Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb – Test Bank





Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition  by Bryan Kolb – Test Bank


Sample  Questions


1. An interruption of the blood supply to the brain is called a:
A) stroke.
B) seizure.
C) hematoma.
D) thrombus.



2. The average human brain contains a combination of approximately _____ neurons and glial cells.
A) 50 billion
B) 170 billion
C) 180 million
D) 80 billion



3. Moving from rostral to caudal in the central nervous system means moving from the:
A) spinal cord toward the brain.
B) occipital lobes toward the frontal lobes.
C) brain toward the spinal cord.
D) sensory receptors to the spinal cord.



4. Two structures that lie in the same cerebral hemisphere are said to be _____ to one another.
A) afferent
B) inferior
C) contralateral
D) ipsilateral



5. Jackson’s strip, area 4, and area pyramidalis are all synonyms for:
A) the cerebellum.
B) the medullary pyramids.
C) the frontal cortex.
D) the precentral gyrus.



6. The parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves make up the _____ nervous system.
A) peripheral
B) central
C) emotional
D) autonomic



7. The outermost layer of the brain covering is called the _____.
A) pia mater
B) meningeal layer
C) dura mater
D) arachnoid layer



8. A major role of cerebrospinal fluid is to:
A) transmit electrical signals between the brain and spinal cord.
B) inflate muscles as part of the reflex circuit.
C) remove waste products of neural metabolism.
D) cushion the brain and spinal cord from shock.



9. Beginning at the undersurface of the skull, which of the following sequences of layers is correct?
A) cortex, arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater
B) cortex, pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater
C) dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater, cortex
D) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid, cortex



10. The brain originates from a single cell termed a _____.
A) blast cell
B) neuron
C) mother cell
D) neural stem cell



11. The stage at which neurons and glial cells are first differentiated from one another is the _____ stage.
A) stem cell
B) blast cell
C) progenitor cell
D) migrational



12. An interneuron is defined as a neuron that:
A) receives input from other neurons and projects in turn to other neurons.
B) receives input from sensory receptors and projects in turn to other neurons.
C) receives input from other neurons and projects in turn to muscles.
D) is found only in the cerebral cortex.



13. Cells that support and insulate the nervous system are called _____.
A) neuroblasts
B) germinal cells
C) glial cells
D) reticular matter



14. Capillary blood vessels and neuronal cell bodies are characteristic of _____.
A) gray matter
B) white matter
C) tracts
D) ventricles



15. Tract is to nerve as:
A) PNS is to CNS.
B) CNS is to PNS.
C) ANS is to PNS.
D) cranial nerves are to spinal nerves.



16. Brain tissue characterized by an intermixing of cell bodies and axons is called _____ matter.
A) reticular
B) gray
C) white
D) nucleoid



17. Your cerebral cortex is located in your _____.
A) diencephalon
B) telencephalon
C) myelencephalon
D) metencephalon



18. The MOST caudal division of the brain is the _____.
A) prosencephalon
B) diencephalon
C) myelencephalon
D) metencephalon



19. Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted into the ventricles by the _____.
A) pineal body
B) ependymal cells
C) epithalamus
D) cerebral aqueduct



20. There are _____ spinal-cord segments.
A) 30 to 31
B) 8
C) 12
D) 24



21. Damage to the dorsal root fibers of the spinal cord would result in impaired:
A) sensation.
B) movement.
C) sensation and movement.
D) cognition.



22. The organizational principle of the spinal cord, whereby the dorsal portion is sensory in function while the ventral portion is motor, is known as _____.
A) parallel processing
B) a dermatomal arrangement
C) bilateral symmetry
D) the Bell-Magendie law



23. The thalamus, hypothalamus, and pineal body are components of the:
A) metencephalon.
B) telencephalon.
C) diencephalon.
D) myelencephalon.



24. Components of the basal ganglia have functions related to:
A) somatosensation.
B) maintaining cortical arousal.
C) regulation of hormonal balance.
D) movement and habit learning.



25. Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system?
A) hippocampus
B) septum
C) amygdala
D) putamen



26. A cleft in the cerebral cortex deep enough to indent the ventricles is called a:
A) meninges.
B) sulcus.
C) fissure.
D) gyrus.



27. A cortical region with a relatively thick layer IV would MOST likely be associated with:
A) motor processing.
B) sensory processing.
C) emotional processing.
D) the frontal cortex.



28. Maps of the cortex based on the appearance of different cell types are termed _____ maps.
A) projection
B) cytoarchitectonic
C) functional
D) anatomical



29. Which of the following is an interhemispheric fiber pathway?
A) anterior commissure
B) cingulum
C) uncinate tract
D) arcuate fasciculus



30. The CLARITY technique can be used to determine:
A) causes of disease symptoms found in brains of deceased persons.
B) the colors of different neurons.
C) the thickness of myelin on axons.
D) causes of disease symptoms found in live patients.



31. Sensory and motor fibers that associate sensory and motor activity from one side of the body with the opposite side of the brain are called:
A) ipsilateral connections.
B) ventral spinal nerves.
C) decussations.
D) thalamocortical projections.




