdict of not guilty. This refers to:

  1. the polarization effect
  2. the verdict driven effect
  3. the evidence driven effect
  4. the leniency effect
  5. the nullification effect

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 204

 

44) Sam and the other members of the jury have just finished hearing all the evidence in a sexual assault trial. Once they enter the deliberation room, Sam says that he thinks they should take an initial poll to see what verdict each juror would return, and then they can discuss the evidence. Sam is using what type of style of jury deliberation?

  1. Polarization
  2. Evidence driven
  3. Verdict driven
  4. Leniency
  5. Nullification

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 206

 

45) In their study examining rape myths, sexual attitudes, and gender in relation to a date rape scenario, Hammond, Berry, and Rodriguez (2011) found that:

  1. both males and females endorsed rape myths and were more lenient towards the accused.
  2. female jurors were more likely to endorse rape myths but were more punitive towards the accuser.
  3. female jurors were less likely to endorse rape myths but more likely to be lenient towards the accused and accuser.
  4. male jurors were less likely to endorse rape myths and were more punitive towards the accused.
  5. male jurors were more likely to endorse rape myths and were more lenient towards the accused.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 206

 

46) A meta-analysis concerning racial bias and verdicts by Mitchell, Haw, Pfeifer, and Meissner (2005) revealed that

  1. jurors are less likely to return guilty verdicts for ‘other-race’ defendants because they don’t want to appear biased.
  2. jurors are more likely to return guilty verdicts for ‘other-race’ defendants than for defendants of their own race.
  3. mixed-race juries produce the most accurate verdicts as they balance out any potential biases.
  4. jurors are more likely to convict ‘other-race’ defendants, especially when racial issues are discussed during trial.
  5. jurors are always less likely to convict ‘other-race’ defendants due to the leniency bias.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 206-207

 

47) Imagine that you are a consultant for defence council in a case involving an Aboriginal male accused of murdering a white female and a primarily Caucasian jury. Based on the research on racial bias in court, what advice would you give the defence council?

  1. Advise the lawyer to “play the race card” (i.e., mention racial issues to jury) as this helps to reduce juror bias towards other-race defendants
  2. Advise the lawyer to focus on presenting his case with strong evidence and leave race out of it completely.
  3. Advise the lawyer to make his client look “as Caucasian as possible” to minimize juror bias based on stereotypes.
  4. Advise the lawyer to discredit the victim as much as possible by labeling her as a ‘black sheep’ to elicit sympathy towards the defendant.
  5. Both a and c.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 206-207

 

48) Juan is a young adult man of Hispanic heritage, accused of murdering his Caucasian girlfriend Suzanne. Carmela is a Hispanic woman who is serving as a member of the jury. According to the black sheep effect, Carmela would be likely to:

  1. Be more lenient towards Juan if the victim is portrayed as a ‘black sheep’.
  2. Be more punitive towards Juan if the evidence against him is weak.
  3. Be more lenient towards Juan if the evidence against him is strong.
  4. Be more punitive towards Juan if the evidence against him is strong.
  5. Be more lenient towards Juan because they are the same race, independent of whether the evidence against him is strong or weak

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 207

 

49) Narby, Cutler, and Moran (1993) conducted a meta-analysis examining authoritarianism and juror verdicts. They found what type of relationship?

  1. small positive
  2. small negative
  3. moderate positive
  4. moderate negative
  5. no relationship

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 207

 

50) Which one of the following jurors would likely be most persuasive based on their characteristics?

  1. Tara, a short, highly agreeable, and extroverted female.
  2. Marcus, a tall, extroverted male with high levels of moral reasoning
  3. Todd, an introverted male who is very conscientious and shows high moral reasoning.
  4. Felicity, an extroverted female who scores high on openness to experience.
  5. Josh, an agreeable, conscientious, extrovert.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 207-208

 

51) According to research by Gunnell and Ceci (2010) on juror decision-making and the Cognitive Experiential Self Theory (CEST), jurors who rely more on their personal experiences, interpretations, and emotional reactions when making decisions are engaging in:

  1. Dogmatic processing
  2. Rational processing
  3. Elaborative processing
  4. Narrative processing
  5. Experiential processing

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 208

 

52) Which of the following is true regarding jurors who are willing to give the death penalty?

  1. They recall more evidence presented at trial.
  2. They are less likely to understand judicial instructions.
  3. They are less likely to render a not guilty verdict than jurors who are not willing to give the death penalty.
  4. They are more likely to render a guilty verdict than jurors who are not willing to give the death penalty.
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 209

 

53) Which of the following defendant characteristics has been found to influence a verdict?

