Human Anatomy & Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb, Katja Hoehn – Test Bank

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Human Anatomy & Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb, Katja Hoehn – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

Human Anatomy & Physiology, 10e, (Marieb)

Chapter 6   Bones and Skeletal Tissue

 

6.1   Matching Questions

 

Figure 6.1

 

Using Figure 6.1, match the following bone types with the numbered structure:

Flat, long, irregular, short, sesamoid

  1. A) Irregular
  2. B) Flat
  3. C) Sesamoid
  4. D) Short
  5. E) Long

 

1) Bone 1.

Section:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  6.6

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

2) Bone 2.

Section:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  6.6

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

3) Bone 3.

Section:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  6.6

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

4) Bone 4.

Section:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  6.6

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

5) Bone 5.

Section:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  6.6

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

6) Bone 6.

Section:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  6.6

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

7) Bone 7.

Section:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  6.6

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

Answers: 1) B 2) E 3) B 4) A 5) E 6) C 7) D

 

 

Figure 6.2

 

Using Figure 6.2, match the following:

  1. A) A
  2. B) D
  3. C) C
  4. D) B

 

8) Compact bone.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

9) Location of the epiphyseal line.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

 

10) Area where yellow marrow is found.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

11) Epiphysis of the bone.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) A

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Paget’s disease
  2. B) Osteoporosis
  3. C) Osteomalacia

 

12) Bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal.

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

13) Bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft. Deforms on weight bearing.

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

14) Excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption.

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 12) B 13) C 14) A

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Greenstick
  2. B) Comminuted
  3. C) Spiral

 

15) An incomplete fracture or cracking of the bone without actual separation of the parts. Common in children.

Section:  6.7

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

16) Bone fragments into many pieces.

Section:  6.7

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

17) Common sports fracture resulting from a twisting force.

Section:  6.7

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 15) A 16) B 17) C

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Lamellae
  2. B) Osteoblasts
  3. C) Endosteum
  4. D) Canaliculi
  5. E) Osteoclasts

 

18) The lining of the marrow cavity.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

19) Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.13

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

20) Layers of bone matrix.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

21) Small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

22) Cells that can build bony matrix.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.13

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 18) C 19) E 20) A 21) D 22) B

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Intramembranous ossification
  2. B) Appositional growth
  3. C) Epiphyseal line
  4. D) Chondrocytes
  5. E) Epiphyseal plate

 

23) The cells responsible for the early stages of endochondral ossification.

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.11

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

24) The growth pattern of bone in which matrix is laid down on the surface.

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.14

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

25) Bone develops from a fibrous membrane.

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.11

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

26) The appearance of this structure signals the end of bone growth.

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.11

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

27) Area where bone longitudinal growth takes place.

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.11

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) C 27) E

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Spine
  2. B) Trochanter
  3. C) Facet
  4. D) Foramen
  5. E) Ramus

 

28) Sharp, slender, often pointed projection.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

29) Round or oval opening through a bone.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

30) Smooth, nearly flat articular surface.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

31) Armlike bar of bone.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

32) Very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) E 32) B

 

 

6.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

2) Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.6

Learning Outcome:  6.13

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

3) Bones are classified by whether they are weight bearing or protective in function.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  6.6

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

4) The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

5) Short, irregular, and flat bones have medullary cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

 

6) In newborn infants, the medullary cavity and all areas of spongy bone contain yellow bone marrow.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

7) The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

8) The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compact bones.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.10

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

9) Sixty-five percent of the mass of bone is a compound called hydroxyapatite.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.10

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

10) All bones stop growing by the end of adolescence.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.12

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

11) An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

12) The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

13) The hormone that is primarily involved in the control of bone remodeling is calcitonin.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.14

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

14) Each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in alternating directions.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

15) Cartilage has a flexible matrix that can accommodate mitosis of chondrocytes.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.1

Learning Outcome:  6.3

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

 

16) Closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.12

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

1.3   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stresses?

  1. A) spongy bone
  2. B) irregular bone
  3. C) trabecular bone
  4. D) compact bone

Answer:  D

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

2) Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________.

  1. A) Sharpey’s fibers
  2. B) elastic tissue
  3. C) fat
  4. D) blood-forming cells

Answer:  C

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

3) The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.

  1. A) osteocyte
  2. B) chondrocyte
  3. C) osteoclast
  4. D) osteoblast

Answer:  D

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.13

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

4) What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?

  1. A) decreased osteoclast activity
  2. B) decreased epiphyseal plate activity
  3. C) increased osteoclast activity
  4. D) inadequate calcification of bone

Answer:  B

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.12

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

5) A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.

  1. A) metaphysis
  2. B) articular cartilage
  3. C) diaphysis
  4. D) epiphysis

Answer:  C

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

6) The term diploë refers to the ________.

  1. A) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones
  2. B) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue
  3. C) two types of marrow found within most bones
  4. D) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone

Answer:  A

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

7) Which of the following is implicated in osteoporosis in older women?

  1. A) estrogen deficiency due to menopause
  2. B) heritage such as African or Mediterranean
  3. C) poor posture
  4. D) abnormal PTH receptors

Answer:  A

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

8) Ossification of the ends of long bones ________.

  1. A) is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation
  2. B) involves medullary cavity formation
  3. C) takes twice as long as diaphysis ossification
  4. D) is produced by secondary ossification centers

Answer:  D

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.11

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

9) Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?

  1. A) epiphyseal line
  2. B) lacuna
  3. C) epiphyseal plate
  4. D) osteon

Answer:  C

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.12

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

10) Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

  1. A) calcium
  2. B) growth hormone
  3. C) thyroid hormone
  4. D) parathyroid hormone

Answer:  B

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.12

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

11) Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

  1. A) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)
  2. B) communication
  3. C) storage of minerals
  4. D) support

Answer:  B

Section:  6.2

Learning Outcome:  6.4

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

12) What is the structural unit of compact bone?

  1. A) the osteon
  2. B) lamellar bone
  3. C) osseous matrix
  4. D) spongy bone

Answer:  A

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

13) Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.

  1. A) osteogenic cells
  2. B) chondrocytes and osteocytes
  3. C) dense irregular connective tissue
  4. D) cartilage and compact bone

Answer:  A

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

14) The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by ________.

  1. A) perforating (Sharpey’s) fibers
  2. B) Volkmann’s canals
  3. C) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
  4. D) the struts of bone known as spicules

Answer:  A

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

15) The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ________.

  1. A) blood vessels and nerve fibers
  2. B) yellow marrow and spicules
  3. C) cartilage and interstitial lamellae
  4. D) adipose tissue and nerve fibers

Answer:  A

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

16) The resilience of bone is thought to come from which of the following?

  1. A) presence of osteoblasts in the bone
  2. B) amount of mineral salt and protein in the bone
  3. C) amount of mineral salts in the bone
  4. D) sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules

Answer:  D

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.10

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

17) For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?

  1. A) Ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane.
  2. B) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model.
  3. C) A medullary cavity forms.
  4. D) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate.

Answer:  A

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.11

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

18) The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________.

  1. A) closing of the epiphyseal plate
  2. B) appositional growth
  3. C) epiphyseal plate closure
  4. D) concentric growth

Answer:  B

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.11

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

19) Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

  1. A) osteoblast
  2. B) stem cell
  3. C) osteoclast
  4. D) osteocyte

Answer:  C

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.13

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

20) Which bone would likely take the longest to heal?

  1. A) thigh bone of an elderly individual
  2. B) finger bone of a young individual
  3. C) thigh bone of a young individual
  4. D) finger bone of an elderly individual

Answer:  A

Section:  6.7

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

21) Wolff’s law is concerned with ________.

  1. A) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it
  2. B) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age
  3. C) the function of bone being dependent on shape
  4. D) the diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts

Answer:  A

Section:  6.6

Learning Outcome:  6.14

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

22) Cranial bones develop ________.

  1. A) from a tendon
  2. B) within osseous membranes
  3. C) within fibrous membranes
  4. D) from cartilage models

Answer:  C

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.11

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

23) In humans, the effect of the hormone calcitonin is to ________.

  1. A) increase blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoblasts
  2. B) increase blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts
  3. C) temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses
  4. D) decrease mitosis of chondrocytes at the epiphyseal plate

Answer:  C

Section:  6.6

Learning Outcome:  6.14

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

24) At what age do bones reach their peak density?

