Maders Understanding Human Anatomy and Physiology 8th Edition by Susannah Longenbaker – Test Bank

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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

Maders Understanding Human Anatomy and Physiology 8th Edition by Susannah Longenbaker – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

Chapter 01 Organization of the Body

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Which term refers to the study of how an organ functions?
    A.  Anatomy
    B.  Physiology
    C.  Ecology
    D.  Homeostasis

 

  1. Observing the parts of the brain would be part of the study of
    A.  homeostasis.
    B.  physiology.
    C.  anthropology.
    D.  anatomy.

 

  1. Distinguish between anatomy and physiology, and then explain how they are related.

 

 

 

 

  1. A group of similar cells performing a specialized function is referred to as a(n)
    A.  tissue.
    B.  organ.
    C.  molecule.
    D.  system.

 

  1. An organism consists of
    A.  molecules.
    B.  cells.
    C.  organs.
    D.  molecules, cells, and organs.

 

  1. Cells are to tissues as tissues are to
    A.  systems.
    B.  molecules.
    C.  organs.
    D.  organelles.

 

  1. Arrange the following terms from the smallest to the largest: 1) cell, 2) organelle, 3) atom, 4) organ, 5) tissue.
    A.  3,2,1,5,4
    B.  1,2,3,4,5
    C.  5,4,3,2,1
    D.  3,1,5,4,2

 

  1. List the levels of organization of the human body in order from least complex to most complex and provide a brief description of each level.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT considered anatomical position?
    A.  Standing erect
    B.  Palms facing backward
    C.  Face forward
    D.  Toes pointing forward

 

  1. Which of the following pairs are opposing terms?
    A.  Superior/posterior
    B.  Superior/inferior
    C.  Anterior/inferior
    D.  Superior/anterior

 

  1. Which term refers to the back?
    A.  Inferior
    B.  Lateral
    C.  Posterior
    D.  Peripheral

 

  1. The heart is _____ to the lungs.
    A.  dorsal
    B.  superior
    C.  lateral
    D.  medial

 

  1. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
    A.  Ventral – toward the front
    B.  Ipsilateral – on opposite sides
    C.  Deep – toward the surface
    D.  Proximal – further from the point of attachment

 

  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT in describing the nose?
    A.  It is superior to the mouth.
    B.  It is medial to the eyes.
    C.  It is on the dorsal aspect of the face.
    D.  It is inferior to the forehead.

 

  1. The hand is ___________ to the elbow.
    A.  superior
    B.  anterior
    C.  proximal
    D.  distal

 

  1. The right hand and left foot are ______________ to each other.
    A.  ipsilateral
    B.  posterior
    C.  contralateral
    D.  superficial

 

  1. The spinal cord is __________ to the esophagus.
    A.  anterior
    B.  posterior
    C.  ventral
    D.  inferior

 

  1. Appendicular refers to the
    A.  skull.
    B.  thorax.
    C.  legs and arms.
    D.  skull and thorax.

 

  1. The head is which region?
    A.  Cephalic
    B.  Lumbar
    C.  Brachial
    D.  Pectoral

 

  1. The arm is which region?
    A.  Cephalic
    B.  Lumbar
    C.  Brachial
    D.  Pectoral

 

  1. The lower back is which region?
    A.  Cephalic
    B.  Lumbar
    C.  Brachial
    D.  Pectoral

 

  1. The foot is which region?
    A.  Pedal
    B.  Lumbar
    C.  Brachial
    D.  Pectoral

 

  1. The chest is which region?
    A.  Cephalic
    B.  Lumbar
    C.  Brachial
    D.  Pectoral

 

  1. The cheek is which region?
    A.  Occipital
    B.  Buccal
    C.  Oral
    D.  Mental

 

  1. The thigh is which region?
    A.  Femoral
    B.  Crural
    C.  Plantar
    D.  Palmar

 

  1. The front of the elbow is which region?
    A.  Cubital
    B.  Antecubital
    C.  Brachial
    D.  Antebrachial

 

