HDEV 4 4Th Ed By Rathus – Test Bank

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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

HDEV 4 4Th Ed By Rathus – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

True / False

 

1. Transition occurs at the end of the first stage of labor.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

2. An infant is born in the third stage of childbirth.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

3. The strongest predictor of whether a practitioner will choose to use episiotomy is the condition of the mother and baby.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

4. ​General anesthesia strengthens uterine contractions and increases the responsiveness of the neonate shortly after birth

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

5. With a pudenal block, anesthesia is injected into the spinal cord, temporarily numbing the body below the waist.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

6. The Lamaze method has been shown to reduce fear and pain during childbirth.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

7. Oxygen deprivation during delivery is associated with an increased incidence of childhood schizophrenia.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

8. Preterm infants who are cuddled, rocked, talked to, and sung to tend to do better than those preterm infants who are left alone.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

9. When a baby is low in birth weight, even though it is born at full term, it is referred to as being small for gestational age.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

10. Postpartum depression, a serious maternal depression following delivery, is characterized by sadness, apathy, and feelings of worthlessness.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

11. Women who experience postpartum depression can benefit from social support and counseling.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

12. It is critical that parents have contact with their infants in the first few hours after birth if attachment is to occur.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

13. ​The Apgar scale is a measure used to assess the health of the mother after she has given birth.

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

14. Newborns spend about half their sleep time in REM sleep.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

15. Sudden infant death syndrome refers to the death, while sleeping, of apparently healthy babies who stop breathing.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

Multiple Choice

 

16. Which of the following events occurs early in the last month of pregnancy?​

a. ​The settling of the fetus’s head in the pelvis
b. ​The appearance of blood in vaginal secretions
c. ​The secretion of the hormone oxytocin
d. ​The discharge of placenta through the birth canal

 

ANSWER:   a

 

17. ​Which of the following statements is true of the Braxton-Hicks contractions?

a. They may be experienced as early as the sixth month of pregnancy.
b. ​They decrease in frequency as pregnancy progresses.
c. ​They stimulate the uterus and placenta to secrete prostaglandins.
d. ​They dilate the cervix to allow the baby to pass during delivery.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

18. Oxytocin, which stimulates contractions powerful enough to expel the baby, is released from the:​

a. ​cervix.
b.  pituitary gland.​
c. ​ pineal gland.
d. ​ medulla.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

19. ​Which of the following events signals the beginning of childbirth?

a. ​The emergence of baby from the birth canal
b. ​The rush of warm liquid from the vagina
c. ​The movement of the fetus into the vagina
d. ​The occurrence of regular uterine contractions

 

ANSWER:   d

 

20. ​Who among the following women is in the first stage of labor?

a. ​Nita, whose baby has been delivered and taken away for vaccinations
b. ​Agnes, whose uterine contractions occur every fifteen minutes
c. ​Julia, whose baby has appeared at the opening of her vagina
d. ​Miriam, whose umbilical cord has been clamped and severed

 

ANSWER:   b

 

21. Which of the following events occurs in the second stage of labor?​

a. ​The uterine contractions stretch the skin surrounding the birth canal and propel the baby along.
b. The placenta and uterus secrete prostaglandins which stimulate uterine contractions.​
c. ​The placenta separates from the uterine wall and is expelled through the birth canal.
d. ​The blood vessels in the birth canal rupture leading to the appearance of blood in vaginal secretions.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

22. Which of the following is a disadvantage of performing an episiotomy?​

a. ​It reduces the responsiveness of the baby shortly after birth.
b. ​The incision may cause itching and discomfort as it heals.
c. ​It leads to the transmission of viruses that cause genital herpes and AIDS.
d. ​The incision may rupture during a subsequent vaginal delivery.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

23. ​During labor, mucus is suctioned from the baby’s mouth in order to:

a. ​resuscitate the baby back to consciousness.
b. ​increase the baby’s heartbeat.
c. ​prevent any infection that might affect the baby.
d. ​clear the passageway for breathing from any obstructions.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

24. _____ refers to the typical 9-month period from conception to childbirth.​

a. ​Preterm
b. ​Postpartum period
c. ​Term
d. ​Critical period

 

ANSWER:   c

 

25. A newborn baby is given a Vitamin K injection to:​

a. ​prevent bacterial infections.
b. ​regulate its heart rate and pulse
c. ​help its blood clot properly if it bleeds.
d. ​prevent any involuntary bowel movement.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

26. A(n) _____ refers to an infant from birth through the first four weeks of life.​

a. ​embryo
b. ​fetus
c. ​neonate
d. ​toddler

 

ANSWER:   c

 

27. Maya is in labor and decides to use a local anesthetic to manage her labor pain. Her obstetrician injects an anesthetic into her vagina, and she loses the sensation around that area. Which of the following uses of local anesthesia is employed in this scenario?​

a. ​An epidural block
b. ​A pudendal block
c. ​A spinal block
d. ​A femoral nerve block

 

ANSWER:   b

 

28. Which of the following is a similarity between an epidural block and a spinal block employed during delivery?​

a. ​Both temporarily numb the mother’s body below the waist.
b. ​Both produce depressing effects on infants that last for a long time.
c. ​Both use general anesthetics to achieve the anesthetic effect.
d. ​Both reduce the chances of infection during delivery.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