  1. A) early adulthood
  2. B) at birth
  3. C) early childhood
  4. D) late adulthood

Answer:  A

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

25) Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth?

  1. A) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage
  2. B) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage
  3. C) along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger
  4. D) growth at the epiphyseal plate

Answer:  A

Section:  6.1

Learning Outcome:  6.3

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

26) Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth of cartilage?

  1. A) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage.
  2. B) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.
  3. C) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones.
  4. D) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage.

Answer:  B

Section:  6.1

Learning Outcome:  6.3

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

27) Spongy bone contains ________.

  1. A) lamellar bone
  2. B) osteons
  3. C) trabeculae
  4. D) osseous lamellae

Answer:  C

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

28) Ossification (Osteogenesis) is the process of ________.

  1. A) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage
  2. B) bone formation
  3. C) bone destruction to liberate calcium
  4. D) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone

Answer:  B

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.11

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

29) Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________.

  1. A) calcification of the matrix of the zone underlying articular cartilage
  2. B) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
  3. C) differentiation of osteoclasts into osteocytes
  4. D) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity

Answer:  B

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.12

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

30) Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood?

  1. A) parathyroid hormone
  2. B) growth hormone
  3. C) calcitonin
  4. D) thyroid hormones

Answer:  B

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.12

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

31) In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause?

  1. A) elevated levels of sex hormones
  2. B) too much vitamin D in the diet
  3. C) overproduction of thyroid hormone
  4. D) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity

Answer:  A

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.12

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

32) Prevention of osteoporosis includes adequate intake of ________.

  1. A) potassium and vitamin D
  2. B) vitamin D and chloride
  3. C) calcium, and vitamin E
  4. D) calcium and vitamin D

Answer:  D

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

33) The pubic symphysis connects the two hip bones anteriorly and provides a little movement during childbirth. Choose the most appropriate tissue for this structure that is subjected to both pressure and stretch.

  1. A) elastic cartilage
  2. B) fibrocartilage
  3. C) hyaline cartilage
  4. D) bone

Answer:  B

Section:  6.1

Learning Outcome:  6.1

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

34) At an archeological site you discover a bone that is cylindrical in shape, about one inch long and a quarter of an inch wide. Choose the correct classification.

  1. A) long
  2. B) irregular
  3. C) sesamoid
  4. D) short

Answer:  A

Section:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  6.6

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

35) Choose the structures that most directly provide nutrients and remove wastes from osteocytes in compact bone.

  1. A) nutrient foramens
  2. B) perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
  3. C) canaliculi
  4. D) central canals

Answer:  C

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

36) Skeletal remains are discovered at an archeological site. X-rays of the femur show evidence of a thin epiphyseal plate. This bone likely belonged to which of the following?

  1. A) 18 year old male
  2. B) 25 year old female
  3. C) 8 year old female
  4. D) 60 year old male

Answer:  A

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.12

Global LO:  G2, G5

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

37) When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by its own matrix secretions it is referred to as an ________.

  1. A) osteogenic cell
  2. B) chondrocyte
  3. C) osteoclast
  4. D) osteocyte

Answer:  D

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.13

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

38) Choose the best location for obtaining a red bone marrow sample from a patient.

  1. A) hip bone
  2. B) medullary cavity of femur
  3. C) head of humerus
  4. D) frontal bone

Answer:  A

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

39) Select the bone disorder in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit, leaving the person with thin and often very fragile bones?

  1. A) osteomalacia
  2. B) rickets
  3. C) Paget’s disease
  4. D) osteoporosis

Answer:  D

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

40) Choose which bone marking type would likely increase in size when a weight lifter repeatedly exercises muscles that attach to it.

  1. A) meatus
  2. B) fossa
  3. C) trochanter
  4. D) foramen

Answer:  C

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS5, HAPS6

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

 

1.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) List in order the four major healing stages of a simple fracture.

Answer:  Hematoma formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, and bone remodeling.

Section:  6.7

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

2) What is found in a central (Haversian) canal?

Answer:  Small blood vessels and nerve fibers that serve the osteon’s cells.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

3) Proper blood calcium levels are required for muscle contraction, nerve function, and other critical activities in the body. How does the body maintain homeostasis in response to decreased blood calcium levels? Discuss the main gland, hormone, and target of the hormone.

Answer:  In response to decreased blood calcium levels, the parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone (PTH) which stimulates osteoclasts to liberate calcium from bone and into blood. PTH also encourages the digestive system to absorb more calcium and the kidneys to retain more calcium in blood.

Section:  6.6

Learning Outcome:  6.14

Global LO:  G2, G7, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS3, HAPS5, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

4) Why are the bones of young children much more flexible than those of the elderly?

Answer:  Bones of children are not completely calcified, with a higher ratio of more flexible organic fibers. Bones in the elderly are more completely calcified, which gives the characteristic of rigidity.

Section:  6.7

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

5) Create an analogy for the chemical composition of bone using highway construction.

Answer:  In highway construction metal rebar is used with concrete to form a road that is hard, yet resistant to cracking. Likewise, with bone tissue, the organic collagen fibers are akin to the metal rebar, providing flexibility, while the inorganic minerals provide the hardness like concrete in a roadway.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.10

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  5 Synthesis

 

6) Compare the function of the organic materials in the bone matrix with the function of the inorganic materials in the matrix.

Answer:  The organic matrix contributes to the bone structure and its tensile strength, while the inorganic matrix contributes to hardness and resistance to compression.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.10

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS4, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

7) What are the differences between the diaphysis and the epiphyses of long bones?

Answer:  Diaphyseal bone is composed almost entirely of compact bone (except in irregular and short bones), while the epiphyses are composed almost entirely of spongy bone. The epiphyses are on the ends of the bone; the diaphysis is the “shank” of the bone. The diaphysis in long bones has a large medullary cavity, whereas the epiphyses do not.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

8) Compare how nutrients reach individual osteocytes in compact bone and in spongy bone.

Answer:  In spongy bone, nutrients reach osteocytes by diffusing through the canaliculi from capillaries in the endosteum surrounding the trabeculae. In compact bone, nutrients travel from the blood supply of the medullary cavity through perforating (Volkmann’s) canals that meet up with a central canal for each osteon. From a central canal, canaliculi connect with osteocytes.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

9) Compare the starts of intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

Answer:  Intramembranous ossification starts in connective tissue from mesenchymal cells that become osteoblasts. These osteoblasts cluster together into an ossification center. Endochondral ossification starts with a hyaline cartilage “template.” Mesenchymal cells become osteoblasts and begin forming bone around the cartilage.

Section:  6.5

Learning Outcome:  6.11

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

10) If your doctor notices a marked decrease in calcium ion levels in your blood, what gland might he suspect is not functioning properly and why?

Answer:  The parathyroid gland normally responds to low calcium ion levels in the blood and releases PTH, which mobilizes osteoclasts to step up bone destruction, releasing more calcium into the bloodstream. Persistent low blood calcium level therefore implies insufficient PTH, suggesting injury or failure of the parathyroid glands.

Section:  6.6

Learning Outcome:  6.14

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

 

1.5   Clinical Questions

 

1) Alice and James adopted a 3-year-old child from a developing country. They noticed that her legs were bowed and there were some deformities in her cranial and pelvic bones. They brought her to a physician for a diagnosis. What was the likely diagnosis, and what was the treatment for the disorder?

Answer:  The child most likely has rickets, a condition caused by poor diet, especially one deficient in vitamin D. The parents were told to increase her intake of calcium and vitamin D and to make sure that she gets some sunshine every day.

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  6 Evaluation

 

2) Emily, a 64-year-old formerly obese woman who successfully lost over 100 pounds, was brought to the hospital suffering pain in her legs, and an X- ray revealed that she had a simple fracture in her right femur and a crack in her left tibia. Other tests revealed that her bones were brittle and porous. What might have happened to Emily, and what advice would she have been given by the physician?

Answer:  Emily has osteoporosis, a debilitating bone disease that strikes more women than men after age 45-50. The bones become weak and brittle due to osteoclast out pacing of osteoblast in the bone. Emily has been told that she needs to take supplements of Ca, Vitamin D, and do weight-bearing exercise.