1. Match each of the given terms that is used when mapping the nervous system with the term that is its opposite: ventral—_____; medial—_____; ipsilateral—_____.
A) lateral; coronal; caudal
B) dorsal; lateral; contralateral
C) caudal; dorsal; dorsolateral
D) anterior; rostral; coronal



2. Which is NOT one of the meninges, the protective coverings over the central nervous system?
A) the pia mater
B) the arachnoid layer
C) the vermis layer
D) the dura mater



3. Purkinje cells are located in the _____
A) reticular formation
B) cerebellum
C) corpus callosum
D) septum



4. Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the _____.
A) oligodendroglia cells
B) Schwann cells
C) astrocytes
D) ependymal cells



5. Which type of cell is responsible for axonal insulation within the brain?
A) astrocytes
B) ependymal cells
C) Schwann cells
D) oligodendroglia cells



6. The frontal lobes are formed from the _____.
A) prosencephalon
B) rhombencephalon
C) telencephalon
D) myelencephalon



7. Which is NOT a part of the adult brain of fish, amphibians, and reptiles?
A) the rhombencephalon
B) the myelencephalon
C) the prosencephalon
D) the mesencephalon



8. How many thoracic segments are in the spinal cord?
A) 8
B) 12
C) 5
D) 10



9. Which type of cranial nerve is NOT involved in the control of eye movements?
A) vagus
B) oculomotor
C) trochlear
D) abducens



10. Experimental stimulation of which section of the brainstem produces a state of “general arousal” or “consciousness”?
A) the medulla
B) the pons
C) the reticular system
D) the periaqueductal gray



11. The _____ is a major way station between the sensory organs and the neocortex.
A) cerebellum
B) amygdala
C) thalamus
D) putamen



12. The _____ is located in the epithalamus.
A) hippocampus
B) pineal body
C) septum
D) pituitary gland



13. The _____ is NOT part of the basal ganglia.
A) putamen
B) globus pallidus
C) caudate nucleus
D) hippocampus.



14. The _____ is usually considered to have six layers of cells and makes up over 80 percent of the total brain.
A) hippocampus
B) frontal lobe
C) cerebellum
D) neocortex



15. Clefts in the neocortex are called _____.
A) sulci
B) gyri
C) aqueducts
D) ventricles


1. The substance that Otto Loewi found slowed the heart is now called _____.
A) epinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) glutamate
D) norepinephrine



2. The first two chemicals to be identified as neurotransmitters were:
A) acetylcholine and epinephrine.
B) dopamine and serotonin.
C) glutamate and glycine.



3. The excitatory effect of a neurotransmitter is caused by:
A) the chemical structure of the neurotransmitter.
B) the nature of the receptor with which it interacts.
C) the part of the brain where it is released.
D) the amount of neurotransmitter that is released.



4. Reuptake of a neurotransmitter is accomplished by _____.
A) the postsynaptic neuron
B) surrounding glial cells
C) nearby capillaries
D) the presynaptic neuron



5. The ion that triggers the release of neurotransmitters into the cleft is _____.
A) Na+
B) K+
C) Ca2+
D) Cl



6. Neurotransmitter release depends on an influx of _____ ions into the presynaptic terminal.
A) Na+
B) Mg2+
C) Ca2+
D) Cl



7. Blockage of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels would be expected to:
A) stimulate neurotransmitter release.
B) inhibit neurotransmitter release.
C) inhibit the generation of nerve impulses.
D) stimulate the generation of nerve impulses.



8. The amount of neurotransmitter released from the presynaptic terminal in response to a single action potential depends, in part, on _____.
A) the amount of Ca2+ that enters the presynaptic terminal
B) the amount of Na+ that enters the presynaptic terminal
C) the size of the synaptic vesicles
D) the length of the axon



9. A neurotransmitter released at the axon terminal must _____ in order to affect the postsynaptic cell.
A) diffuse across the synaptic cleft
B) be transported across the synaptic cleft
C) be taken up by the postsynaptic cell
D) be metabolized by the postsynaptic cell



10. An increase in the activity at a particular synapse is likely to be associated with:
A) increased synthesis and storage of neurotransmitters.
B) decreased synthesis and storage of neurotransmitters.
C) decreased energy consumption.
D) increased action potential speed.



11. Whether a particular neurotransmitter is excitatory or inhibitory is associated with:
A) the chemical structure of the neurotransmitter.
B) whether or not the neurotransmitter molecules had been in flat or round vesicles.
C) the type of postsynaptic neuron.
D) the brain region in which it is released.



12. Synapses characterized by wide clefts, large active zones, and round secretory vesicles are thought to be:
A) neuroendocrine.
B) modulatory.
C) excitatory.
D) inhibitory.



13. Type II synapses are most often found on:
A) muscle fibers.
B) dendritic spines.
C) astrocytes.
D) neuronal cell bodies.



14. At glutamate (excitatory) synapses, the postsynaptic thickening is _____ as compared with a GABA (inhibitory) synapse.
A) thinner
B) absent
C) greater
D) narrower



15. In order to be identified as a neurotransmitter, a substance must meet several tests. Which of the following is NOT a test?
A) It must be present in the terminals.
B) Its structure must be known.
C) It must be released when a neuron fires an action potential.
D) There must be an inactivating mechanism in the cleft.



16. Which of the following is NOT a class of neurotransmitter?
A) gases
B) peptides
C) small molecules
D) lipids



17. Which class of neurotransmitter is synthesized and packaged in the axon terminal itself?
A) peptides
B) small molecules
C) gases
D) neurosteroids



18. Which of the following neurotransmitters does NOT share a common precursor with the others named?
A) dopamine
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) acetylcholine



19. Some peptide neurotransmitters are made in the:
A) axon terminals.
B) mitochondria.
C) endoplasmic reticulum.
D) nucleus.