29. The use of the Lamaze method during labor results in:​

a. ​the rupturing of previous surgical incisions on the mother’s body.
b. ​the reduced levels of labor pain and medication.
c. ​the numbing of the mother’s body below the waist.
d. ​the reduced responsiveness of the baby shortly after birth.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

30. One of the reasons for performing a cesarean section for delivery is to:​

a. avoid the use of an anesthesia.
b. ​reduce the use of medication during labor.
c. ​enable women to control the time of the delivery.
d. ​prevent any involuntary bowel movement.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

31. Which of the following terms refers to the absence of oxygen?​

a. ​Hypoxia
b. ​Hypoxemia
c. ​Toxemia
d. ​Anoxia

 

ANSWER:   d

 

32. ​Prolonged cutoff of the baby’s oxygen supply during delivery can cause:

a. ​Turner syndrome
b. ​autism
c. ​Down syndrome
d. ​cerebral palsy

 

ANSWER:   d

 

33. Which of the following terms refers to buttocks-first childbirth?​

a. ​Premature birth
b. ​Breech presentation
c. ​Prepared childbirth
d. ​Normal delivery

 

ANSWER:   b

 

34. During a breech presentation, the prolonged constriction of the umbilical cord may occur as:​

a. ​the tiny air sacs in the baby’s lungs stick together without expanding.
b. ​the umbilical cord dries and falls off on its own.
c. ​the baby’s body presses the umbilical cord against the birth canal.
d. the baby does not receive enough oxygen in utero to develop properly.​

 

ANSWER:   c

 

35. Which of the following statements is true of small-for-gestational-age babies?​

a. ​They remain taller than their age-mates.
b. ​They are more attentive as compared with their age-mates.
c. ​They show slight delays in learning as compared with their age-mates.
d. ​They tend to be heavier than their age-mates.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

36. Which of the following disorders refers to the weak and irregular breathing that is typical of preterm babies?​

a. ​Respiratory distress syndrome
b. ​Down syndrome
c. ​Turner syndrome
d. ​Asperger’s syndrome

 

ANSWER:   a

 

37. In the context of the relation between parents and preterm infants, which of the following statements is true?​

a. ​The demands of preterm babies are lesser than those of full-term babies.
b. ​Most mothers of preterm babies report feeling closer and attached to their babies.
c. ​Fear of hurting preterm babies discourages parents from handling them.
d. ​Parents often treat preterm babies better than they treat full-term babies.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

38. Which of the following statements is true of the kangaroo care given to preterm infants?​

a. ​It stimulates infants and improves their physical and mental health.
b. ​It requires infants to be provided with a steady supply of oxygen.
c. ​It intensifies mothers’ feelings of incompetence and guilt.
d. ​It places infants in a temperature-controlled environment.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

39. ​According to the American Psychiatric Association, which of the following refers to the periods of tearfulness, sadness, and irritability experienced by mothers following delivery?

a. ​Baby blues
b. ​Postpartum psychosis
c. ​Generalized anxiety
d. Anorexia

 

ANSWER:   a

 

40. Which of the following scenarios describes a mother suffering from postpartum depression?​

a. Kate feels that her room is full of poisonous snakes trying to kill her child.​
b. ​Rebecca feels hopeless and insignificant after delivering twins.
c. ​Angelina feels that a stranger is instructing her to kill her child.
d. ​Meera feels that her infant daughter is possessed by the devil.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

41. Which of the following is a similarity between postpartum depression and postpartum anxiety?​

a. ​Both produce delusional thoughts about the infant in the mothers’ mind.
b. ​Both are characterized by command hallucinations that are dangerous to mothers and infants.
c. ​Both are caused by high levels of estrogen in the mother’s body.
d. ​Both are characterized by an obsessive concern for the well-being of infants.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

42. ​Postpartum depression is caused due to:

a. ​a sudden drop in estrogen levels.
b. ​a decrease in metabolism levels.
c. ​the lack of bonding between parents and infants.
d. ​the use of anesthetics during delivery.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

43. Which of the following is a symptom of postpartum psychosis in women?​

a. ​Delusional thoughts about the infant
b. ​Reduced heart rate and blood pressure
c. ​An increase in sexual arousal
d. ​An obsessive concern with the well-being of babies

 

ANSWER:   a

 

44. ​Mothers with _____ experience command hallucinations.

a. ​postpartum anxiety
b. ​postpartum psychosis
c. ​postpartum depression
d. ​postpartum blues

 

ANSWER:   b

 

45. Which of the following statements is true of women who experience postpartum depression?​

a. ​They profit from social support and counseling.
b. ​They experience command hallucinations.
c. ​They neglect their infant’s needs and requirements.
d. ​They develop delusional thoughts about the infant.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

46.  Which of the following observations on parent-infant bonding was made in the controversial research led by Klaus and Kennell?​

a. ​Extended parent–infant contact is required during the first hours postpartum in order to foster bonding.
b. ​Parent-infant bonding is a simple process involving just the desire to have a child.
c. ​Serious maternal depression can delay bonding with newborns.
d. ​A history of rejection by parents can interfere with women’s bonding with their own children.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

47. Which of the following statements is true about the bonding between parents and their newborn children?​

a. ​The postpartum depression experienced by mothers delays the development of parent-infant bonding.
b. ​The extended early contact between parents and infants is crucial in the development of parent-infant bonding.
c. ​The parents of many adopted children fail to develop a deep bond with them.
d. ​The parent-infant bonding is a simple process which involves just the desire to have a child.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