  1. The armpit is which region?
    A.  Acromial
    B.  Pectoral
    C.  Mammary
    D.  Axillary

 

  1. Which of the following pairs of body regions is INCORRECT?
    A.  Carpal – wrist
    B.  Popliteal – back of knee
    C.  Gluteal – buttocks
    D.  Orbital – ear

 

  1. If a person has a rash in the cervical region, where is it located?
    A.  Neck
    B.  Lower back
    C.  Arm
    D.  Chest

 

  1. The foot is proximal to the knee.
    True    False

 

  1. The gallbladder and spleen are contralateral to each other.
    True    False

 

  1. If a person has a sore in the oral cavity, where is it located?
    A.  Head
    B.  Lower back
    C.  Mouth
    D.  Head

 

  1. Which type of cut or section will give right and left portions?
    A.  Sagittal
    B.  Transverse
    C.  Frontal
    D.  Coronal

 

  1. Which type of cut will give front and back portions?
    A.  Median
    B.  Transverse
    C.  Sagittal
    D.  Frontal or coronal

 

  1. If the heart is cut to give the atria and the ventricles, it was cut on a
    A.  transverse plane.
    B.  midsagittal plane.
    C.  frontal plane.
    D.  longitudinal section.

 

  1. Viscera refers to
    A.  internal organs.
    B.  tissues.
    C.  cells.
    D.  atoms.

 

  1. Which two cavities does the diaphragm separate?
    A.  Abdominal and pelvic
    B.  Dorsal and ventral
    C.  Thoracic and abdominal
    D.  Cranial and spinal

 

  1. The thoracic cavity is part of which larger cavity?
    A.  Ventral cavity
    B.  Dorsal cavity
    C.  Abdominopelvic cavity

 

  1. If a person was diagnosed as having a tumor in the dorsal cavity, where might you expect to find it?
    A.  Abdominal or pelvic cavities
    B.  Superior or inferior cavities
    C.  Thoracic or abdominal cavities
    D.  Cranial or spinal cavities

 

  1. The mediastinum is part of the
    A.  pleural and ventral cavities.
    B.  thoracic and dorsal cavities.
    C.  thoracic and ventral cavities.
    D.  abdominopelvic and ventral cavities.

 

  1. In which cavity would you find the brain?
    A.  Ventral cavity
    B.  Dorsal cavity
    C.  Abdominopelvic cavity
    D.  Oral cavity

 

  1. In which cavity would you find the stomach?
    A.  Pleural cavity
    B.  Dorsal cavity
    C.  Abdominopelvic cavity
    D.  Mediastinum

 

  1. The lungs would be found in which cavity?
    A.  Spinal cavity
    B.  Abdominal cavity
    C.  Mediastinum
    D.  Pleural cavity

 

  1. The liver would be found in which cavity?
    A.  Dorsal cavity
    B.  Abdominal cavity
    C.  Pericardial cavity
    D.  Pleural cavity

 

  1. Most of the stomach would be found in the _______ quadrant of the abdominal cavity.
    A.  upper left
    B.  upper right
    C.  lower left
    D.  lower right

 

  1. Billy had surgery to remove his appendix. In which abdominal quadrant would the incision be made?
    A.  Upper left
    B.  Upper right
    C.  Lower left
    D.  Lower right

 

  1. Most of the liver is found in which abdominopelvic region?
    A.  Left iliac
    B.  Right lumbar
    C.  Umbilical
    D.  Right hypochondriac

 

  1. The majority of the small intestine is found in which abdominopelvic region?
    A.  Epigastric
    B.  Right hypochondriac
    C.  Umbilical
    D.  Left iliac

 

  1. The urinary bladder is found in which abdominopelvic region?
    A.  Hypogastric
    B.  Left lumbar
    C.  Right iliac
    D.  Umbilical

 

  1. Which refers to a membrane attached to the surface of a lung?
    A.  Visceral pleura
    B.  Parietal pleura
    C.  Visceral peritoneum
    D.  Parietal peritoneum

 

  1. Which of the following refers to the membrane lining the abdominal cavity wall?
    A.  Parietal pericardium
    B.  Visceral peritoneum
    C.  Parietal peritoneum
    D.  Visceral pleura

 

  1. The inflammation of the membranes of the posterior (dorsal) cavity is called
    A.  serositis.
    B.  pleurisy.
    C.  meningitis.
    D.  pericarditis.