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  6 Evaluation

 

3) Johnny fractured the lower third of his right tibia in a skiing accident. The soft tissues in the area were severely damaged and their surgical removal was necessary. After prolonged immobilization, it was found that Johnny was healing very poorly. The explanation offered by the orthopedic surgeon was that vascularization of the fracture site was still inadequate and good healing was absolutely dependent upon an adequate blood supply. Describe how a long bone receives its blood supply and trace the path of nutrient delivery to the osteocytes.

Answer:  Long bones are nourished by nutrient arteries that frequently enter the shaft. Removal of the soft tissues probably reduced the flow of blood to the affected area. The pathway requires transport of nutrients from blood vessels in the medullary cavity to perforating (Volkmann’s) canals to central (Haversian) canals to canaliculi to lacunae that contain osteocytes.

Section:  6.4

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

4) People who live in northern latitudes may require supplemental calcium with vitamin D. Explain why.

Answer:  Vitamin D is manufactured by the skin using sunlight and is needed for absorption of dietary calcium. People who live in the north where the winter months are severe may need supplemental vitamin D because of the decreased amount of sunlight exposure.

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

5) When does prevention of osteoporosis start?

Answer:  The prevention of osteoporosis should begin with children. Parents need to provide children with the opportunity to develop as much bone as they have inherited the ability to develop. If people increase their peak bone mass as young adults, they will have additional protection from osteoporotic fractures in the future.

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

6) If your elderly patient’s blood calcium level is normal, does that mean the patient does not have osteoporosis? Explain.

Answer:  No. The level of calcium in the blood is expected to be normal, even in advanced cases of osteoporosis. The calcium in the bones will be low, but that occurs in order to maintain a normal blood calcium level.

Section:  6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

7) How can a tooth be moved in a bony socket during orthodontic treatment?

Answer:  Because bone deposition and reabsorption can occur, and because bone responds to mechanical stress (Wolff’s law), a tooth can be moved. By applying slight pressure to a tooth, the bone on the forward side will rebsorb, while the bone on the reverse side will be reformed.

Section:  6.6

Learning Outcome:  6.14

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

8) Explain why swimming is not generally recommended as an exercise to prevent osteoporosis.

Answer:  Mechanical stress and gravity help to promote skeletal remodeling. Swimming is not considered a weight-bearing exercise. The water, not bones, supports the body’s weight while swimming.

Section:  6.6, 6.8

Learning Outcome:  6.14, 6.16

Global LO:  G2, G8

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS6, HAPS11

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

Human Anatomy & Physiology, 10e  (Marieb)

Chapter 7   The Skeleton

 

7.1   Matching Questions

 

 

Figure 7.1

 

Using Figure 7.1, match the following:

  1. A) A
  2. B) D
  3. C) B
  4. D) C
  5. E) E

 

1) Articulates with hip bones of the pelvis.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

2) Attach to ribs.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

3) Bares most of the weight.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

4) Transvers foramina allow the passage of vertebral arteries.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

5) No canals or foramen present.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

6) Includes the atlas and the axis.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

7) Contains a pivot joint that allows you to rotate your head “no.”

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

Answers: 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) E 6) A 7) A

 

 

Figure 7.2

 

Using Figure 7.2, match the following:

  1. A) B
  2. B) E
  3. C) D
  4. D) A
  5. E) C

 

8) Anchor the pterygoid muscles.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

9) Passageway for optic nerve.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

10) Encloses pituitary gland.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

11) Forms parts of the middle cranial fossa, dorsal walls of the orbits, and external walls of the skull.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

12) Allow cranial nerves that control eye movements to enter the orbit.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

Answers: 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) A 12) C

 

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Maxillae
  2. B) Temporal bones
  3. C) Sphenoid
  4. D) Lacrimal bones

 

13) These very small bones are at the medial wall of each orbit.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

14) Failure of these anterior bones to fuse causes a condition known as cleft palate.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

15) This bone houses the apparatus of the internal and middle ear.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

16) This bone is wing-shaped and extends behind the eyes and forms part of the floor of the cranial vault.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

17) The bones that contain teeth.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

18) This bone has a passageway into the nasal cavity.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

19) The sella turcica is a portion of this bone.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

Answers: 13) D 14) D 15) B 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) C

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Humerus
  2. B) Radius
  3. C) Phalanges

 

20) The fingers have three of these bones and the thumb has only two.

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

21) This bone articulates with the glenoid fossa.

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

22) Forearm bone that articulates with most of the carpals.

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

Answers: 20) C 21) A 22) B

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Lumbar vertebrae
  2. B) Axis
  3. C) Atlas
  4. D) Coccyx
  5. E) Thoracic vertebrae

 

23) These bones have the thickest body (centrum) with short blunt spinous processes.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

24) The fused rudimentary tailbone.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

25) The bone that articulates with the occipital condyles.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

26) These bones have articular facets for the ribs.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

27) Allows the head to nod “yes.”

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

28) Allows the head to shake “no.”

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

Answers: 23) A 24) D 25) C 26) E 27) C 28) B

 

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Connects temporal and parietal bones.
  2. B) Connects right and left parietal bones.
  3. C) Connects occipital and parietal bones.
  4. D) Connects parietal and frontal bones.
  5. E) Connects occipital and temporal bones.

 

29) Lambdoid suture.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

30) Sagittal suture.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

31) Squamosal suture.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

32) Coronal suture.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

33) Occipitomastoid suture.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

Answers: 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) E

 

 

7.2   True/False Questions

 

1) The fibula is the major weight-bearing bone of the leg.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

2) All of the bones of the skull, except the mandible, are united by sutures and are therefore immovable.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

3) The frontal bone articulates with the parietal bone by means of the sagittal suture.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

4) The mastoid sinuses are located at a position in the skull where they are usually free from infections.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

5) The vertebral column is held in place primarily by the anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

6) Most of the body’s weight is carried by the talus and calcaneus.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

7) The most common site of fracture in the humerus is the anatomical neck.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

8) The shallow socket of the shoulder joint restricts the movement of the humerus but does increase the stability of the joint.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

9) Costal cartilages join most ribs to the sternum.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.3

Learning Outcome:  7.7

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

10) The tubercle of a rib articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.3

Learning Outcome:  7.7

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

11) In women of childbearing age, the dimensions of the true pelvis are of utmost importance.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.6

Learning Outcome:  7.13

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

12) The term vertebrochondral ribs refers to the “false ribs,” that attach to each other before they attach to the sternum.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.3

Learning Outcome:  7.8

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

13) In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

14) The vomer along with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone forms the bony part of the nasal septum.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

15) The temporal bone connects to the zygomatic bone via the temporal process of the temporal bone.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

16) The lacrimal bone contains a grove that forms part of lacrimal fossa. Along with the soft tissue of the lacrimal sac, these structures drain tears from the eye into the nasal passage.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

17) The largest and strongest bone of the face is the maxilla.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

18) There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

19) Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

20) All vertebrae possess a body, a spine, and transverse foramina.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

 

21) The dens articulates with the occipital bone.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

22) The pituitary gland is housed in a saddle-like depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

23) The ischium articulates with both the ilium and the pubis.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.6

Learning Outcome:  7.12

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

1.3   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) The bones in the skull have many different names but what are the boundaries of each bone? Where do they start and stop?

  1. A) Bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures.
  2. B) Bones of the skull are continuous but named for their specific markings.
  3. C) The boundaries are indistinct and are simply vague generalized regions.
  4. D) Boundaries for skull bones are seen only in the infant skull.

Answer:  A

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

2) Which of the following can be considered a function of the paranasal sinuses?

  1. A) The paranasal sinuses are passageways for nerves to pass through.
  2. B) Sinuses have rough patches that aid in muscle attachment.
  3. C) Sinuses are often referred to as vestigial, anatomical features with no know function.
  4. D) Sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones.

Answer:  D

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.3

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

3) Which of the bones of the skull would you most associate with hearing and balance?

  1. A) the occipital bone
  2. B) the zygomatic bone
  3. C) the temporal bone
  4. D) the parietal bone

Answer:  C

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

4) Which of the following would be most associated with housing the special sense organs?