48. ​Which of the following is a measure of a newborn’s health that assesses appearance, pulse, grimace, activity level, and respiratory effort?

a. ​The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment scale
b. ​The Wechsler scale
c. ​The Binet-Simon scale
d. ​The Apgar scale

 

ANSWER:   d

 

49. Which of the following features of an infant is assessed using the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale?​

a. ​Adaptive behavior
b. ​Activity level
c. ​Muscle tone
d. ​Heart beat

 

ANSWER:   a

 

50. A(n) _____ is defined as an unlearned, stereotypical response to a stimulus.​

a. ​reflex
b. ​emotion
c. ​intuition
d. mnemonic

 

ANSWER:   a

 

51. In the Apgar scale, the criteria of grimace evaluates the _____ of infants.​

a. ​muscle tone
b. reflex irritability​
c. ​heart beat
d. ​color

 

ANSWER:   b

 

52. Which of the following is true of infantile reflexes?

a. They provide information about infants’ neural functioning.
b. They disappear within hours after birth.
c. They are produced by infants’ complex thought processes.
d. They are replaced by corresponding involuntary actions.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

53. Which of the following scenarios describes the rooting reflex?​

a. ​Jane curls her fingers around her mother’s fingers placed on her palm.
b. Abdul takes steps when his uncle holds him under the arm.​
c. ​Nia turns her head to the left when her cousin touches her left cheek.
d. ​Ruby flings her arms and draws them back when she is startled by the sound of a car horn.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

54. In which of the following reflexes does the baby arch the back, fling out the arms and legs, and draw them back to the chest in response to a sudden noise or change in position?​

a. ​The rooting reflex
b. ​The Moro reflex
c. ​The grasping reflex
d. ​The Babinski reflex

 

ANSWER:   b

 

55. In the palmar reflex, the child:​

a. ​turns the mouth and head toward a stimulus that stokes the cheek or the corner of the mouth.
b. ​fans the toes when the soles of the feet are stroked.
c. ​grasps objects that are kept on his or her palms.
d. ​takes steps when held under the arms and leans forward so that the feet press the ground.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

56. ​Which of the following statements is true of the palmar reflex observed in infants?

a. ​It is replaced by voluntary grasping within five to six months of age.
b. ​It facilitates finding the mother’s nipple in preparation for sucking.
c. ​It begins three months after the birth of the baby.
d. ​It can be elicited by loud noises and sudden movements.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

57. Which of the following is a similarity between the rooting reflex and the grasping reflex observed in infants?​

a. ​Both can be elicited by loud noises, bumping the baby’s crib or jerking the baby’s blanket.
b. ​Both are replaced by corresponding voluntary actions as the infant grows up.
c. ​Both facilitate finding the mother’s nipple in preparation for sucking.
d. ​Both require infants to use only four fingers to respond to the stimuli.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

58. ​Which of the following visual capabilities do neonates lack?

a. ​The ability to track movement
b. ​The ability to see objects that are about five inches from their eyes
c. ​The ability to adjust the lens to focus on objects
d. ​The ability to respond actively to visual stimuli

 

ANSWER:   c

 

59. _____ solutions have a calming effect on neonates.​

a. ​Sweet
b. ​Bitter
c. ​Salty
d. ​Sour

 

ANSWER:   a

 

60. In which of the following methods of learning are neonates’ involuntary responses conditioned to new stimuli?​

a. ​Classical conditioning
b. ​Social learning
c. ​Observational learning
d. ​Operant conditioning

 

ANSWER:   a

 

61. Which of the following statements is true of infant sleep patterns?​

a. ​They are characterized by stretches of sleep lasting up to seven hours.
b. They are similar to the sleep patterns in adults.​
c. ​They are uniform in infants across the world.
d. ​They are inconsistent and change as the child ages.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

62. Daria, a three-week-old infant, is resting quietly in her crib. Her eyes are open and she breathes regularly. She also looks around but shows little body movement. In this scenario, Daria is in the state of _____.​

a. ​quiet sleep
b. alert inactivity​
c. ​drowsiness
d. ​active sleep

 

ANSWER:   b

 

63. ​Which of the following statements is true of infants’ cries?

a. ​Their patterns are different from infant to infant.
b. ​They usually take a long time to be understood by parents.
c. ​Their pitch and duration are uniform across babies.
d. ​They are mainly related to the experience of pain.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

64. In the context of soothing infants, which of the following statements is true?​

a. One needs to hold infants continuously so that they do not get distressed.​
b. ​Infants need to be left alone and will soothe themselves.
c. ​Infants can be soothed by speaking to them in low voices or offering a pacifier.
d. ​Soothing requirements are the same for every infant.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

65. Which of the following parts of the brain has been found to be affected in children with sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?​

a. ​The cerebellum
b. ​The medulla
c. The thalamus​
d. ​The hypothalamus

 

ANSWER:   b

 

Completion

 

66. During labor, the placenta and uterus secrete _________, which excite the muscles of the uterus to have contractions.​

A. triglycerides

B. phospholipids

C. serotonins

D. prostaglandins

ANSWER:   prostaglandins​

 

67. During labor, _________ is said to have taken place when the baby’s head emerges from the birth canal.

A. transition

B. anoxia

C. crowning

D. hypoxia

ANSWER:   crowning​

 

68. With a(n) _________, anesthesia is injected into the mother’s spinal canal, temporarily numbing the body below the waist.