  1. criminal history
  2. mental health
  3. occupation
  4. marital status
  5. sex

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 209

 

54) The current rape shield provisions in Canadian courts specify that:

  1. A woman’s prior sexual history cannot be introduced in court.
  2. A woman’s prior sexual history is admissible evidence and necessary for determining credibility.
  3. A woman’s sexual history is deemed irrelevant in court, unless prior false allegations of rape exist on record.
  4. A woman’s prior sexual history is relevant only when it concerns previous confirmed victimization.
  5. A woman’s prior sexual history may be admitted to court at the judge’s discretion and only if relevant to the case.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 210

 

55) In R. v. Darrach, 2000, the Supreme Court of Canada decided that the onus is on the ___________ to show the victim’s sexual history is relevant in a sexual assault case.

  1. Crown
  2. defendant
  3. victim
  4. jury
  5. police officer

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 212

 

56) According to a study by Sundby (1997) on jurors’ perceptions of different types of witnesses, which of the following witnesses would be viewed most negatively?

  1. a lay expert
  2. a professional expert
  3. a friend of the defendant
  4. a family member of the defendant
  5. There are generally no differences in jurors’ perceptions of these different witnesses.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 213

 

Chapter 9: Multiple Choice

 

1) Which of the following types of cases would not be heard at a provincial or “inferior” court?

  1. traffic violations
  2. small claims
  3. first degree murder cases
  4. appeals from administrative tribunals
  5. both b and c

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 250-252

 

2) A member of Canada Post has been charged with violating personal rights as he was opening and reading letters that were not addressed to him while sorting mail for his route. This Canada Post worker would be tried in what type of court?

  1. Administrative Tribunal
  2. Gladue Court
  3. Provincial Superior Court
  4. Federal Court
  5. Tax Court of Canada

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 250-252

 

3) Which court is responsible for providing direction to the federal government on legal issues such as the interpretation of Canadian Constitutional Rights?

  1. Federal Administrative Tribunal
  2. Gladue Court
  3. Provincial Superior Court
  4. Federal Court of Appeal
  5. Supreme Court of Canada

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 250-252

 

4) Which of the following is not a potential explanation for Aboriginal overrepresentation in the prison system?

  1. Aboriginal people commit more crimes than non-Aboriginal people.
  2. Compared to non-Aboriginal people, Aboriginal people commit crimes that are more likely to result in prison sentences.
  3. Aboriginal people have greater access to adequate legal representation compared to non-Aboriginal people.
  4. Aboriginal are more economically disadvantaged than non-Aboriginal people and thus are impacted more by criminal justice practices such as the use of fines.
  5. There is systemic racism in the criminal justice system, which negatively impacts Aboriginal people.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 252-254

 

5) Aboriginal courts in Canada are sometimes referred to as:

  1. Gladue courts
  2. drug courts
  3. Bill C-41 courts
  4. Gregory courts
  5. restorative justice courts

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 252-254

 

6) Perreault (2009) reported that Aboriginal offenders were greatly overrepresented in both custody and community-based correctional programs. Compared to the rate of Aboriginal persons in the Canadian population (about 3%), what was the approximate rate of Aboriginal people in the correctional population?

  1. 10%
  2. 18%
  3. 26%
  4. 31%
  5. 40%

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 252-254

 

7) Which of the following would not be considered a Gladue factor in Aboriginal Courts?

  1. Attendance at a residential school
  2. Lack of employment
  3. Substance abuse
  4. Strong cultural identification
  5. Exposure to abuse

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 253-254

 

8) Restorative justice refers to:

  1. An approach that focuses on restoring the balance between right and wrong-doing and employs harsh punishment techniques
  2. An approach that emphasizes access to rehabilitation resources while offenders are in prison to minimize future offending.
  3. An approach used to heal those affected by the criminal act (victims, offenders, and community)
  4. An approach that recognizes that life factors need to be addressed throughout corrections in order to restore a person to a law-abiding citizen.
  5. An approach that employs a mandatory program in prison called “recover and restore” to address offender remorse, reparations, and positive behavioural changes.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 254

 

9) Sentencing an offender with the goal of reducing the probability that members of the community will violate the law is known as:

  1. restorative justice
  2. reparative justice
  3. specific deterrence
  4. systematic disparity
  5. general deterrence

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 255-256

 

10) According to your textbook, which of the following is not a goal of sentencing in Canada?

  1. providing reparations to victims
  2. denouncing the act to society
  3. aiding in the rehabilitation of the offender
  4. ensuring that retribution is achieved
  5. promoting a sense of responsibility in offenders

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 255-256

 

11) Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to sentencing in Canada?