  1. A) the cranial bones
  2. B) hyoid bone
  3. C) the facial bones
  4. D) the bones of the inner ear

Answer:  C

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

5) Which of the following would be most associated with process of warming and humidifying inhaled air?

  1. A) the paranasal sinuses
  2. B) the bones comprising the orbits
  3. C) the cranial bones
  4. D) hyoid bone

Answer:  A

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.3

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

6) Which is the best description for the function of the cranial bones?

  1. A) allowing introduction of food into the digestive system
  2. B) house the special sense organs
  3. C) protection of the brain
  4. D) providing passageways for respiratory gases to move into and out of the body

Answer:  C

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

7) The sphenoid bone is sometimes referred to as a “key stone” of the skull. This is due to the fact that ________.

  1. A) the sphenoid is wedged in the superior most portion of the skull and supports all of the other bones below (excluding the mandible)
  2. B) the intricate shape of the sphenoid makes it critical to the district characteristics of the individual human face
  3. C) the sphenoid is in the center of the skull and it articulates (joins) with all of the other bones of the skull (excluding the mandible)
  4. D) the sphenoid bone is solid like a stone and provides the strength necessary to support the skull

Answer:  C

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

8) The sella turcica is part of the ________ bone and houses the ________ gland.

  1. A) ethmoid; thymus
  2. B) sphenoid; pituitary
  3. C) ethmoid; pituitary
  4. D) sphenoid; thymuss

Answer:  B

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

9) The hypothalamus is a region of the brain controlling many aspects of the endocrine system. It works closely with the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is directly superior to the pituitary and is therefore ________.

  1. A) the only region of the brain that is outside of the skull
  2. B) superior to the crista galli
  3. C) inferior to the cribriform plate
  4. D) superior to the sella turcica

Answer:  D

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

10) During concussion (a type of traumatic brain injury) the brain will move within the cranial cavity. Damage is caused to the brain as it crashes into parts of the bony cavity walls. Ironically one of the bone markings that can cause serious damage to the brain is the ________. This is ironic because one of the functions of this bone marking is to ________.

  1. A) perpendicular plate; separate the left and right halves of the nasal cavity
  2. B) pterygoid processes; anchor important chewing muscles
  3. C) styloid process; attach to and support the hyoid bone
  4. D) crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place

Answer:  D

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7

Bloom’s Level:  6 Evaluation

 

11) Curvatures of the spine serve the body by ________.

  1. A) applying greater pressure to the intervertebral disks preventing them from slipping
  2. B) providing space for soft organs in the various body cavities
  3. C) giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock
  4. D) limiting the flexibility of the spine and preventing hyperextension

Answer:  C

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

12) When looking at the range of motion of the various sections of the vertebral column the ________ has the most flexibility

  1. A) lumbar spine
  2. B) thoracic spine
  3. C) cervical spine
  4. D) sacral spine

Answer:  C

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

13) The range of motion as well as the direction of motion for the various regions of the spine differs. For example the lumbar spine is capable of flexion and extension but little rotational movement. While the thoracic spine rotates with little flexion or extension. This is due to variation in ________.

  1. A) the orientation of the superior and inferior articular facets
  2. B) the composition of the intervertebral disks
  3. C) the arrangement of muscular attachment to the spinous processes
  4. D) the thickness of the intervertebral disc

Answer:  A

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

14) The anatomy of the thoracic cage provides ridged support and protection but at the same time is also flexible and mobile. Of the list below, which feature does not aid in the flexibility and movement of the thoracic cage?

  1. A) the jugular notch
  2. B) the costal spaces occupied by costal muscle
  3. C) the sternal angle
  4. D) the costal cartilages

Answer:  A

Section:  7.3

Learning Outcome:  7.7

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

15) The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint. This mobility comes at a cost because ________.

  1. A) these type of joints are harder to control and coordinate
  2. B) muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power
  3. C) the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate
  4. D) the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range of motion

Answer:  C

Section:  7.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

16) Of the list below select the one that gives the least explanation for the relatively high mobility of the arms.

  1. A) The relatively open glenoid cavity of the glenohumeral joint.
  2. B) The scapula does not articulate to the axial skeleton directly.
  3. C) The subscapular notch is a passage way for nerves.
  4. D) The clavicle articulates to the axial skeleton at only the sternal end.

Answer:  C

Section:  7.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

17) The proximal end of the ulna illustrates the relationship of form and function. The rounded trochlear notch articulates with the hourglass shape of the trochlea. This forms a joint that allows for ________.

  1. A) the curling of the fingers
  2. B) the hyper extension of the forearm
  3. C) the rotational motion of the forearm
  4. D) the hinge like motion of the forearm

Answer:  D

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

18) The proximal end of the radius illustrates the relationship of form and function. The cup-like surface of the radial head articulates with the rounded shape of the capitulum. This forms a joint that allows for ________.

  1. A) the rotational motion of the forearm
  2. B) the curling of the fingers
  3. C) the hinge like motion of the forearm
  4. D) the hyper extension of the forearm

Answer:  A

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2, HAPS7

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

19) The axial skeleton includes ________.

  1. A) the skull, the scapula and the vertebral column
  2. B) the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
  3. C) arms, legs, hands, and feet
  4. D) the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis

Answer:  B

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

20) Which vertebra does not have a body?

  1. A) atlas
  2. B) last lumbar
  3. C) last cervical
  4. D) axis

Answer:  A

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

21) The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________.

  1. A) coronal
  2. B) squamous
  3. C) lambdoid
  4. D) sagittal

Answer:  D

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

22) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.

  1. A) is composed of three bones joined together
  2. B) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
  3. C) is the only irregular bone found in the neck
  4. D) is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves

Answer:  B

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

23) Along with support, the anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column also acts to ________.

  1. A) protect the spinal cord
  2. B) hold the discs in place
  3. C) prevent hyperextension of the spine
  4. D) hold the spine erect

Answer:  C

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

24) What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs?

  1. A) to hold together the vertebra and support the body
  2. B) to remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column
  3. C) to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine
  4. D) to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine

Answer:  C

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

25) Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones?

  1. A) zygomatic bones
  2. B) vomer
  3. C) nasal conchae
  4. D) maxillae

Answer:  D

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

26) Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?

  1. A) kyphosis
  2. B) scoliosis
  3. C) swayback
  4. D) lordosis

Answer:  B

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

27) Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body?

  1. A) the cervical region
  2. B) the lumbar region
  3. C) the sacrum
  4. D) the sacral promontory

Answer:  B

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

28) Which bone acts as a moveable base for the tongue?

  1. A) zygomatic bone
  2. B) palatine
  3. C) hyoid bone
  4. D) mandible

Answer:  C

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

29) Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________.

  1. A) no transverse processes
  2. B) transverse foramina
  3. C) costal facets
  4. D) no intervertebral discs

Answer:  C

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

30) What is the major function of the axial skeleton?

  1. A) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
  2. B) provide a space for the major digestive organs
  3. C) provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement
  4. D) give the body resilience

Answer:  A

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

31) The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?

  1. A) the radius and the ulna
  2. B) the scapula and the clavicle
  3. C) the humerus and the radius
  4. D) the humerus and the clavicle

Answer:  A

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

32) The “true wrist” or carpus consists of ________.

  1. A) the phalanges
  2. B) the metacarpals
  3. C) a group of eight short bones united by ligaments
  4. D) the styloid processes of the radius and ulna

Answer:  C

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

33) Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal?

  1. A) lateral cuneiform
  2. B) calcaneus
  3. C) cuboid
  4. D) medial cuneiform

Answer:  D

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

34) Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek?

  1. A) sphenoid bone
  2. B) temporal bone
  3. C) palatine bone
  4. D) zygomatic bone

Answer:  D

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

35) The superior orbital fissure is formed in the sphenoid bone, whereas the inferior orbital fissure is formed between the sphenoid and ________.

  1. A) maxilla
  2. B) lacrimal
  3. C) palatine
  4. D) ethmoid

Answer:  A

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

36) Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy?

  1. A) scoliosis
  2. B) kyphosis
  3. C) hunchback
  4. D) lordosis

Answer:  D

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

37) How are thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12 different from the other vertebrae?

  1. A) There are two foramina on vertebrae 11 and 12.
  2. B) The transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs.
  3. C) The orientation of the articular processes is different from all the other thoracic vertebrae.
  4. D) The spinous processes are directed parallel with the centrum.