20. Oxytocin, vasopressin, and beta-endorphin are all examples of:
A) neuroactive hormones.
B) small-molecule neurotransmitters.
C) peptide neurotransmitters.
D) gases.



21. Activation of ionotropic receptors is MOST closely associated with:
A) rapid changes in membrane voltage.
B) G-protein activation.
C) synaptic remodeling.
D) changes in gene expression.



22. Which of the following statements MOST accurately represents current theory regarding the localization of neurotransmitters within a neuron?
A) A given neuron contains only one particular neurotransmitter.
B) A given neuron contains only one class of neurotransmitter.
C) A given neuron can contain more than one type of neurotransmitter.
D) A given neuron can produce only one type of postsynaptic effect.



23. The cell bodies of the neurons of the major activating systems are located in the:
A) basal ganglia.
B) diencephalon.
C) frontal cortex.
D) brainstem.



24. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) has been associated with abnormalities in brainstem neurons that release:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) vasopressin.
1. The substance that Otto Loewi found to accelerate the heart was later identified as _____.
A) glutamate
B) acetylcholine
C) epinephrine
D) Vagusstoff



2. During which step of neurotransmission is a neurotransmitter transported to the presynaptic membrane?
A) inactivation
B) release
C) receptor action
D) synthesis



3. Which ion is mainly responsible for transmitter release?
A) Ca2+
B) Na+
C) K+
D) Cl



4. Transmitter-activated receptors are located _____.
A) on the presynaptic membrane
B) on the postsynaptic membrane
C) on both the pre- and postsynaptic membranes
D) in the nuclear membrane only



5. Synapses where an axon releases a neurotransmitter directly into the blood are called _____ synapses.
A) axomuscular
B) axosomatic
C) axoextracellular
D) axosecretory



6. Which experimental criterion is NOT used to identify a chemical as a neurotransmitter?
A) A substance must contain an amine group.
B) The chemical can be introduced into the synapse artificially to produce a response.
C) The chemical must be synthesized in or present in the neuron.
D) The chemical must be released when the neuron is active.



7. Dopamine is synthesized from _____.
A) tryptophan
B) tyrosine
C) glutamate
D) choline



8. The number of substances now known to be peptide neurotransmitters is about _____.
A) 15
B) 24
C) 50
D) 375



9. Which neurotransmitter is used to treat Parkinson’s disease?
A) histamine
B) acetylcholine
C) dopamine



10. Which neurotransmitter is primarily affected by the drug Viagra?
A) met-enkephalin
B) acetylcholine
C) dopamine
D) nitric oxide



11. The effects of the opiate drugs are MOST closely matched by _____.
A) acetylcholine
B) met-enkephalin
C) dopamine
D) histamine



12. Which type of postsynaptic receptor does NOT contain a pore and acts indirectly?
A) holotropic
B) ionotropic
C) second messenger
D) metabotropic



13. The main transmitter found in the locus coeruleus is _____.
A) norepinephrine (NE)
B) dopamine (DA)
C) serotonin (5-HT)
D) acetylcholine (ACh)



14. The loss of neurons whose main neurotransmitter is _____ is thought to be involved in the memory deficits seen in Alzheimer’s disease.
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) serotonin



15. The _____ activating system is believed to be related to obsessive-compulsive disorder.
A) serotonergic
B) dopaminergic
C) cholinergic
D) noradrenergic


1. A decrease in the firing rate of a visual cortex neuron in response to a change in stimulus color can be viewed as:
A) a neural code for the new color.
B) always indicating a lack of neural processing of that new color.
C) a da Vinci code for color.
D) a typical code for impending sleep.



2. The firing frequency of human cortical neurons is within the range of:
A) 300–400 discharges per minute.
B) 75–100 discharges per minute.
C) 150–200 discharges per minute.
D) 3–10 discharges per minute.



3. MOST neurons respond to:
A) a wide range of sensory stimuli or behaviors.
B) a limited range of sensory stimuli or behaviors.
C) sensory stimuli but not behaviors.
D) behaviors but not sensory stimuli.



4. Electroencephalography measures changes in:
A) blood oxygenation levels generated by large numbers of neurons.
B) glucose metabolism generated by large groups of neurons.
C) voltage generated by large groups of neurons.
D) voltage generated by single neurons.



5. Your brain is probably producing _____ waves as you read this sentence.
A) delta
B) alpha
C) theta
D) beta



6. Epilepsy is characterized by:
A) the absence of electrical activity within the brain.
B) abnormally slow electrical discharges in the brain.
C) abnormal electrical discharges in the brain.
D) hyperexcitability of muscle tissue, resulting in seizures.



7. The readiness potential is associated with activity in the _____ indicating _____.
A) motor cortex; an impending movement
B) visual cortex; an impending movement
C) somatosensory cortex; stimulus expectancy
D) frontal cortex; stimulus expectancy



8. Which of the following techniques is currently used in the treatment of the tremors and rigidity associated with Parkinson’s disease?
A) superficial brain stimulation
B) deep brain stimulation
C) temporal brain stimulation
D) psychotherapy



9. Conventional radiography, angiography, and computed tomography all measure differences in:
A) blood flow.
B) high-contrast dyes.
C) tissue density.
D) fat content.