  1. The fundamental principle of sentencing indicates that more serious offences should receive more serious sentences.
  2. Sentencing goals can be incompatible with one another.
  3. Judges sometimes rely on extra-legal factors when handing down sentences.
  4. Judges must select one specific goal they hope to achieve when handing down a sentence.
  5. Monetary fines are the most common sentencing options used in Canada.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 256

 

12) The Canadian Criminal Code outlines several principles of sentencing. Which of the following is not included in these principles?

  1. Sentences should be adjusted to account for relevant aggravating circumstances.
  2. Sentences should be adjusted to account for relevant mitigating circumstances.
  3. Judges should consider multiple goals when handing down sentences.
  4. Where consecutive sentences are imposed, the combined sentence should not be unduly harsh.
  5. If possible, sentences other than imprisonment should be considered.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 256-257

 

13) One of Canada’s newest sentencing options, introduced in 1996, allows offenders to serve their sentence in the community. This option is referred to as:

  1. restitution
  2. an absolute discharge
  3. a conditional discharge
  4. specific deterrence
  5. a conditional sentence

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 257-258

 

14) A convicted offender sentenced to three years in prison is likely to be placed in:

  1. a federal penitentiary
  2. a maximum security penitentiary
  3. a territorial prison
  4. a provincial prison
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 257-258

 

15) James was just convicted of breaking and entering in an Ontario court. The judge sentenced James to 18 months in jail. Where will James serve out his sentence?

  1. a federal penitentiary
  2. a maximum security penitentiary
  3. a territorial prison
  4. a provincial prison
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 257-258

 

16) Tommy is hospitalized due to injuries sustained from a car accident, which was caused by an inattentive driver. The judge requires that the driver pay for Tommy’s medical bills incurred as a result of the accident. This particular sentence is known as:

  1. a conditional discharge
  2. a conditional sentence
  3. a fine
  4. restitution
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 257-258

 

17) Which of the following is not one of the “creative” sentencing options discussed in your text that have been handed down by judges in the United States?

  1. Wearing chicken suits
  2. New age anger management classes
  3. Unpaid work for a septic company
  4. Listening to classical music
  5. Males dressing as women

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 258

 

18) Research has demonstrated that the greatest variation in sentencing is accounted for more by ___________ than the actual facts of the case.

  1. Information about the judge
  2. The defendant’s gender
  3. Victim characteristics
  4. The defendant’s race
  5. The way the lawyers present the case

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 259

 

19) According to Canadian researchers, one of the most important problems with sentencing at the moment is:

  1. high rates of offender recidivism even when harsh sentences are administered
  2. sentencing disparity
  3. prison overcrowding
  4. a lack of adequate research on sentencing in Canada
  5. the fact that the criminal justice system tends to hand down sentences that are too lenient

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 259-261

 

20) According to McFatter (1986), the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity are:

  1. extra-legal disparity and intra-legal disparity
  2. systematic disparity and unsystematic disparity
  3. justifiable disparity and unjustifiable disparity
  4. general disparity and specific disparity
  5. coherent disparity and incoherent disparity

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 260

 

21) Judge Jonas has heard three cases of breaking and entering today, all involving similar offenders and similar circumstances. In the first case, he handed down a sentence of 3 months, in the second case a sentence of 2 years, and in the third case a sentence of 8 months. Judge Jonas’ behaviour reflects what type of sentencing disparity?

  1. Extra-legal disparity
  2. Systematic disparity
  3. Unsystematic disparity
  4. Generalized disparity
  5. Intra-legal disparity

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 260

 

22) Which of the following is a source of systematic sentencing disparity?

  1. personality differences across judges
  2. a judge’s mood fluctuations
  3. a judge’s level of fatigue
  4. both b and c
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 260

 

23) Judge Ingles just sentenced a young male defendant to 5 years in prison for sexual assaulting his girlfriend. In another similar case of date rape, Judge Faberson sentenced the young male defendant to 10 years in prison.  In yet another sexual assault case between a young male defendant and his female roommate, Judge Percy handed down a sentence of 12 years. These discrepancies in sentencing reflect what type of sentencing disparity?

  1. Extra-legal disparity
  2. Systematic disparity
  3. Unsystematic disparity
  4. Generalized disparity
  5. Intra-legal disparity

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 260

 

24) What is the most common procedure used to study sentencing disparity?