A. pineal block

B. epidural block

C. pudendal block

D. medullary block

ANSWER:   epidural​

 

69. _________ is the method that provides the woman in labor with continuous information as to what is happening with various bodily functions.

A. Hypnosis

B. Prepared childbirth

C. Natural childbirth

D. Biofeedback

ANSWER:   Biofeedback​

 

70. Babies who are born weighing under _________ pounds are considered to be of low birth weight.

A. 7.5

B. 5.5

C. 6.5

D. 8.5

ANSWER:   5.5​

 

71. A(n) _________ is a heated, protective container for premature infants.

A. crib

B. incubator

C. bedpan

D. ventilator

ANSWER:   incubator​

 

72. In the context of postpartum psychological problems faced by mothers, _________ is characterized by delusional thoughts about the infant that place the infant at risk of injury or death.

A. postpartum depression

B. postpartum anxiety

C. postpartum psychosis

D. postpartum blues

ANSWER:   postpartum psychosis​

 

73. _________ is the formation of parent-infant attachment.

A. Bonding

B. Transition

C. Episiotomy

D. Convergence

ANSWER:   Bonding​

 

74. ​_________ refers to pain resulting from gas or other sources of distress in the digestive tract in babies.

A. Thush

B. Colic

C. Anoxia

D. Hypoxia

ANSWER:   colic

 

75.  _________ is the chemical in the body that has a role in the development of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

A. Serotonin

B. Adrenalin

C. Dopamine

D. Testosterone

ANSWER:   Serotonin​

 

Essay

 

76. Briefly describe the three stages of childbirth.​

ANSWER:   The first stage of childbirth is the longest stage. During this stage, uterine contractions efface and dilate the cervix, which needs to widen to about four inches (ten centimeters) to allow the baby to pass. The mother typically feels uterine contractions occurring more regularly throughout this stage. When the cervix is nearly fully dilated, the head of the fetus begins to move into the vagina, in a process called transition. The second stage of childbirth begins when the baby appears at the opening of the vagina. The baby’s head is said to have crowned when it begins to emerge from the birth canal. Once crowning has occurred, the baby normally emerges completely within minutes. The third stage of labor, also called the placental stage, lasts from minutes to an hour or more. During this stage, the placenta separates from the uterine wall and is expelled through the birth canal. Please see the section “The Stages of Childbirth” for more details.​

 

77. Describe the different methods of childbirth.​

ANSWER:   Different methods of childbirth are:

a. Anesthesia – Two types of anesthetics are used to lessen the pain associated with childbirth. General anesthesia achieves its anesthetic effect by putting the woman to sleep by means of an injected barbiturate. Regional or local anesthetics deaden pain without putting the mother to sleep.

b. Hypnosis and Biofeedback – Hypnosis has been used with some success as an alternative to anesthesia during childbirth. Biofeedback is a method that provides the woman in labor with continuous information as to what is happening with various bodily functions. Muscle tension and blood pressure are among the functions that can be targeted.

c. Prepared childbirth – In the Lamaze method, or prepared childbirth, women engage in breathing and relaxation exercises that lessen fear and pain and distract them from discomfort. The mother-to-be attends Lamaze classes with a “coach”— most often, her partner—who will aid her in the delivery room by doing things such as massaging her, timing the contractions, offering social support, and coaching her in patterns of breathing and relaxation.

d. Cesarean sections – In a cesarean section (C-section), the physician delivers the baby by surgery. The physician cuts through the mother’s abdomen and uterus and physically removes the baby. Physicians prefer C-sections to vaginal delivery when they believe that normal delivery may threaten the mother or child or may be more difficult than desired.​

Please see the section “Methods of Childbirth” for more details.

 

78. Explain some of the risks faced by low-birth-weight babies.​

ANSWER:   Low-birth-weight babies are those who weigh less than 5.5 pounds at birth. Neonates weighing between 3.25 and 5.5 pounds are seven times more likely to die than infants of normal birth weight, whereas those weighing less than 3.3 pounds are nearly 100 times as likely to die. By and large, the lower a child’s birth weight, the more poorly he or she fares on measures of neurological development and cognitive functioning throughout the school years. There are also risks for motor development. Please see the section “Birth Problems” for more details.​

 

79. Briefly describe how vision and hearing function at birth.​

ANSWER:   Neonates can see, but they are nearsighted. They can best see objects that are about seven to nine inches from their eyes. They show little or no visual accommodation and lack the ability to converge their eyes on an object that is close to them. The degree to which neonates perceive color remains an open question. By four months, however, infants can see most, if not all, the colors of the visible spectrum.

Fetuses respond to sound months before they are born. Normal neonates hear well unless their middle ears are clogged with amniotic fluid. They have the capacity to respond to sounds of different amplitude and pitch. Please see the section “Characteristics of Neonates” for more details.