10. The basis for many dynamic imaging systems is that active brain regions _____.
A) are warmer than less active brain regions
B) consume more glucose than less active regions
C) have more dendrites than less active regions
D) move slightly more than less active regions.



11. Dynamic imaging technology can record changes in:
A) intelligence.
B) cell structure.
C) skull integrity.
D) brain activity.



12. The signal measured in a PET scan is generated by:
A) blood oxygen levels.
B) magnetic fields.
C) radioactive decay.
D) transmembrane ion flux.



13. The three-dimensional units used in the analysis of PET and MRI scans are known as:
A) voxels.
B) pixels.
C) integrals.
D) morphemes.



14. PET experiments distinguish brain regions associated with a specific cognitive function from regions active during more elementary processing through use of the _____ method.
A) addition
B) subtraction
C) control
D) exclusion



15. Which of the following imaging techniques has a spatial resolution of 1 cubic millimeter?



16. The imaging technique that provides the greatest contrast between brain tissues of different densities is:
A) electroencephalography.
B) transcranial magnetic stimulation.
C) positron emission tomography.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.



17. In MRI, a _____ is used to align _____ along their axis of spin.
A) radioactive pulse; protons
B) radioactive pulse; neutrons
C) magnetic field; protons
D) magnetic field; neutrons



18. The fMRI technique makes use of activity-dependent changes in:
A) blood oxygen levels.
B) radioactive decay.
C) glucose accumulation.
D) myelin density.



19. Which of the following techniques provides the MOST specific spatial and temporal information about the relationship between neural function and behavior?
A) positron emission tomography
B) functional magnetic resonance imaging
C) computed tomography
D) single-cell recording



1. The _____ technique provides excellent resolution but can only be applied with humans in exceptional circumstances.
B) single-cell recording



2. Who developed the first useful EEG methods?
A) Berger
B) Aserinsky
C) Freud
D) Fox



3. The generators for the EEG are pyramidal neurons in layers _____ of the cerebral cortex.
A) I and II
B) III and IV
C) V and VI
D) I and VI.



4. Which method would be MOST practical in evaluating the depth of anesthesia?



5. Which method induces changes in electrical activity in the brain?
A) electrical recording
B) brain stimulation
C) X-ray imaging
D) dynamic imaging



6. Which is a method of enhancing conventional X-ray radiography by taking advantage of the fact that X-rays are not absorbed by air?
A) pneumoencephalography
B) computerized tomography
C) positron emission tomography
D) magnetic resonance imaging



7. Tom was in a car accident. He was given a series of tests to see if his skull or brain were damaged in the accident. Which tests may he have been given?
A) an X-ray to assess skull damage and a CT scan to assess brain damage
B) an X-ray to assess brain damage and a CT scan to assess skull damage
C) an X-ray to assess skull damage and cerebral angiography to assess cognitive function
D) a CT scan to assess brain damage and cerebral angiography to assess skull damage



8. The use of annihilation events is part of the _____ technique of brain imaging.



9. The _____ method of brain imaging involves spinning hydrogen protons.



10. Which is a major advantage of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?
A) It provides the highest resolution of all the imaging techniques.
B) It can image the biochemical status of the brain.
C) It provides great clarity in distinguishing between different types of brain tissue and cerebrospinal fluid.
D) It can detect relative amounts of a given neural transmitter.



11. Which method can detect neurotransmitter-related molecules?



12. Which is NOT an advantage of the PET scan over other imaging methods?
A) The PET scan can detect the decay of a wide range of radiochemicals.
B) The PET scan can detect the density of neurotransmitter receptors or the metabolic activities associated with degenerative processes that might be related to aging.
C) The PET scan can detect the degeneration of myelin that occurs in multiple sclerosis or the degeneration of neurons that occurs in Alzheimer’s disease.
D) The PET scan is widely used for the study of cognitive function.
1. Evidence suggests that the primary motor cortex is organized on the basis of:
A) intelligent design.
B) environmental experience.
C) specific movements.
D) movement goals.



2. Movement sequences are organized by neurons in the:
A) premotor cortex.
B) primary motor cortex.
C) prefrontal cortex.
D) cerebellum.



3. The multiple motor homunculi have been suggested to correspond to different:
A) classes of sensory information.
B) levels of motivation.
C) classes of movement.
D) speeds of movement.



4. Defensive facial expressions are an example of a(n) _____ category.
A) ethological movement
B) ethical movement
C) ethological sensory
D) voluntary movement



5. Karl and Whishaw (2013) concluded that reaching for an object involves: _____ pathway(s) from _____ to _____.
A) a single; M1; the spinal cord
B) several; the basal ganglia; V1
C) two; V1; the parietal cortex and M1
D) a single; V1; M1



6. Disruption of movement sequences, in the absence of muscle weakness, would follow lesions of the:
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) premotor cortex.
C) primary motor cortex.
D) reticular activating system.



7. Research by Evarts found that the firing rate of neurons in the monkey motor cortex:
A) increased as the amount of force required to make a wrist movement increased.
B) decreased as the amount of force required to make a wrist movement increased.
C) was not related to the amount of force required to generate wrist movement.
D) varied with the monkey’s emotional state.



8. Neurons that respond both when the subject performs an action and when the subject observes the action being performed are called _____ neurons.
A) Renshaw
B) bipolar
C) mirror
D) copycat



9. Mirror neurons may provide a neurobiological basis for:
A) motor memory.
B) social awareness.
C) reflexive behavior.
D) brain symmetry.