  1. field studies
  2. archival studies
  3. simulation studies
  4. use of official sentencing statistics
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 260-261

 

25) In the study conducted by McFatter (1986), sentencing disparity:

  1. resulted mostly from unsystematic sources
  2. resulted mostly from systematic sources
  3. did not exist
  4. only existed for inexperienced judges
  5. was only evident in cases involving murder and rape

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 260-261

 

26) Which of the following statements is true regarding sentencing disparity in Canada?

  1. So far, no methods have been proposed to reduce sentencing disparity.
  2. Sentencing disparity ultimately exists because judges are allowed a great deal of discretion when making sentencing decisions.
  3. Laboratory-based studies do not show evidence of sentencing disparity.
  4. Official statistics cannot be used to study sentencing disparity in Canada.
  5. All of the above statements are true.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 259-262

 

27) In a study of Canadian provincial court judges by Palys and Divorski (1986), each judge participant was provided with 5 different criminal cases (and surrounding information). The judges were asked impose a sentence for each offender and indicate what facts they considered relevant in their decision-making (i.e., legal objectives, case facts, and demographic information). What component of the judge’s decision-making was the most important predictor of sentencing severity?

  1. Differential weighting of legal objectives
  2. Over-consideration of the race of the defendant
  3. Selective attention to facts only the judge considered relevant
  4. Inconsistent or unclear case facts
  5. An interaction between the gender of the defendant and the type of crime

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 260-261

 

28) Sentencing guidelines, such as mandatory minimum sentences and starting point sentences, have been utilized to:

  1. promote rehabilitation rather than incarceration.
  2. “crack down” on crime by increasing sentence severity.
  3. increase leniency towards offenders with mitigating circumstances.
  4. reduce sentencing disparity between and within judges.
  5. provide juries with better instructions on how they should sentence offenders.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 261-262

 

29) For offences included in the Canadian Criminal Code, the death penalty was formally abolished in:

  1. 1945
  2. 1962
  3. 1976
  4. 1985
  5. 1999

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 264

 

30) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the death penalty in Canada?

  1. A 2013 opinion poll indicated that the majority of Canadians are in favour of reinstating the death penalty for murder.
  2. Research suggests that the death penalty should not be reinstated if the purpose of it is to reduce crime.
  3. The murder rate in Canada has generally declined since the death penalty was abolished.
  4. It is rare for convicted murderers in Canada to commit another murder upon release from prison.
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 264

 

31) According to the study by Gendreau et al. (2001), which examined the effectiveness of community-based sanctions and incarceration, the only two sanctions that were found to decrease recidivism were:

  1. prison and electronic monitoring
  2. restitution and supervision programs
  3. fines and electronic monitoring
  4. restitution and fines
  5. prison and supervision programs

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 264-265

 

32) According to your textbook, which of the following is an example of a criminogenic need?

  1. an offender’s self-esteem
  2. childhood sexual abuse
  3. age at first offence
  4. socioeconomic status
  5. antisocial attitudes

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 266

 

33) Johnny is a low-risk offender. According to the risk principle, what is likely to happen if he is exposed to very intense prison-based interventions?

  1. His risk of recidivism is likely to decrease dramatically.
  2. His risk of recidivism is likely to decrease slightly.
  3. His risk of recidivism is likely to remain the same.
  4. His risk of recidivism is likely to increase.
  5. He will definitely recidivate upon release from prison.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 266

 

34) Rob is illiterate and English is his second language. When he is sentenced to incarceration, he is given treatment that requires him to read treatment-related books written in English before each of his counselling sessions. This is a violation of what principle of effective correctional treatment?

  1. the need principle
  2. the risk principle
  3. the responsivity principle
  4. the rehabilitative principle
  5. the specificity principle

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 266

 

35) In their research on the responsivity principle, Andrews and Bonta (2010) suggested that ___________________ interventions are likely to be most useful with offenders.

  1. psychodynamic
  2. “scared straight”
  3. humanistic
  4. emotion-based
  5. cognitive-behavioural

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 266

 

36) One example of an inappropriate intervention would be:

  1. Psychodynamic strategies
  2. Role-playing
  3. Behavioural modelling
  4. Rehearsal
  5. Reinforcement

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 266

 

37) In 1899, Sir Wilfrid Laurier was responsible for the introduction of ______________ in Canada.

  1. parole
  2. probation
  3. conditional sentencing
  4. restitution
  5. imprisonment

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 267

 

38) Parole involves all of the following principles, except:

  1. an attempt to rehabilitate offenders so they can become productive contributors to society.
  2. to reduce sentences imposed by the courts.
  3. a high degree of community supervision to ensure the parolee is abiding by certain rules.
  4. the conditional release of offenders into a community.
  5. a clause that revokes parole if conditions are not complied with.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 267

 

39) Which of the following statements is true concerning parole in Canada?