 

80. Do infant cries mean different things? Explain briefly.​

ANSWER:   Infant cries mean many things. They may signal hunger, pain, anger, and the like. The pitch of an infant’s cries appears to provide information. Adults perceive high-pitched crying to be more urgent, distressing, and sick sounding than low-pitched crying. A sudden, loud, insistent cry associated with flexing and kicking of the legs may indicate colic, that is, pain resulting from gas or other sources of distress in the digestive tract. Certain high-pitched cries, when prolonged, may signify health problems. The cries of chronically distressed infants differ from those of nondistressed infants in both rhythm and pitch. Patterns of crying may be indicative of chromosomal abnormalities, infections, fetal malnutrition, and exposure to narcotics. Please see the section “Characteristics of Neonates” for more details.​
True / False

 

1. Piaget’s sensorimotor stage refers to the first four to six years of cognitive development in children.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

2. Secondary circular reactions focus on the infant’s own body rather than on the external environment.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

3. In secondary circular reactions, the focus shifts to objects and environmental events.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

4. Memory improves dramatically between five to ten years of age and then again by the age of 18.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

5. Infant memory can be improved if infants receive a reminder before their memory is tested.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

6. Mirror neurons are found only in humans.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

7. Mirror neurons in humans are connected with emotions.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

8. Mirror neurons are apparently connected with observational learning and, perhaps, with gender differences in empathy.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

9. Cognitive development proceeds in the same way and at the same pace for all infants.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

10. Screening infants does not detect early signs of sensory or neurological problems.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

11. The Bayley scales is the only test that has been developed to screen infants for sensory or neurological problems.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

12. By about eight months of age, cooing decreases markedly.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

13. The mean length of utterance (MLU) is the average number of morphemes that communicators use in their sentences.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

14. ​Syntax is the rules in a language for placing words in order to form sentences.

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   True

 

15. Extinction is the increase in frequency of a response due to absence of reinforcement.​

a. True
b. False

 

ANSWER:   False

 

Multiple Choice

 

16. Which of the following is the focus of cognitive development?​

a. ​How children perceive and mentally represent the world
b. ​How children enter puberty and undergo physical changes
c. ​How children deal with infectious diseases
d. ​How children with developmental disorders behave

 

ANSWER:   a

 

17. Lauren has learned what a fish looks like from a book. Her mother buys her a goldfish and a fishbowl. She then learns that fish swim in water. Lauren tries to incorporate this new event into her scheme of fish. In this context, Lauren is using _____.​

a. ​accommodation
b. ​assimilation
c. ​differentiation
d. ​augmentation

 

ANSWER:   b

 

18. Latifa knows that kittens are animals. Her mother tells her that puppies are also animals. Latifa then modifies her existing scheme of animals to include puppies. In changing her scheme to incorporate the new information, Latifa is using _____.​

a. ​assimilation
b. ​augmentation
c. ​differentiation
d. ​accommodation

 

ANSWER:   d

 

19. According to Piaget, children’s cognitive processes develop:​

a. ​within a span of two months.
b. ​in an orderly sequence of stages.
c. ​only after the first year.
d. ​in a haphazard manner.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

20. Which of the following is an example of a simple reflex?​

a. ​Reaching for an object
b. ​Looking to see if one’s mother is near
c. ​Searching for an object behind an obstacle
d. ​Turning toward the source of a noise

 

ANSWER:   d

 

21. According to the first substage of the sensorimotor stage, at birth, infants’ reflexes are:​

a. ​absent.
b. ​flexible.
c. ​stereotypical.
d. ​unique.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

22. Which of the following represents a primary circular reaction?​

a. ​Kala accidentally touches her nose with her thumb and then repeats it.
b. ​Jose turns toward the sound of his mother’s voice.
c. ​Lorenzo kicks his mobile over and over again because it makes it move.
d. ​Megan pulls her blanket because it brings her teddy bear close enough to grab it.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

23. Emma is a seven-month-old infant. She repeatedly shakes a rattle because it makes a noise she likes. This is an example of a _____.​

a. ​simple reflex
b. ​secondary circular reaction
c. ​primary circular reaction
d. ​tertiary circular reaction

 

ANSWER:   b

 

24. Which of the following is a difference between primary and secondary circular reactions?​

a. ​Primary circular reactions involve only reflexes, while secondary circular reactions involve only thoughts.
b. Primary circular reactions involve complex actions, while secondary circular reactions involve simple actions.​
c. ​Primary circular reactions focus on an infant’s own body, while secondary circular reactions focus on the environment.
d. ​Primary circular reactions are goal oriented, while secondary circular reactions are based on reflexes.

 

ANSWER:   c

 

25. Which of the following substages of the sensorimotor stage involves infants showing goal-directed behavior?​

a. ​Invention of new means through mental connections
b. ​Coordination of secondary schemes
c. ​Primary circular reactions
d. ​Tertiary circular reactions

 

ANSWER:   b

 

26. Coordination of secondary schemes in an infant lasts from _____ months of age.​

a. ​one to four
b. ​four to eight
c. ​eight to twelve
d. ​twelve to eighteen

 

ANSWER:   c

 

27. Tertiary circular reactions are witnessed during the _____ stage of cognitive development.​

a. ​sensorimotor
b. ​concrete operational
c. ​preoperational
d. ​formal operational

 

ANSWER:   a

 

28. Tertiary circular reactions in an infant lasts from _____ months of age.​

a. ​one to four
b. ​four to eight
c. ​eight to twelve
d. ​twelve to eighteen

 

ANSWER:   d

 

29. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary circular reaction?​

a. ​Kala accidentally touches her nose with her thumb; it makes her laugh. She then repeats the action, and it makes her laugh again.
b. ​Jose turns toward the phone when it starts ringing. He also turns and looks at his mom when she speaks.
c. ​Lorenzo kicks his mobile over and over because it makes it move.
d. ​After many tries, Megan turns her toy sideways and is able to pull it into the crib. Now, whenever she wants the toy, she turns it sideways to pull it through.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

30. Which of the following substages of the sensorimotor stage serves as a transition to the symbolic thought of the next stage?​

a. ​Tertiary circular reaction
b. ​Secondary circular reaction
c. ​Invention of new means through mental combinations
d. ​Coordination of secondary schemes

 

ANSWER:   c

 

31. Which of the following is an accurate statement about object permanence?​

a. ​It is the recognition that an object or person continues to exist even when out of sight.
b. ​It is the absorption of new events into existing schemes.
c. ​It is the modification of existing schemes to accommodate novel events.
d. ​It is the imitation of people and events that occurred in the past.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

32. According to studies in 2013 by Kibbe & Leslie and Lowe, the development of object permanence is tied into the development of infants’ _____.​

a. ​locomotive ability
b. ​tetrachromacy
c. ​reasoning ability
d. ​echolocation

 

ANSWER:   c

 

33. Which of the following is an accurate statement about neonates?​

a. ​They continuously lose weight for almost one month.
b. ​They do not show tendency to respond to objects that are not within their immediate sensory grasp.
c. ​They are capable of searching for hidden objects.
d. ​They do not keep their actions constant as they learn how things work through a trial and error fashion.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

34. Which of the following represents the A-not-B error that infants make?​

a. ​Infants not searching for hidden objects unless given an incentive
b. ​Infants randomly searching for hidden objects but quickly becoming frustrated and giving up
c. ​Infants searching for a hidden object in a familiar hiding place even after seeing the object being hidden in a new place
d. ​Infants not searching for a hidden object for more than five to ten seconds and quickly becoming distracted by other, more interesting objects

 

ANSWER:   c

 

35. The pattern and sequence of events Piaget described have been observed:​

a. ​only in his own children.
b. more significantly in twins than normal siblings.​
c. ​more directly in boys than girls.
d. ​in children cross-culturally.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

36. Which of the following is an accurate statement on the evaluation of Piaget’s theory?​

a. ​Piaget’s theory excluded adult and peer influences on cognitive development.
b. ​Most of Piaget’s observations on his own infants were denied to be true by others.
c. ​The pattern and sequence of events described in Piaget’s theory were restricted only to American infants.
d. ​Piaget’s theory overestimates infants’ competence.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

37. Which of the following is a criticism of Piaget’s theory?​

a. It excessively emphasized the role of maturation.
b. ​It focused almost exclusively on learning processes.
c. ​It did not explain the cognitive development of infants.
d. ​It did not estimate the abilities of infants accurately.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

38. _____ is the imitation of an action that may have occurred hours, days, or even weeks earlier.​

a. ​Deferred imitation
b. ​Negative imitation
c. ​Automatic imitation
d. ​Cognitive imitation

 

ANSWER:   a

 

39. The presence of _____ suggests that children have mentally represented behavior patterns.​

a. ​deferred imitation
b. ​a mutation
c. ​a simple reflex
d. ​prelinguistic vocalizations

 

ANSWER:   a

 

40. Piaget believed that deferred imitation appears at about _____ months of age.​

a. ​18
b. ​15
c. ​12
d. ​10

 

ANSWER:   a

 

41. Infants’ tools for processing information include their:​

a. ​memory and imitation.
b. ​intonation and prelinguistic vocalization.
c. ​echolalia and intonation.
d. ​simple reflex and primary circular reaction.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

42. Which of the following is true of infant memory?​

a. ​Infants demonstrate memory for experiences they had while still in the womb.
b. ​Infants demonstrate reliable memory only after four months of age.
c. ​Infants can only remember after 6 months of age.
d. ​Infants can memorize things with only one exposure.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

43. Between which of the following ages does the first dramatic improvement in infant memory occur?​

a. ​One and two months of age
b. ​Two and six months of age
c. ​Six and eight months of age
d. ​Eight and 12 months of age

 

ANSWER:   b

 

44. Rovee-Collier and her colleagues tied one end of a ribbon to a brightly colored mobile and the other end to an infant’s ankle. Which of the following did this study measure?​

a. ​Object permanence
b. ​Habituation
c. ​Memory
d. ​Primary circular reaction

 

ANSWER:   c

 

45. According to Imuta’s study in 2013, infant memory can be improved if infants _____ before their memory is tested.​

a. ​receive a reminder
b. ​eat some food
c. ​drink their mother’s milk
d. ​sleep for two hours

 

ANSWER:   a

 

46. Sometimes very young infants can demonstrate imitation due to the activation of _____.​

a. ​afferent neurons
b. ​tertiary neurons
c. ​mirror neurons
d. ​efferent neurons

 

ANSWER:   c

 

47. Apart from mirroring motor acts performed by an individual being observed, mirror neurons in humans are also connected with _____.​

a. ​hunger
b. ​physical growth
c. ​problem solving
d. ​emotions

 

ANSWER:   d

 