Answer:  B

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

38) The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone?

  1. A) ethmoid
  2. B) maxilla
  3. C) vomer
  4. D) sphenoid

Answer:  A

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

39) The pelvic girdle does not include the ________.

  1. A) femur
  2. B) ilium
  3. C) pubis
  4. D) ischium

Answer:  A

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

40) Which of the following bones is not weight bearing?

  1. A) femur
  2. B) fibula
  3. C) tibia
  4. D) talus

Answer:  B

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

41) Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus?

  1. A) calcaneus
  2. B) medial malleolus
  3. C) head
  4. D) lateral malleolus

Answer:  D

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

42) Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum?

  1. A) perpendicular plate
  2. B) orbital plate
  3. C) cribriform plate
  4. D) crista galli

Answer:  A

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

43) Which of the following is not a movement that can occur between vertebrae?

  1. A) supination
  2. B) rotation
  3. C) flexion and extension
  4. D) lateral flexion

Answer:  A

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

1.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) The heel bone is called the ________.

Answer:  calcaneus

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

2) The lateral condyle of the femur articulates with the lateral condyle of the ________.

Answer:  tibia

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

3) The medial condyle of the femur articulates with the medial condyle of the ________.

Answer:  tibia

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

4) The largest foramen in the body is the ________ foramen.

Answer:  obturator

Section:  7.6

Learning Outcome:  7.12

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

5) The smallest short bone in the hand is the ________.

Answer:  pisiform

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

6) The styloid process of the ________ points to the thumb.

Answer:  radius

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

7) Only the ________ vertebrae have transverse foramina.

Answer:  cervical

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

8) The ________ is the bone confined to the septum of the nose.

Answer:  vomer

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

9) Your “cheekbone” is mostly formed from the ________ bone.

Answer:  zygomatic

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

10) What structure is the “missing” body of the second cervical vertebrae?

Answer:  dens

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

11) What is the function of the lumbar curvature?

Answer:  It positions the weight of the trunk over the body’s center of gravity, thus providing optimal balance when standing.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

12) What is the purpose of the vertebral curvatures?

Answer:  Their purpose is to increase the resilience and flexibility of the spine, allowing it to function like a spring rather than a rigid rod.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

13) Why is the area just distal to the tubercles of the humerus called the surgical neck?

Answer:  This area is called the surgical neck because it is the most frequently fractured part of the humerus.

Section:  7.5

Learning Outcome:  7.11

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

14) Describe the composition of the intervertebral discs.

Answer:  Intervertebral discs are composed of an inner semifluid nucleus pulposus, which gives the discs elasticity and compressibility, and a covering of fibrocartilage, the annulus fibrosus, which limits expansion and holds successive vertebrae together.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

15) Describe the differences between the bones of the lower and upper limb and briefly state why these differences exist.

Answer:  The lower limbs carry the weight of the body and are subjected to exceptional forces. These bones are thicker and stronger. The upper limb bones are adapted for flexibility and mobility and are therefore smaller and lighter.

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

16) How are the pectoral and pelvic girdles structurally different? How is this difference reflected in their functions?

Answer:  The pectoral girdle moves freely across the thorax and allows the upper limb a high degree of mobility, while the pelvic girdle is secured to the axial skeleton to provide strength and support. This is why the glenoid cavity of the scapula is relatively shallow and the acetabulum of the pelvis is a deep socket.

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

17) How do the first two cervical vertebrae differ from other cervical vertebrae? What are their functions?

Answer:  The atlas or C1 vertebra has no body. It articulates with the skull with large curved articular surfaces to allow the skull to rock in a “yes” motion. The axis or C2 vertebra has a projection called the dens that allows the axis to pivot, giving the head the “no” motion. The vertebral foramen of the atlas is enlarged so that when the head is pivoted in the “no” motion, the spinal cord can move.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.5

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

18) Identify the arches of the foot and describe how they are maintained.

Answer:  There are three arches: the medial and lateral longitudinal arches, and the transverse arch. Together they form a half-cone that distributes the weight of the body. They are maintained by the shape of the foot bones, strong ligaments, and by the pull of some tendons.

Section:  7.7

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

19) Identify the four major cranial sutures in any order and the bones they connect.

Answer:  1.      Coronal – parietal and frontal

  1. Sagittal – between the parietal bones
  2. Squamous – parietal and temporal
  3. Lambdoidal – parietal and occipital

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

20) If the hyoid bone is not attached to another bone why is it so important?

Answer:  The hyoid acts as an attachment point for muscles in the neck region to connect the muscles in the lower jaw region. It allows for the muscles to make a right angle at the junction of the lower jaw and throat. The hyoid serves as a movable base for the tongue and its horns are attachment points for neck muscles that raise and lower the larynx during speech and swallowing.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

21) What is the purpose of the articular processes of the vertebrae?

Answer:  These processes (superior and inferior) allow the vertebral column to flex forward some, but lock the vertebrae if the column is flexed back and limit rotation to avoid injury to the spinal cord and its nerve roots. In a four-legged animal, such as a horse, these processes allow the back to remain in place while you ride it.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

 

1.5   Clinical Questions

 

1) A skeleton was found in a wooded area. It was brought to a forensic medicine laboratory for identification. The first thing the coroner did was determine the age, sex, and possible size of the person. What was examined in order to get this information?

Answer:  By examining the shape of the pelvic inlet, the depth of the iliac fossa, the characteristics of the ilium, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis, one could determine the sex. Also significant for determining the sex of the skeleton are the position of the acetabulum, the shape of the obturator foramen, and the general design of the ischium. To determine the age of the individual, bone density, the status of growth plates, and markings are important. The markings where muscles were attached will reveal information about the mass and the general shape of the person.

Section:  7.6

Learning Outcome:  7.13

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

2) Jason is a 14-year-old who recently had his nose pierced through the nasal septum. He tells his mother that the area is very tender and warm to the touch. The area is also red. The mother calls the pediatrician’s office and the nurse recommends that the mother bring Jason in for evaluation. The nurse explains to the mother that a local infection can spread and cause serious harm. Where do you think the infection could spread and why?

Answer:  Infection of nasal piercings can spread to the brain and cause serious complications. Infections in the brain may occur because of the direct extension from ear, tooth, mastoid, or sinus infections.

Section:  7.1

Learning Outcome:  7.1

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

3) You are a school nurse in a middle school. You are responsible for screening the children for scoliosis. What is involved in this screening?

Answer:  Scoliosis literally means “twisted disease” and is an abnormal rotational curvature causing lateral deviation that occurs most often in the thoracic region. It is quite common during late childhood. The nurse would need to observe the child standing erect, disrobed from the waist up. An older girl may leave her bra on. The child is observed from behind and the nurse would note any asymmetry of the shoulders and hips. With the child bending forward so that the back is parallel to the floor, the nurse may observe from behind, noting tilting of the rib cage.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

4) When administering chest compression to someone whose heart has stopped beating, the heel of the hand should be placed on the sternum on a line drawn between the nipples. Why would it be a problem if the hand was placed at a lower part of the sternum?

Answer:  The compressions could break the xiphoid process of the sternum and drive it into the heart, diaphragm, or liver resulting in possibly deadly complications.

Section:  7.3

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

5) Sam is an accountant who is especially busy during tax season. By the end of each day he complains of shoulder stiffness and tightness as well as some upper back pain. What might be Sam’s problem and how could he prevent the discomfort?

Answer:  Sam is probably sitting hunched over his desk rather than sitting up properly. This can result in kyphosis and resulting upper back pain and stiffness. Sam needs to practice good posture and/or invest in an ergonomic chair to help him maintain the proper thoracic vertebral curve.