 

  1. Sally is rushed to the hospital with acute appendicitis. Which serous membrane is in danger of infection?
    A.  Peritoneum
    B.  Pleura
    C.  Meninges
    D.  Pericardium

 

  1. The function of serous fluid is to reduce friction between tissues.
    True    False

 

  1. The posterior (dorsal) body cavity is lined with the synovial membrane.
    True    False

 

  1. Cerebrospinal fluid is associated with
    A.  the meninges.
    B.  serosae of the thoracic cavity.
    C.  synovial joints.
    D.  visceral peritoneum.

 

  1. Skin is part of
    A.  integration and coordination.
    B.  maintenance of the body.
    C.  transportation.
    D.  support, movement, and protection.

 

  1. Which system are the blood vessels part of?
    A.  Endocrine
    B.  Cardiovascular
    C.  Reproductive
    D.  Nervous

 

  1. Which system are the hormones part of?
    A.  Endocrine
    B.  Cardiovascular
    C.  Reproductive
    D.  Nervous

 

  1. Which system are the testes part of?
    A.  Urinary
    B.  Cardiovascular
    C.  Reproductive
    D.  Nervous

 

  1. Which system is the spinal cord part of?
    A.  Endocrine
    B.  Lymphatic
    C.  Skeletal
    D.  Nervous

 

  1. The kidneys and urinary bladder are part of the
    A.  endocrine system.
    B.  urinary system.
    C.  lymphatic system.
    D.  digestive system.

 

  1. The spleen and thymus are part of the
    A.  cardiovascular system.
    B.  respiratory system.
    C.  digestive system.
    D.  lymphatic and immune systems.

 

  1. Transportation within the body is mainly part of
    A.  the nervous system.
    B.  the skin.
    C.  the skeleton.
    D.  the cardiovascular system.

 

  1. Which part of the body plays a major part in support, movement, and protection?
    A.  Nervous system
    B.  Endocrine system
    C.  Skeleton
    D.  Cardiovascular system

 

  1. Integration and coordination are part of the body’s
    A.  nervous system.
    B.  skin.
    C.  skeleton.
    D.  cardiovascular system.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?
    A.  Production of blood cells
    B.  Support
    C.  Production of heat
    D.  Mineral storage

 

  1. Which system is involved in regulating fluid levels and chemical content of the blood?
    A.  Cardiovascular system
    B.  Lymphatic system
    C.  Urinary system
    D.  Digestive system

 

  1. The respiratory system delivers oxygen to the cells.
    True    False

 

  1. List the organ systems that allow for body movement and describe the role each system plays in the production of movement.

 

 

 

 

  1. Homeostasis refers to
    A.  changing external conditions.
    B.  stable external conditions.
    C.  changing internal conditions.
    D.  stable internal conditions.

 

  1. Which of the following provides the best example of a negative feedback control mechanism?
    A.  Increased body temperature due to exercise
    B.  Increased uterine contractions in labor
    C.  Putting on a sweater because you are cold
    D.  Shivering in order to generate heat due to a drop in body temperature

 

  1. Which of the following occurs as a result of positive feedback and assists in the maintenance of homeostasis?
    A.  Body temperature regulation
    B.  Blood pH regulation
    C.  Blood clot formation
    D.  Blood cell production

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of a homeostatic mechanism?
    A.  A nerve pathway
    B.  A control center
    C.  A sensor
    D.  An effector

 

  1. What occurs as a result of a negative feedback mechanism?
    A.  The change moves further from the set point in a negative direction.
    B.  No change occurs in the body.
    C.  There is a reversal from the original change.
    D.  A body function is stopped.