10. There are about _____ pathways that originate in the brainstem and project to the spinal cord.
A) 4
B) 16
C) 26
D) 62



11. A patient who has difficulty with balance, posture, and coordination would MOST likely have a lesion in the:
A) brainstem motor areas.
B) orbitofrontal cortex.
C) posterior parietal cortex.
D) primary motor areas.



12. Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder resulting from degeneration of:
A) dorsal columns of the spinal cord.
B) ventral columns of the spinal cord.
C) the spinocerebellar tract.
D) caudate putamen cells.



13. The basal ganglia receive neural inputs from two main sources. These sources are the:
A) cerebellum and thalamus.
B) neocortex and substantia nigra.
C) neocortex and cerebellum.
D) limbic cortex and thalamus.



14. One role of the basal ganglia in producing effective movements is the:
A) planning of discrete voluntary movements.
B) activation of spinal motor neurons.
C) fine-tuning of lateral accuracy.
D) generation of the appropriate amount of force.



15. Parkinson’s disease is caused by a loss of neurons that release the neurotransmitter:
A) dopamine.
B) acetylcholine.
C) norepinephrine.
D) glutamate.



16. Exaggerated, excessive movements are characteristic of degeneration of the:
A) temporal cortex.
B) substantia nigra.
C) caudate putamen.
D) nucleus accumbens.



17. The flocculus is part of the _____.
A) basal ganglia
B) brainstem
C) cerebellum
D) thalamus



18. An inability to generate the appropriate amount of force when executing a movement might be seen following damage to the:
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) basal ganglia.
C) amygdala.
D) cerebellum.



19. When learning to throw darts, the basal ganglia contribute to the _____ of the throw, whereas the cerebellum contributes to the _____ of the throw.
A) force; lateral accuracy
B) lateral accuracy; force
C) force; motivation
D) horizontal accuracy; score



20. The contribution of the cerebellum to the control of movement is:
A) idea generation and planning.
B) initiation of voluntary actions.
C) fine-tuning of timing and accuracy.
D) coordination of ethological behaviors.



21. Corticobulbar fibers project from the motor cortex to the:
A) temporal lobe.
B) olfactory bulb.
C) parietal lobule.
D) brainstem.



22. Difficulty holding a pen to write would MOST likely result from damage to the:
A) lateral corticospinal tract.
B) ventral corticospinal tract.
C) corticobulbar tract.
D) rubrospinal tract.



23. Difficulty maintaining proper posture and balance would MOST likely result from damage to the:
A) lateral corticospinal tract.
B) anterior corticospinal tract.
C) corticobulbar tract.
D) rubrospinal tract.


1. The planning of motor movements seems to be the primary responsibility of neural circuits in the _____.
A) premotor cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) posterior cortex
D) prefrontal cortex



2. The sequencing of movements is handled by neurons located primarily in the _____.
A) premotor cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) cerebellum
D) prefrontal cortex



3. The technique used by Roland to investigate how the neocortex produces movements was _____.
C) selective lesions
D) cerebral blood flow



4. The lexicon of elementary hand and mouth motor movements is contained in the _____.
A) premotor cortex
B) posterior cortex
C) primary motor cortex
D) prefrontal cortex



5. The scientist who used pulses of electrical stimulation in conscious humans and found that stimulation of the precentral gyrus triggered movement was _____.
A) Graziano
B) Penfield
C) Hess
D) Georgopoulos



6. Which three components of motor cortex organization were proposed by Graziano?
A) the part of the body moved, duration of movement, and spatial location
B) the part of the body moved, spatial location to which movement is directed, and function of movement
C) the spatial location to which a movement is directed, duration of movement, and when movement is initiated
D) the function of the movement, when the movement is initiated, and the part of the body moved



7. In Evarts’s experiment, when are neurons in the wrist region of the motor cortex inactive?
A) when the monkey prepares to flex its wrist
B) when the monkey flexes its wrist
C) when the monkey has more weight to move with its wrist
D) when the monkey brings its wrist back to the starting position



8. “Mirror neurons” got their name because they discharge:
A) only when a monkey sees another monkey or human make a movement.
B) when a monkey makes a movement or sees another monkey or person make that movement.
C) only when a monkey can see itself making a movement.
D) contralateral to the side of the body that makes the movement.



9. The degenerative disorder associated with muscular rigidity and difficulty initiating and performing movements is called _____.
A) Parkinson’s disease
B) Huntington’s disease
C) Friedreich’s ataxia
D) Tourette’s syndrome



10. An important dopaminergic projection to the basal ganglia comes from neurons in the _____.
A) cerebellum
B) premotor cortex
C) substantia nigra
D) locus coeruleus



11. Damage to neural circuits in the _____ is responsible for the symptoms of Huntington’s disease.
A) substantia nigra
B) caudate putamen
C) motor cortex
D) cerebellum



12. The flocculus is part of the _____.
A) basal ganglia
B) cerebellum
C) prefrontal lobe
D) thalamus



13. Which of the following appears to be a part of the role of the cerebellum?
A) planning movements
B) timing movements
C) stopping movements
D) controlling the force of movements



14. Axons of the _____ motor pathway cross over to the opposite side of the spinal cord at the level of the pyramids of the brainstem.
A) corticobulbar
B) ventral corticospinal
C) lateral corticospinal
D) anterior spinothalamic



15. Which of these neurons project to muscles?
A) extensor neurons
B) interneurons
C) corticospinal neurons
D) pyramidal neurons



1. Which of the following factors does not usually influence laterality of function in humans?
A) genetics
B) gender
C) handedness
D) height



2. When neuropsychologists refer to a function as being lateralized, they mean that the function:
A) is performed most efficiently by a lateral region of the brain.
B) is performed most efficiently by one hemisphere of the brain.
C) can be performed equally well by either hemisphere of the brain.
D) is performed most efficiently in a lateral motion.