Section:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

Human Anatomy & Physiology, 10e, (Marieb)

Chapter 9   Muscles and Muscle Tissue

 

9.1   Matching Questions

 

Figure 9.1

 

Using Figure 9.1, match the following:

  1. A) A
  2. B) E
  3. C) D
  4. D) C
  5. E) B

 

1) Connective tissue sheath surrounding individual muscle fibers.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

2) Bundle of muscle cells surrounded by a perimysium.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

3) Connective tissue covering the exterior of a muscle organ.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

4) Connective tissue surrounding muscle fiber bundles.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

5) Individual muscle fiber.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 1) E 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) D

 

 

Figure 9.2

 

Using Figure 9.2, match the following:

  1. A) E
  2. B) A
  3. C) D
  4. D) C
  5. E) B

 

6) I band.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

7) H zone.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

8) A band.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

 

9) Z disc.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

10) M line.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 6) D 7) E 8) C 9) B 10) A

 

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
  2. B) Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers
  3. C) Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers

 

11) Depends on oxygen delivery and aerobic mechanisms.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

12) Have very fast-acting myosin ATPases and depend upon anaerobic metabolism during contraction.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

13) Red fibers, the smallest of the fiber types.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

14) Contain abundant amounts of glycogen.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

15) Abundant in muscles used to maintain posture.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

16) A relatively high percentage are found in successful marathon runners.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) A 16) A

 

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Tetanus
  2. B) Maximal stimulus
  3. C) Wave summation
  4. D) Muscle tone
  5. E) Multiple motor unit summation

 

17) The stimulus above which no stronger contraction can be elicited, because all motor units are firing in the muscle.

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10a

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

18) Determined by alternating motor units of a muscle organ even when the muscle is at rest.

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10a

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

19) Continued sustained smooth contraction due to rapid stimulation.

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10a

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

20) The situation in which contractions become stronger due to stimulation before complete relaxation occurs.

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10a

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

21) How a smooth increase in muscle force is produced.

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10a

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) E

 

Match the following:

  1. A) A band
  2. B) Z discs
  3. C) I band
  4. D) Myosin

 

22) A sarcomere is the distance between two ________.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

23) The ________ contains only the actin filaments.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

24) The thicker filaments are the ________ filaments.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

25) Both actin and myosin are found in the ________.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

26) The myosin filaments are located in the ________.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) A

 

 

Match the following:

  1. A) Sodium ions
  2. B) Acetylcholinesterase
  3. C) Calcium ions
  4. D) Acetylcholine
  5. E) Creatine phosphate

 

27) The final chemical messenger and “trigger” for muscle contraction. It binds to troponin.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

28) A neurotransmitter released at motor end plates by the axon terminals.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

29) It diffuses across the cell membrane resulting in depolarization.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

30) Activates synaptic vesicles in axon terminals to fuse with plasma membrane of axon terminal.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

31) Used to convert ADP to ATP by transfer of a high-energy phosphate group. A reserve high-energy compound.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

32) Breaks down ACh into its building blocks, rendering it ineffective.

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) E 32) B

 

Match the sport to the energy system primarily used to perform the activity:

  1. A) Direct phosphorylation
  2. B) Anaerobic pathway
  3. C) Aerobic pathway

 

33) Marathons.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

34) 25 meter swim.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

35) Weight lifting.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

Answers: 33) C 34) B 35) A

 

 

9.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.9

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

2) The thin filaments (actin) contain a polypeptide subunit G actin that bears active sites for myosin attachment.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

3) The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.14

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

4) Eccentric contractions are more forceful than concentric contractions.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

5) A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.9

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

 

6) Peristalsis is characteristic of smooth muscle.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.18

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

7) A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric contraction.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

8) Muscle cells store more creatine phosphate than ATP resulting in the muscle having a reserve source of energy.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.6

Learning Outcome:  9.12

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

9) During isometric contraction, the energy used appears as movement.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

10) One of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

 

11) An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

12) Muscle contraction will always promote movement of body parts regardless of how they are attached.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

13) Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.17

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

14) Muscle tone is the small amount of tautness or tension in the muscle due to weak, involuntary contractions of its motor units.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10a

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

15) Cells of unitary smooth muscle are found in the longitudinal and circular muscle layers of the intestine.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.17

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

 

16) A resting potential is caused by a difference in the concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

17) The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

18) When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands do not diminish in length.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

19) Cardiac muscle has a limited regenerative capacity.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

20) Smooth muscles relax when intracellular Ca2+ levels drop but may not cease contractions.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.18

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

 

1.3   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?

  1. A) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.
  2. B) Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads.
  3. C) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules.
  4. D) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

2) Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?

  1. A) no muscle can regenerate
  2. B) smooth
  3. C) skeletal
  4. D) cardiac

Answer:  B

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

3) Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases?

  1. A) large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons
  2. B) motor units with the longest muscle fibers
  3. C) many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units
  4. D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons

Answer:  D

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

4) Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction?

  1. A) number of muscle fibers stimulated
  2. B) muscle length
  3. C) size of the muscle fibers stimulated
  4. D) load on the fiber

Answer:  D

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.14

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

5) Myoglobin ________.

  1. A) breaks down glycogen
  2. B) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP
  3. C) produces the end plate potential
  4. D) stores oxygen in muscle cells

Answer:  D

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

6) What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?

  1. A) intermediate filament network
  2. B) sarcoplasmic reticulum
  3. C) mitochondria
  4. D) myofibrillar network

Answer:  B

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

7) What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent?

  1. A) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used
  2. B) the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used
  3. C) the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion
  4. D) amount of oxygen needed for aerobic activity to accomplish the same amount of work

Answer:  A

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.13

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

8) Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors.

  1. A) relaxation
  2. B) refractory
  3. C) latent
  4. D) contraction

Answer:  C

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.9

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

9) Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.

  1. A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin
  2. B) forming a chemical compound with actin
  3. C) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
  4. D) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments

Answer:  C

Section:  9.6

Learning Outcome:  9.13

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

10) What is the primary function of wave summation?

  1. A) increase muscle tension
  2. B) prevent muscle relaxation
  3. C) prevent muscle fatigue
  4. D) produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction

Answer:  D

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.9

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

11) Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?

  1. A) epimysium
  2. B) endomysium
  3. C) fascicle
  4. D) perimysium

Answer:  B

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

12) Rigor mortis occurs because ________.

  1. A) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
  2. B) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions
  3. C) the cells are dead
  4. D) sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions

Answer:  A

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

13) The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.

  1. A) hemoglobin
  2. B) immunoglobin
  3. C) ATP
  4. D) myoglobin

Answer:  D

Section:  9.6

Learning Outcome:  9.12

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

14) The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.

  1. A) microtubules
  2. B) myofibrils
  3. C) mitochondria
  4. D) T tubules

Answer:  B

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

15) What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?

  1. A) a myofibril
  2. B) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  3. C) a sarcomere
  4. D) a myofilament

Answer:  C

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

16) What is the functional role of the T tubules?

  1. A) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction
  2. B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
  3. C) stabilize the G and F actin
  4. D) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle

Answer:  B

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

17) When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?

  1. A) latent period
  2. B) refractory period
  3. C) fatigue period
  4. D) relaxation period

Answer:  B

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10a

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

18) In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.

  1. A) never converts pyruvate to lactate
  2. B) changes in length and moves the “load”
  3. C) does not change in length but increases tension
  4. D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP

Answer:  B

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

19) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?

  1. A) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
  2. B) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
  3. C) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke
  4. D) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke

Answer:  B

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

20) The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.

  1. A) ATP energizes the sliding process
  2. B) the site of calcium regulation differs
  3. C) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium
  4. D) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism

Answer:  B

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.18

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

21) Which of the following describes the cells of unitary smooth muscle?

  1. A) They exhibit spontaneous action potentials.
  2. B) They are used for vision and hair raising.
  3. C) They depend upon recruitment using the autonomic nervous system.
  4. D) They consist of muscle fibers that are structurally independent of each other.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.17

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

22) Which of the following is true about smooth muscle?

  1. A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
  2. B) Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination.
  3. C) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements.
  4. D) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.17

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

23) Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________.

  1. A) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
  2. B) there are no sarcomeres
  3. C) it appears to lack troponin
  4. D) there are noncontractile intermediate filaments that attach to dense bodies within the cell

Answer:  A

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.17

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

24) Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.

  1. A) excitability
  2. B) extensibility
  3. C) contractility
  4. D) secretion

Answer:  D

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

25) Which of the following statements is true?

  1. A) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei.
  2. B) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
  3. C) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules.
  4. D) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

26) An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.

  1. A) glycolysis
  2. B) the electron transport chain
  3. C) the citric acid cycle
  4. D) hydrolysis

Answer:  A

Section:  9.6

Learning Outcome:  9.12

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

27) Muscle tone is ________.