48. ​Which of the following tests measures of infant intelligence?

a. ​The Apgar Scales
b. ​The Riley Scales
c. ​The Bayley Scales
d. ​The Piaget Scales

 

ANSWER:   c

 

49. In its simplest sense, the Bayley scales measure:​

a. ​mental and motor abilities.
b. ​environmental influences on intelligence.
c. ​genetic influences on intelligence.
d. ​social and emotional development.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

50. Which of the following is used in the Bayley Scales of Infant Development?​

a. ​A language rating scale
b. ​A behavior rating scale
c. ​A reflex rating scale
d. ​A maternal behavior scale

 

ANSWER:   b

 

51. Which of the following is a difference between the mental scale and the behavior rating scale?​

a. ​The mental scale assesses perceptual skills, whereas the behavior scale assesses attention span.
b. ​The mental scale assesses goal directedness, whereas the behavior scale assesses memory.
c. ​The mental scale assesses emotional development, whereas the behavior scale assesses fine motor skills.
d. ​The mental scale assesses persistence, whereas the behavior scale assesses learning.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

52. According to a study in the year 2004 by Courage et al., in a continuing effort to find aspects of intelligence and cognition that might remain consistent from infancy through later childhood, a number of researchers have recently focused on _____.

a. ​visual recognition memory
b. ​genetic behavioral patterns
c. ​cognitive assimilation
d. ​deferred imitation

 

ANSWER:   a

 

53. A child is shown two objects for 20 seconds. After this, one of the objects is replaced and the infant spends more time looking at the new object. Which of the following processes does this represent?​

a. ​Visual recognition
b. ​Concrete operations
c. ​Centration
d. ​Formal operations

 

ANSWER:   a

 

54. Higher visual recognition scores in infancy are related to:​

a. ​attention deficit disorder in later childhood.
b. ​poorer memory skills in later childhood.
c. ​higher verbal ability in later childhood.
d. ​higher IQ scores in later childhood.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

55. According to a study conducted by Rose and her colleagues, it was shown that, from age to age, individual differences in capacity for visual recognition memory:​

a. ​are stable.
b. ​increase gradually.
c. ​increase at a hazardous rate.
d. ​decrease gradually.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

56. _____ vocalizations, such as cooing and babbling, do not represent objects or actions, so infant crying is not a primitive form of language.​

a. ​Receptive
b. ​Expressive
c. ​Prelinguistic
d. ​Linguistic

 

ANSWER:   c

 

57. Newborn children, as parents are well aware, have an unlearned but highly effective form of verbal expression that is _____.​

a. ​crying
b. ​babbling
c. ​receptive vocabulary
d. ​expressive vocabulary

 

ANSWER:   a

 

58. Infants begin cooing:​

a. ​at birth.
b. ​during the second month.
c. ​at one week of age.
d. ​during the fourth month.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

59. Infants use their _____ when they coo.​

a. ​tongues
b. ​thumbs
c. ​feet
d. ​forefingers

 

ANSWER:   a

 

60. Infants coo when they are _____.​

a. ​hungry
b. ​tired
c. ​hurt
d. ​happy

 

ANSWER:   d

 

61. When infants babble, they tend to produce:​

a. incomplete sentences.
b. ​sounds of the vowel A.
c. ​complete sentences of five to six words.
d. ​combinations of consonants and vowels.

 

ANSWER:   d

 

62. Which of the following is a similarity between cooing and babbling?​

a. ​Both do not represent objects or actions.
b. ​Both sound like human speech.
c. ​Both do not start until the age of one.
d. ​Both are used to express meaning.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

63. Toward the end of the first year, infants are also using patterns of rising and falling _____ that resemble the sounds of adult speech.​

a. ​echolalia
b. ​syntax
c. ​overextension
d. ​intonation

 

ANSWER:   d

 

64. Which of the following sentences is true about receptive vocabulary and expressive vocabulary?​

a. ​Children’s receptive vocabulary development outpaces their expressive vocabulary development.
b. ​Children’s receptive vocabulary develops only after their expressive vocabulary is completely developed.
c. ​Children’s receptive vocabulary is equal to their expressive vocabulary at any given time.
d. ​Children’s receptive vocabulary is lost if proper reinforcement is not provided, whereas expressive vocabulary is permanent.

 

ANSWER:   a

 

65. Which of the following is a difference between surface structure and deep structure of language?​

a. ​The surface structure includes prelinguistic vocalizations like cooing and babbling, whereas the deep structure includes holophrases and telegraphic speech.
b. ​The surface structure is the superficial grammatical construction of a sentence, whereas the deep structure is the underlying meaning of a sentence.
c. ​The surface structure is the number of words one understands, whereas the deep structure is the number of words one can use in a sentence.
d. ​The surface structure is the automatic repetition of sounds or words, whereas the deep structure is the use of pitches of varying levels to help communicate meaning.

 

ANSWER:   b

 

Completion

 

66. According to Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory, the _________ stage is the first stage of cognitive development.

A. sensorimotor

B. formal operational

C. preoperational

D. concrete operational

ANSWER:   sensorimotor​

 

67. Infants tend to repeat stimulating actions that first occurred by chance and that focus on their own body. This is an example of a _________ in Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory.