3. The largest functional differences are found between _____ rather than _____.
A) cerebral sites; cerebral sides
B) cerebral sides; cerebral sites
C) cortical layers; cortical columns
D) genders; age groups



4. Which of the following is generally true of the left hemisphere, relative to the right hemisphere in humans?
A) It has a larger size and weight overall.
B) It has a larger Heschl’s gyrus.
C) It has a smaller visible frontal operculum.
D) It has a larger planum temporale.



5. The most pronounced anatomical asymmetries are found in the areas associated with:
A) vision.
B) hearing.
C) language.
D) emotion.



6. The most convincing experimental design for demonstrating the localization of a particular function to a brain region is the:
A) single dissociation.
B) double dissociation.
C) double association.
D) case study.



7. Following damage to the left hemisphere, the most likely outcome would be a decline in:
A) mental rotation ability.
B) verbal ability.
C) pitch recognition.
D) emotional memory.



8. You are an examining psychologist at a neurological clinic. After administering an IQ test, you find the main deficits are in nonverbal recall and the copying of drawings. You suspect damage to the _____.
A) left frontal lobe
B) right frontal lobe
C) right temporal lobe
D) left temporal lobe



9. Surgical deconnection of the two cerebral hemispheres by cutting the corpus callosum (and other commissures) is a “last resort” treatment for _____.
A) schizophrenia
B) epilepsy
C) aphasia
D) multiple sclerosis



10. A commissurotomy typically refers to the severing of the:
A) arcuate fasiculus.
B) medial forebrain bundle.
C) fornix.
D) corpus callosum.



11. If you placed a common object such as a key out of sight in the left hand of a typical commissurotomy patient, she:
A) could neither recognize it by shape nor name it.
B) could recognize it by shape and verbally name it.
C) could identify the object verbally, but not describe its shape.
D) could recognize the object by its shape, but not identify it verbally.



12. When viewing chimeric stimuli, the commissurotomy patients studied by Levy and coworkers tended to recognize _____.
A) both faces, as do normal subjects
B) the face flashed to the right visual field only
C) the face flashed to the left visual field only
D) neither face



13. Electric stimulation of the right temporal lobe cortex of a conscious patient can _____.
A) produce localized movements
B) initiate déjà vu experiences
C) accelerate production of speech
D) increase the patient’s IQ score



14. Studies by Milner and colleagues place the percentage of right-handed individuals with speech functions lateralized to the right hemisphere to about _____ %.
A) 2
B) 15
C) 50
D) 95



15. If the right carotid artery is injected with an anesthetic drug, within a few seconds _____.
A) the ipsilateral arm will exhibit flaccid paralysis
B) speech will probably be interrupted
C) speech will always be interrupted
D) the contralateral arm will exhibit flaccid paralysis



16. In intact individuals, hemispheric differences in cognitive ability can be detected by measuring:
A) differences in processing efficiency.
B) self-reports of cognitive strategies.
C) galvanic skin response.
D) differences in processing efficiency, self-reports of cognitive strategies, and galvanic skin response.



17. Visual images can be presented individually to each hemisphere using a device known as a(n):
A) oscilloscope.
B) dichotoscope.
C) tachistoscope.
D) periscope.



18. The identification of melodies shows _____ in a dichotic listening task.
A) a frontal lobe advantage
B) a right-ear advantage
C) a left-ear advantage
D) no advantage due to either ear



19. Which of the following tests shows a left-ear advantage?
A) backward speech
B) environmental sounds
C) difficult rhythms
D) vowels



20. Blindfolded subjects using only the sense of touch perform better with the left hand at _____.
A) Braille reading
B) object recognition
C) both Braille reading and object recognition
D) neither Braille reading nor object recognition



21. Imaging studies have shown that, contrary to expectation, activity in Broca’s area does not increase during:
A) effortful speech.
B) articulate speech.
C) automatic speech.
D) emotional speech.



22. A task requiring a subject to analyze the configuration of multiple, simultaneously presented geometric patterns would be expected to lead to increased blood flow:
A) preferentially in the left hemisphere.
B) preferentially in the right hemisphere.
C) equally in both hemispheres.
D) only in the basal ganglia.



23. According to Kimura and others, production and analysis of rapidly occurring sequences of stimuli is believed to be a(n):
A) specialized function of the right hemisphere.
B) ability equally distributed between both hemispheres.
C) specialized function of the left hemisphere.
D) ability relying primarily on subcortical structures.



24. Specialization models of hemispheric function posit:
A) overlapping information-processing roles for each hemisphere.
B) identical information-processing roles for each hemisphere.
C) nonoverlapping information-processing roles for each hemisphere.
D) shifting information-processing roles for the two hemispheres.



25. The ability of the right hemisphere to support language abilities after damage to the left hemisphere supports:
A) isolationist models.
B) supermodels.
C) specialization models.
D) interaction models.