  1. A) the condition of athletes after intensive training
  2. B) a state of sustained partial contraction
  3. C) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements
  4. D) the feeling of well-being following exercise

Answer:  B

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10a

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

28) The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.

  1. A) actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other
  2. B) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments
  3. C) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
  4. D) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past

Answer:  C

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  2 Comprehension

 

29) After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?

  1. A) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved
  2. B) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
  3. C) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae
  4. D) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules

Answer:  B

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

30) Which of the following statements is most accurate?

  1. A) T tubules may be sliding during isotonic contraction.
  2. B) Myofilaments slide during isometric contractions.
  3. C) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.
  4. D) The I band lengthens during isotonic contraction.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.11

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

31) What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?

  1. A) it is composed of multiple cells working together
  2. B) the ability to respond to nervous stimulation
  3. C) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy to move the body
  4. D) its cells’ in ability to reproduce by mitosis

Answer:  C

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

32) Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sarcomeres, and few gap junctions?

  1. A) skeletal muscle
  2. B) multiunit smooth muscle
  3. C) cardiac muscle
  4. D) visceral smooth muscle

Answer:  B

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.17

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

33) Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.

  1. A) maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel
  2. B) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is “trying” to contract
  3. C) no muscle tension could be generated
  4. D) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin

Answer:  C

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

34) What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?

  1. A) motor end plate
  2. B) part adjacent to another muscle cell
  3. C) any part of the sarcolemma
  4. D) end of the muscle fiber

Answer:  A

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

35) Although all the anatomical parts of muscle work together to give it it’s characteristics, which of the following proteins listed below would be most associated with the characteristics of extensibility?

  1. A) elastic (titin) filaments
  2. B) potassium (K+) leak channels
  3. C) acetylcholine receptors in the motor end plate
  4. D) thick (myosin) filaments

Answer:  A

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

36) Although all the anatomical parts of muscle work together to give it it’s characteristics, which of the following proteins listed below would be most associated with the characteristics of excitability?

  1. A) acetylcholine receptors in the motor end plate
  2. B) the Na+-K+ pump
  3. C) actin of thin filaments
  4. D) elastic (titin) filaments

Answer:  A

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

37) Although all the anatomical parts of muscle work together to give it it’s characteristics, which of the following proteins listed below would be most associated with the characteristics of contractility?

  1. A) voltage gated sodium channels
  2. B) thick (myosin) filaments
  3. C) elastic (titin) filaments
  4. D) potassium (K+) leak channels

Answer:  B

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.2

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

38) Oxygen starved tissues can release chemical signals into the blood that can change the diameter of nearby blood vessels delivering oxygen and nutrients to the tissues. In doing so the blood vessels will respond through vasodilation (widening of the vessel). Which muscle type is responsible for this vasodilation?

  1. A) skeletal muscle
  2. B) striated muscle
  3. C) smooth muscle
  4. D) cardiac muscle

Answer:  C

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

39) Of the following items listed below, which is the best description for why skeletal muscle stores glycogen.

  1. A) Glycogen provides a smooth surface for filaments to slide on.
  2. B) Glycogen is part of muscles rigid supporting framework.
  3. C) Skeletal muscle is a heavy consumer of energy.
  4. D) The glycogen is an insulating layer that helps regulate body temperature.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.2

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

40) During development embryonic cells will fuse to form muscle fibers. This will result in ________.

  1. A) the coordination of nerve signals to muscle fibers
  2. B) the striations that appear in skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues
  3. C) multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend as long as 30 centimeters
  4. D) interlocking of cells that can prevent the filaments from sliding

Answer:  C

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

41) Approximately 80% of a muscle fiber’s volume are the myofibrils. This characteristic reflects muscles ability to ________.

  1. A) store oxygen molecules that can be used in aerobic respiration
  2. B) produce relatively high amounts of ATP
  3. C) produce movement through contractile force
  4. D) generate and propagate action potential

Answer:  C

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

42) A myosin molecule in the thick filaments can be considered a protein having a quaternary structural level. Which of the following best describes this structural level?

  1. A) Myosin molecules consist of two heavy and to light polypeptide chains.
  2. B) Myosin has an ATP binding site, actin binding site and flexible hinge region.
  3. C) Myosin is a primary component within a myofibril.
  4. D) Myosin is involved in the power stroke of muscle contraction.

Answer:  A

Section:  2.10, 9.3

Learning Outcome:  2.19, 9.4

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

43) Curare is a poisonous plant extract. Curare molecules have a chemical structure like the neurotransmitter ACh. Curare can bind to the ACh receptor site on the chemically gated ion channels in the motor end plate. Even though curare will bind to the receptor site it will not open the ion channel and no ions will pass through. What do you think the symptoms of curare poisoning would look like?

  1. A) Curare will only affect muscles with ACh receptors, paralyzing them.
  2. B) Smooth muscles will become stimulated causing quick movement of nutrients through the digestive system.
  3. C) Curare will only affect cardiac muscle, causing fibrillations of the heart.
  4. D) Muscles will respond too quickly and cause a severe tremor.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.6

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  6 Evaluation

 

44) Myasthenia gravis is a disease that is believed to be caused by autoimmune disorder, resulting in the loss of ACh receptors at the motor end plate of muscle fibers. Which of the following is likely to be a symptom of myasthenia gravis?

  1. A) dehydration with headache
  2. B) weakness of muscle
  3. C) seizures and uncontrollable muscle movement
  4. D) coma and loss of voluntary muscle movement

Answer:  B

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.6

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  6 Evaluation

 

45) Which of the following statements best illustrates the fact that skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle?

  1. A) Skeletal muscle is wrapped in several layers of connective tissue. The deepest layer being the endomysium.
  2. B) Skeletal muscle appears striated due to the structure of the sarcomeres.
  3. C) Skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons.
  4. D) The shivering reflex aids in maintaining body temperature.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.1, 9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.4, 9.6

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  6 Evaluation

 

46) If a muscle fiber were to suddenly and permanently stop producing ATP the fiber would no longer be able to actively transport calcium out of the cytoplasm (sarcoplasm) and the intracellular calcium concentration would rise. Which of the following would you expect to happen?

  1. A) The fiber would twitch uncontrollably due to excessive calcium bound to troponin.
  2. B) Myosin would be able to bind to the exposed binding sites on thin filaments but it would not be able to detach.
  3. C) Calcium would be transported to the sarcoplasmic reticulum therefore contractions would cease.
  4. D) No change would occur in a muscle that was relaxed to begin with.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.1, 9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  6 Evaluation

 

47) When a sarcomere contracts and thin filaments move over thick filaments you would expect to see ________.

  1. A) the H zone to appear wider
  2. B) the I bands to appear smaller
  3. C) the I bands to appear wider
  4. D) the A band to appear darker

Answer:  B

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

48) Addition of more myoglobin to a muscle fiber would have the largest effect on ________.

  1. A) fast oxidative and slow oxidative fibers
  2. B) fast glycolytic and fast oxidative fibers
  3. C) fast glycolytic fibers only
  4. D) fast oxidative fibers only

Answer:  A

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

49) Exhaustion of glycogen storage within a muscle fiber would have the biggest effect on ________.

  1. A) both slow and fast oxidative fibers
  2. B) slow oxidative fibers
  3. C) fast oxidative fibers
  4. D) fast glycolytic fibers

Answer:  D

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

50) Reduction in blood flow to a muscle fiber would have the greatest effect on ________.

  1. A) slow oxidative fibers
  2. B) fast oxidative fibers
  3. C) both slow and fast oxidative
  4. D) fast glycolytic

Answer:  A

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

51) A potential benefit of recruiting slow oxidative fibers for contraction before recruiting fast oxidative and fast glycolytic fibers might be ________.

  1. A) because they are slower to respond, slow oxidative fibers must be stimulated first in order to contract simultaneously with the faster fibers
  2. B) there is little to no benefit from recruiting slow oxidative fibers first and therefore it is in fact fast glycolytic fibers that will be recruited first
  3. C) recruiting slow oxidative fibers early helps to tire them out first so that they won’t interfere with the more powerful contractions of fast glycolytic fibers
  4. D) this will help to allow for fine control with delicate contractile force with a small stimulus

Answer:  D

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  6 Evaluation

 

52) Addition of more mitochondria to a muscle fiber will have the least effect on ________.