  1. Most offenders released on parole are convicted of new crimes.
  2. Parole reduces the sentence imposed by the courts.
  3. An offender’s expression of remorse is the most important factor taken into account when decisions are made about parole.
  4. The National Parole Board denies full parole to over half of offenders at their first parole review date.
  5. Victims do not have role in the parole process.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 267-268

 

40) Typically in Canada, an incarcerated offender is first eligible for full parole after having served ___________ of his/her sentence.

  1. one-quarter
  2. one-third
  3. half
  4. two-thirds
  5. three-quarters

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 267-268

 

41) Mason was convicted of assault with a weapon, and has served a portion of his time in jail. He is being granted statutory release, meaning that he has served ___________ of his sentence.

  1. one-quarter
  2. one-third
  3. half
  4. two-thirds
  5. three-quarters

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 267-268

 

42) Sylvia has served the first third of her sentence for assaulting her husband. What is the highest level of parole that she is now eligible for?

  1. Statutory release
  2. Day parole
  3. Full parole
  4. Temporary absence
  5. Warrant expiry

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 267-268

 

43) Russell was given a 9 year sentence for attacking a coworker with a knife. His sentence commenced in 2013. In 2019, Russell will be eligible for what type of parole?

  1. Statutory release
  2. Day parole
  3. Full parole
  4. Temporary absence
  5. Warrant expiry

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 267-268

 

44) Which of the following is not one of the myths surrounding parole in Canada?

  1. Parole reduces sentences imposed by the courts
  2. Parole is automatically granted when an inmate becomes eligible for parole consideration
  3. The PBC grants parole to offenders who express remorse for the offences they have committed
  4. Most of the offenders released on parole are convicted of new crimes
  5. Victims play a key role in the parole process, and their views concerning personal and public safety are considered

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 268

 

45) When making a decision about whether to grant an offender parole, the National Parole Board takes into account:

  1. opinions from police officers
  2. the offender’s mental status
  3. the offender’s employment history
  4. information from victims
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 269

 

46) The first type of release an offender is typically granted is:

  1. day parole
  2. full parole
  3. statutory release
  4. temporary absence
  5. partial parole

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 267

 

47) By law, most federal inmates must be granted ____________ after serving ________ of their sentence.

  1. temporary absence/one-third
  2. temporary absence/half
  3. statutory release/two-thirds
  4. statutory release/three-quarters
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 267-268

 

48) Generally, offenders granted ________ are less likely to breach their parole conditions than those granted ___________.

  1. statutory release/full parole
  2. statutory release/day parole
  3. statutory release/temporary absence
  4. day parole/statutory release
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 271-273

 

49) Dr. Serin and colleagues developed an empirically-based framework for making parole decisions that has been adopted by the Parole Board of Canada. Research on the use of this framework has revealed that:

  1. Higher rates of decision errors have occurred due to confusion over the model
  2. Lower rates of decision errors have occurred across a range of situations
  3. Lower rates of decision errors have occurred, but only for Aboriginal offenders
  4. Higher rates of decision errors have occurred for special inmate populations (Aboriginal, youth, women) but errors have been reduced for the remainder of inmates
  5. Use of this model does not result in significant differences when compared to traditional (unstructured) parole decision-making

 

Answer: b

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 269-271

 

50) The most common manner of examining public attitudes toward sentencing and parole is through:

  1. simulation studies
  2. focus groups
  3. public opinion surveys
  4. field studies
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 272

 

51) Which of the following is not true concerning results found from public opinion surveys examining public attitudes toward sentencing and parole?

  1. Canadians believe offenders are treated too harshly.
  2. Canadians support alternatives to prison under certain circumstances.
  3. Canadians have more confidence in the courts than they do in the police.
  4. both a and c
  5. both a and b

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 272

 

52) Data from the Parole Board of Canada indicates that most of the failures experienced by offenders on parole (and statutory release) are due to _____________________ rather than __________________.

  1. antisocial peers; breach of conditions
  2. commission of new offences; breach of conditions
  3. breach of conditions; commission of new offences
  4. breach of conditions; antisocial attitudes and lifestyle
  5. drug and substance abuse; breach of conditions

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 271-273

 

53) According to recent opinion polls, the criminal justice institution in which the Canadian public tends to have most confidence is:

  1. the police
  2. the federal government
  3. the National Parole Board
  4. the supreme court
  5. the provincial courts

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 271-273