26. The results of tests of lateralization of function must be interpreted with care because they:
A) can be affected by cognitive strategies.
B) are politically sensitive.
C) are qualitative, not quantitative.
D) always come from brain-damaged individuals.



1. Doubling of Heschl’s gyrus is typically seen in _____.
A) the right hemisphere
B) men rather than women
C) the left hemisphere
D) individuals with high IQs



2. Which is true of the anatomical differences between the hemispheres?
A) The right hemisphere contains more gray matter.
B) The left hemisphere extends farther anteriorly.
C) The lateral fissure has a steeper slope in the left hemisphere.
D) The total area of the frontal operculum is larger in the left hemisphere.



3. Which is an example of a double dissociation for two areas of the cortex?
A) Patient A can read but not write after an injury to one region, while patient B can write but not read after an injury to the other region.
B) Patient A can read but not write after an injury to one region, while patient B can read but not write after an injury to the other region.
C) Patient A can read but not write after an injury to one region, but he can neither read nor write after an injury to the other region.
D) Patient A can neither read nor write after injuries to both regions, while patient B can write but not read after injuries to both regions.



4. Roger Sperry collaborated with Bogen and Vogel for his research on:
A) the asymmetry of planum temporale.
B) commissurotomy patients.
C) cortical mapping.
D) brain stimulation.



5. In order to present a visual stimulus to only the left hemisphere of a split-brain patient, the stimulus must be presented to the:
A) left eye only.
B) right eye only.
C) left visual field only.
D) right visual field only.



6. Electrical stimulation of the right _____ lobe has produced déjà vu experiences and dreaming states in patients.
A) occipital
B) frontal
C) temporal
D) parietal



7. If the left carotid artery is injected with an anesthetic drug, within a few seconds:
A) the arm and the leg on the same side will fall to the bed with flacid paralysis.
B) speech will probably be interrupted.
C) speech will invariably be interrupted.
D) the arm and leg on the same side will be hypertonic.



8. Right-handed people have their speech localized to the right hemisphere about _____% of the time.
A) 2
B) 10
C) 65
D) 95



9. The tachistoscope is often used to test subjects with respect to _____.
A) motor skills
B) vision
C) memory for nonsense syllables
D) speech production



10. In which of the following is there usually a left-ear advantage?
A) rhythm perception
B) understanding backward speech
C) complex pitch perception
D) Morse code perception



11. Which of the following usually shows a right-ear advantage?
A) perceiving environmental sounds
B) perceiving rhythms
C) understanding backward speech
D) learning new memories



12. Blindfolded subjects typically do better with the right hand at _____.
A) object recognition of nonsense shapes
B) Braille reading
C) object recognition of nonsense shapes and Braille reading
D) neither object recognition of nonsense shapes nor Braille reading



13. Kimura found evidence for a relationship between speech and hand movements when she observed that right-handed individuals:
A) gestured more with their right hands while speaking.
B) rubbed their noses more with their right hands while speaking.
C) gestured more with their left hands while speaking.
D) rubbed their noses more with their left hands while speaking.



14. When measuring language lateralization, how do the results of dichotic-listening tasks differ from the results of brain stimulation in right-handed subjects?
A) Dichotic listening shows a higher rate of left lateralization.
B) Brain stimulation shows a higher rate of left lateralization.
C) Brain stimulation is more closely matched to the results of anatomical studies.
D) There is no difference in the results reported.



15. A modern version of the left-for-language theory of cortical organization was developed by _____.
A) Kinsbourne and Moscovitch
B) Lenneberg and Kimura
C) Webster and Thurber
D) Kolb and Whishaw



1. Which of the following brain regions is primarily dedicated to visual processing?
A) the occipital lobes
B) the parietal lobes
C) the temporal lobes
D) the frontal lobes



2. The primary visual cortex is associated with which of the following anatomical landmarks?
A) the lingual gyrus
B) the central sulcus
C) the calcarine sulcus
D) the occipital fissure



3. Cytochrome oxidase rich areas of V1 are called _____.
A) stripes
B) holes
C) blobs
D) barrels



4. The role of the dorsal stream is:
A) the visual guidance of movement.
B) the visual recognition of objects.
C) color perception.
D) the recognition of a species’ typical behaviors.



5. There are specialized regions of the visual cortex for processing all of the following stimuli EXCEPT:
A) color.
B) form.
C) motion.
D) emotion.



6. Visual processing in humans continues beyond the occipital lobes to the:
A) frontal and parietal lobes.
B) frontal and temporal lobes.
C) temporal, parietal, and frontal lobes.
D) insular and entorhinal cortex.



7. Neurons in the _____ sulcus are active during the perception of biologically relevant motion.
A) rhinal
B) posterolateral
C) inferior temporal
D) superior temporal



8. Visual object recognition is most specifically a function of processing in the _____ stream.
A) dorsal
B) ventral
C) lateral
D) middle



9. When analyzing facial features, visual attention is directed more toward the:
A) medial visual field.
B) right visual field.
C) left visual field.
D) outlines of the face.



10. Milner and Goodale base some of their model of vision beyond the occipital lobe on the finding in monkeys that many neurons in the posterior parietal lobe respond to visual stimuli only if _____.
A) the monkey reaches for the stimulus
B) the stimulus is moving
C) the stimulus is meaningful to the monkey
D) the stimulus is brightly colored



11. The role of the visual pathway in the monkey brain that goes from V1 to the temporal lobe is visual:
A) guidance of action.
B) identification of location.
C) object recognition.
D) motion detection.