A. primary circular reaction

B. secondary circular reaction

C. tertiary circular reaction

D. simple reflex

ANSWER:   primary circular reaction​

 

68. Piaget suggested that, between 12 to 18 months of age, infants engage in _________, or purposeful adaptations of established schemes to specific situations.

A. primary circular reactions

B. secondary circular reactions

C. tertiary circular reactions

D. simple reflex

ANSWER:   tertiary circular reaction​s

 

69. When an infant searches for an object that has rolled out of sight, this is evidence of _________ according to Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory.

A. object inheritance

B. object vocalization

C. object permanence

D. object reflex

ANSWER:   object permanence​

 

70. The presence of _________ suggests that children have mentally represented behavior patterns.

A. deferred imitation

B. negative imitation

C. automatic imitation

D. immediate imitation

ANSWER:   deferred imitation​

 

71. Some theorists speculate that _________ are connected with the built-in human capacity to acquire language.

A. afferent neurons

B. tertiary neurons

C. mirror neurons

D. efferent neurons

ANSWER:   mirror neurons​

 

72. _________ is comprised of both mental-scale and motor-scale items, and also includes a behavioral rating scale.

A. The Apgar Scales of Infant Development

B. The Riley Scales of Cognitive Development

C. The Bayley Scales of Infant Development

D. The Piaget Scales of Cognitive Development

ANSWER:   The Bayley Scales of Infant Development​

 

73. _________ is the ability to discriminate previously seen objects from novel objects.

A. Visual recognition memory

B. Genetic behavioral patterns

C. Cognitive assimilation

D. Deferred imitation

ANSWER:   Visual recognition memory​

 

74. Cooing and babbling are considered _________ vocalizations.

A. prelinguistic

B. paralinguistic

C. linguistic

D. postlinguistic

ANSWER:   prelinguistic​

 

75. The critical period is also known as the _________.

A. sensitive period

B. primary period

C. vocalization period

D. linguistic period

ANSWER:   sensitive period​

 

Essay

 

76. What do Jean Piaget’s schemes mean? How are assimilation and accommodation related to schemes?​

ANSWER:   Cognitive development focuses on the development of children’s ways of perceiving and mentally representing the world. Piaget labeled children’s concepts of the world schemes. He hypothesized that children try to use assimilation to absorb new events into existing schemes. When assimilation does not allow the child to make sense of novel events, children try to modify existing schemes through accommodation. Please see the section ”Cognitive Development: Jean Piaget” for more details.

 

77. Explain how Jean Piaget noted an interesting error known as the A-not-B error. Do infants show the A-not-B error under all circumstances?​

ANSWER:   Piaget noted an interesting error known as the A-not-B error. He repeatedly hid a toy behind a screen (A), and each time, his infant removed the screen and retrieved the toy. Then, as the infant watched, Piaget hid the toy behind another screen (B) in a different place. Still, the infant tried to recover the toy by pushing aside the first screen (A). It is as though the child had learned that a certain motor activity would reinstate the missing toy. The child’s concept of the object did not, at this age, extend to recognition that objects usually remain in the place where they have been most recently mentally represented.

Under certain conditions, nine- to ten-month-old infants do not show the A-not-B error. They apparently need a certain degree of maturation of the front lobes of the cerebral cortex, which fosters the development of working memory and attention. Also, if infants are allowed to search for the object immediately after seeing it hidden, the error often does not occur. Please see the section ”Cognitive Development: Jean Piaget” for more details.​

 

78. What are mirror neurons? Explain mirror neurons in humans.​

ANSWER:   Mirror neurons, also found in humans, are activated when the individual performs a motor act or observes another individual engaging in the same act. Mirror neurons in humans are also connected with emotions. Certain regions of the brain—particularly in the frontal lobe—are active when people experience emotions such as disgust, happiness, pain, and also when they observe another person experiencing an emotion. It thus appears that there is a neural basis for empathy—that is, the identification or vicarious experiencing of feelings in others based on the observation of visual and other cues. It has also been suggested that mirror neurons are connected with the built-in human capacity to acquire language. Mirror neurons are also apparently connected with observational learning and, perhaps, with gender differences in empathy. Please see the section ”Information Processing” for more details.​

 

79. Why are infants tested? Name a few scales with which they are tested.​

ANSWER:   It is no easy matter to test an infant. The items must be administered on a one-to-one basis by a patient tester, and it can be difficult to judge whether the infant is showing the targeted response. Then, why are infants tested? One reason is to screen infants for handicaps. A tester may be able to detect early signs of sensory or neurological problems, as suggested by development of visual–motor coordination. In addition to the Bayley scales, a number of tests have been developed to screen infants for such difficulties, including the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale and the Denver Developmental Screening Test. Please see the section ”Individual Differences in Intelligence among Infants” for more details.​

 

80. Explain briefly about overextension.​

ANSWER:   Young children try to talk about more objects than they have words for. To accomplish their linguistic feats, children often extend the meaning of one word to refer to things and actions for which they do not have words. This process is called overextension. Eve Clark studied diaries of infants’ language development and found that overextensions are generally based on perceived similarities in function or form between the original object or action and the new one. She provides the example of the word mooi, which one child originally used to designate the moon. The child then overextended mooi to designate all round objects, including the letter o and cookies and cakes. Overextensions gradually pull back to their proper references as the child’s vocabulary and ability to classify objects develop. Please see the section ”Language Development” for more details.​