  1. A) slow oxidative fibers
  2. B) fast glycolytic fibers
  3. C) fast oxidative fibers
  4. D) both slow and fast oxidative fibers

Answer:  B

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  6 Evaluation

 

53) If given the exact same amount of ATP, which of the three fiber types would be able to contract for the longest amount of time?

  1. A) slow oxidative fibers
  2. B) fast glycolytic fibers
  3. C) both fast glycolytic and fast oxidative fibers
  4. D) fast oxidative fibers

Answer:  A

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

54) The 100 meter dash is a quick and short run requiring explosive speed. On completion of the dash the runners will continue to breathe hard for several seconds to minutes even though they are no longer running. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so?

  1. A) Since the exercise was mostly aerobic exercise, the runners’ bodies have not yet realized the run is over.
  2. B) The runners’ fast oxidative muscles are so slow to utilize oxygen it only begins aerobic respiration by the time the run has finished.
  3. C) The runners’ use of stored oxygen, glucose and creatine phosphate is being replenished and this requires a prolonged increase of oxygen intake.
  4. D) Slow oxidative fibers are recruited last and have only started to work at completion of the run.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.6

Learning Outcome:  9.13

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS2, HAPS4

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

1.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) Only ________ muscle cells are multinucleated.

Answer:  skeletal

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

2) The end of the muscle that is attached to the part of the body in motion when a muscle contracts is called the ________.

Answer:  insertion

Section:  9.2

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

3) The enzyme ________ is present in the synaptic cleft. Its activity stops the neutotransmitters stimulation.

Answer:  acetylcholinesterase

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.6

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

4) Which cells help repair injured skeletal muscle fibers and allows regeneration of dead skeletal muscle?

Answer:  satellite cells

Section:  9.8

Learning Outcome:  9.16

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

5) Only ________ muscle cells commonly branch.

Answer:  cardiac

Section:  9.1

Learning Outcome:  9.1

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

6) A smooth, sustained contraction from rapid stimulation is called ________.

Answer:  tetanus

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10a

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

7) Define muscle fatigue.

Answer:  It is an inability of the muscle to contract despite continued stimulation.

Section:  9.6

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

8) Describe two ways in which the lack of ATP production results in rigor mortis.

Answer:  Following the death of an individual, ATP is rapidly consumed and cannot be replaced. Because cross bridge detachment and calcium active transport is ATP driven, calcium leakage from the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes attachment of cross bridges, and lack of ATP prevents detachments.

Section:  9.3

Learning Outcome:  9.5

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

9) Describe the anatomical parts of the muscle triad and how the function of these organelles work together to initiate contraction.

Answer:  The parts of the muscle triad are two adjacent SR terminal cisterns plus one intervening T tubule. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a reservoir for calcium ions in the cell’s normal resting state. The T tubule is a fold in the cell membrane between the sarcoplasmic reticuli. When an impulse is activated by a motor neuron, the voltage-regulated change causes SR foot proteins to open Ca2+ channels. The calcium ions are flushed out where they interact with the troponin complex to initiate a contraction. Once the axon stops firing, the membrane polarity is quickly restored and the calcium ions are pulled off the troponin and attracted back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Section:  9.4

Learning Outcome:  9.8

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

10) Briefly explain the sources of energy for a one-minute sustained muscle contraction.

Answer:

  1. The first 4-6 seconds of energy come from stored ATP in the muscle cell.
  2. 6-15 seconds of energy come from the transfer of creatine phosphate and ADP (which come from the first few seconds of burn) to form additional ATP.
  3. 15-60 seconds of energy come from glycolysis, which by now has begun full production of ATP from glucose.

Section:  9.6

Learning Outcome:  9.12

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

11) Caveolae are an anatomical feature of smooth muscle. Describe this anatomical feature and specifically how it improves smooth muscles’ response to nervous stimulation

Answer:  Caveolae are pouch like inholdings on the sarcolemma that contain many voltage gated calcium ion channels. These inholdings greatly increase the surface area that will respond to nervous stimulation.

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.18

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

12) How is it that norepinephrine (NE) can inhibit smooth muscle action in airways, yet stimulate contractions in smooth muscles everywhere else in the body?

Answer:  Norepinephrine’s effects depend upon the action of the receptor to which it binds. There is a different type of NE receptor on bronchiolar muscle than the NE receptor in other places.

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.18

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  3 Application

 

13) Describe how the unique contractile mechanism of smooth muscle allows it to contract and remain in a contracted state for long periods of time with relatively little energy expenditure.

Answer:  Smooth muscle possesses a latch state in which it can maintain its new length while relaxed and therefore hold a contracted state using little energy.

Section:  9.9

Learning Outcome:  9.18

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

14) Describe the difference between muscle tension, muscle contraction and a muscle twitch.

Answer:  A muscle twitch is the response of a motor unit to a single action potential from a motor neuron. A twitch consists of three phases, latent period, contraction and relaxation. Contraction is simply the activation of the myosin cross bridge cycle and tension is the force that is excreted by this contractions.

Section:  9.5

Learning Outcome:  9.9

Global LO:  G2, G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1, HAPS2

Bloom’s Level:  4 Analysis

 

 

1.5   Clinical Questions

 

1) Gary was injured in an automobile accident that severed the motor neurons innervating his quadriceps. Even though he has had extensive physical therapy, he is still suffering muscle atrophy. Why is the therapy not working?

Answer:  In denervation atrophy, fibrous connective tissue replaces the muscle tissue that was lost. When atrophy is complete, fibrous tissue cannot be reversed to muscle tissue.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

2) Aaron arrived at the hospital with the following symptoms: drooping eyelids; fatigue and weakness of his muscles; and difficulty talking, breathing, and swallowing. What was his diagnosis?

Answer:  Aaron probably has myasthenia gravis (an autoimmune disease), which involves a shortage of ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

3) Lynn has been waking up each night with intense pain in her calves. She does not feel that it is serious enough to seek medical attention but would like to know what is causing the pain. What would you tell her concerning this problem? She has been playing tennis all summer for several hours each day. Could this have anything to do with the night pain?

Answer:  This is due to sustained spasm, or tetanic contraction, of the gastrocnemius muscle. The causes could be low blood sugar, electrolyte depletion (particularly sodium and calcium), dehydration, or irritability of the spinal cord neurons. The fact that Lynn has been playing tennis for several hours each day may have caused an electrolyte depletion. She should increase her intake of sodium and calcium.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

4) When a geriatric patient is admitted to the postsurgical unit, an important nursing measure is to prevent the loss of muscle mass. What is the term used for loss of muscle mass and how can the patient prevent it?

Answer:  Disuse atrophy is degeneration and loss of muscle mass. The size, shape, tone, and strength of muscles (including the heart) are maintained with mild exercise and increased with strenuous exercise. Promoting exercise to maintain a patient’s muscle tone, joint mobility, and cardiovascular function is an important nursing function.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

5) The nurse encourages the patient to do his own activities of daily living such as bathing, eating, dressing, and toileting activities. How do these activities promote physical conditioning?

Answer:  These activities are isotonic exercises in which muscle tension is constant and then shortens to produce muscle contraction and movement. Because the muscles contract, the shape, size, and strength of the muscles are maintained as well as joint mobility.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge

 

6) A patient is admitted for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT). The physician orders the neuromuscular blocking agent succinylcholine to reduce trauma by relaxing skeletal muscles. Explain the process of muscle contraction and how a neuromuscular blocking agent such as succinylcholine would interfere with muscle contraction.

Answer:  Muscle contraction begins with a stimulus to the nerve. When the impulse reaches the neuromuscular junction, depolarization occurs, resulting in an influx of calcium ions from the extracellular fluid into the terminals, which then release a neurotransmitter, acetylcholine (ACh), into the cleft. The ACh combines with receptor sites on the postjunctional muscle cell membrane, depolarizing it and facilitating the entry of sodium. Neuromuscular blocking agents act at the motor end plate by competing with the ACh for the receptor sites, or by blocking depolarization.

Section:  9.7

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global LO:  G7

HAPS LO:  HAPS1

Bloom’s Level:  1 Knowledge