12. In the Milner-Goodale model, which of the following visual areas projects directly to the parietal visual areas?
A) V1
B) V5
C) V2
D) V4



13. The superior temporal sulcus is characterized by significant numbers of _____ neurons.
A) polysensory
B) color-coding
C) movement-sensitive
D) depth-perception



14. Blindness of one entire binocular visual field is termed _____.
A) homonymous hemianopia
B) bitemporal hemianopia
C) quadratic anopia
D) monocular blindness



15. Patients with a left homonymous hemianopia often show sparing of left field vision from the _____ in both eyes.
A) superior parafovea
B) inferior parafovea
C) fovea
D) periphery



16. Complete unilateral destruction of the left occipital lobe would result in:
A) left visual field hemianopia.
B) right visual field hemianopia.
C) right monocular blindness.
D) left monocular blindness.



17. As seen in subject B.K., preceding his stroke and development of a lasting scotoma, he had a history of _____ in which the aura was usually a(n) _____ .
A) epilepsy; olfactory hallucination
B) classic migraine; auditory hallucination
C) epilepsy; lightheadedness
D) classic migraine; left visual field defect



18. A patient who reports no conscious awareness of a visual stimulus, and yet can accurately report its location, is likely exhibiting:
A) macular sparing.
B) anosognosia.
C) apperceptive agnosia.
D) blindsight.



19. A patient who reports that moving objects suddenly freeze in one location, only to suddenly reappear at another location, is likely to have a lesion in the area of:
A) V1.
B) V2.
C) V4.
D) V5.



20. The condition in which there is an inability to use visual information to guide voluntary movement is called:
A) optic ataxia.
B) vestibular ataxia.
C) ideational apraxia.
D) optic alexia.



21. Associative agnosia is characterized by the ability to:
A) describe the shape of an object but not its color.
B) describe the physical characteristics of an object but not its identity.
C) describe the identity of an object but not its physical characteristics.
D) recognize objects in motion but not objects at rest.



22. Widespread, bilateral damage to the lateral regions of the occipital cortex is MOST likely to result in:
A) apperceptive agnosia.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) quadrantanopia.
D) associative agnosia.



23. A person suffering from prosopagnosia would have difficulty:
A) recognizing a portrait of his or her mother.
B) recognizing the voice of his or her mother.
C) remembering the name of his or her mother.
D) recognizing a portrait, the voice, and the name of his or her mother.



24. Alexia can be considered to be due to:
A) object agnosia for living things.
B) object agnosia for human faces.
C) object agnosia for letters and words.
D) synesthesia for letters and words.



25. The fMRI data gathered by Wilson and Farah support the idea that object identification and mental rotation mainly involve activity in the _____.
A) right hemisphere
B) left hemisphere
C) left and right hemispheres
D) left frontal lobe



1. The regions of cytochrome-rich areas in the occipital lobe are referred to as _____.
A) lamina
B) striations
C) blobs or stripes
D) layers



2. Neurons devoted to the perception of _____ are widespread, and their function is believed to be integral to the analysis of other features such as shape and motion.
A) position
B) size
C) depth
D) color



3. The area of the visual cortex that receives the largest direct input from the lateral geniculate nucleus is _____.
A) V1
B) V2
C) V3
D) V4



4. Individuals with damage to area V1 can still receive visual input to higher levels, in part via a pathway involving the _____ nucleus of the thalamus.
A) medial geniculate
B) pulvinar
C) collicular
D) interstitial



5. Individuals who lose their ability to see color because of brain damage have selective damage to area _____.
A) V2
B) V3
C) V4
D) V5



6. Which region of the brain is associated with object analysis?
A) the lateral occipital
B) the superior temporal sulcus
C) the lateral intraparietal sulcus
D) the ventral intraparietal sulcus



7. Which visual function is a function of the dorsal stream regions?
A) body analysis
B) object-directed grasping
C) analysis of landmarks
D) analysis of biological motion



8. Milner and Goodale propose that the dorsal stream of visual processing is important for _____.
A) object recognition
B) color perception
C) depth perception
D) the visual control of action



9. A visual defect called _____ indicates damage to one optic tract, a lateral geniculate body, or area V1 of one occipital lobe.
A) bitemporal hemianopia
B) homonymous hemianopia
C) color blindness
D) small scotoma



10. Destruction of one optic nerve will produce _____.
A) scotoma
B) monocular blindness
C) homonymous hemianopia
D) bitemporal hemianopia



11. Small blind spots resulting from small lesions in the occipital lobe are known as _____.
A) scotomas
B) nystagmus
C) macular sparing
D) hemianopia



12. A patient such as D.B., who is able to point accurately to locations that he does not report seeing, is demonstrating _____.
A) visual agnosia
B) cortical blindness
C) scintillating scotoma
D) nystagmus



13. A patient who loses the ability to copy a drawing of an object, but can draw that object from memory, is demonstrating _____.
A) prosopagnosia
B) visuospatial agnosia
C) associative agnosia
D) visual form agnosia



14. People who have prosopagnosia cannot perceive _____ accurately.
A) objects
B) words
C) faces
D) motion



15. Apperceptive agnosia is usually related to damage in the _____.
A) lateral occipital lobes
B) bilateral calcarine fissure
C) lateral geniculate nucleus
D) anterior temporal lobe