 

  1. In negative feedback, the body’s response is in the opposite direction from the change in order to return the body to normal.
    True    False

 

  1. Explain why the heating of your home is an example of a negative feedback mechanism.

 

 

 

 

  1. Contrast positive and negative feedback mechanisms with regard to their general outcomes.

 

 

 

 

  1. The two organ systems involved in controlling all other systems to maintain homeostasis are the
    A.  skeletal and muscular.
    B.  nervous and endocrine.
    C.  urinary and respiratory.
    D.  endocrine and digestive.

 

  1. The two organ systems involved in providing oxygen to cells and removing carbon dioxide from cells are the
    A.  cardiovascular and respiratory.
    B.  respiratory and digestive.
    C.  integumentary and muscular.
    D.  reproductive and nervous.

 

  1. Which two body systems are involved in transportation and protection of the body from disease?
    A.  Integumentary and urinary systems
    B.  Lymphatic and cardiovascular systems
    C.  Muscular and lymphatic systems
    D.  Respiratory and sensory systems

 

  1. Which body system removes metabolic wastes and helps maintain acid-base balance?
    A.  Urinary system
    B.  Digestive system
    C.  Respiratory system
    D.  Endocrine system

 

  1. A disease that occurs suddenly and does not last a long time is considered
    A.  chronic.
    B.  local.
    C.  systemic.
    D.  acute.

 

  1. An ear infection is considered a/an ______ disease.
    A.  orbital
    B.  local
    C.  systemic
    D.  pandemic

 

  1. What type of energy is used to create a PET scan?
    A.  Gamma rays
    B.  Electrons
    C.  Protons
    D.  Electrical

 

  1. What type of medical scan is more useful in visualizing soft tissue?
    A.  X-ray
    B.  CT scan
    C.  MRI
    D.  PET

 

  1. What is used in a sonogram to create an image?
    A.  Sound waves
    B.  Electrons
    C.  Gamma rays
    D.  X-rays

 

  1. All body systems work independently to provide homeostasis.
    True    False

 

  1. Soft tissue such as muscles shows up as light areas on X-rays.
    True    False

 

  1. Differentiate between local, systemic, acute, and chronic disease.

 

 

Chapter 03 Cell Structure and Function

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Small structures that compartmentalize the cell for the various cellular activities are
    A.  nuclei.
    B.  organelles.
    C.  matrices.
    D.  proteins.

 

  1. The gelatinous supporting material of a cell is the
    A.  plasma membrane.
    B.  nucleus.
    C.  cytoplasm.
    D.  organelle.

 

  1. Which of the following types of cells are anucleated when mature?
    A.  Liver cells
    B.  Skin cells
    C.  Erythrocytes
    D.  Skeletal muscle cells

 

  1. Semipermeable membrane means that half the amount of a substance can pass through the plasma membrane.
    True    False

 

  1. The plasma membrane consists primarily of
    A.  phospholipids and proteins.
    B.  sugars and starchs.
    C.  phospholipids and sugars.
    D.  sugars and proteins.

 

  1. The chemical nature of phospholipids will cause them to form a single layer in a water environment.
    True    False

 

  1. The plasma membrane is a solid that holds the contents inside the cell.
    True    False

 

  1. The movement of protein molecules within the phospholipid bilayer is described by the
    A.  fluid mosaic model.
    B.  lipid mosaic model.
    C.  protein – lipid mosaic model.
    D.  cholesterol mosaic model.

 

  1. Functions of membrane proteins include all of the following except
    A.  carriers.
    B.  cell identification.
    C.  stability.
    D.  receptors.
    E.  channels.

 

  1. The presence of cholesterol molecules in plasma membranes is to
    A.  allow the buildup of fats.
    B.  change the chemical nature of the membrane.
    C.  create a mosaic pattern.
    D.  stabilize the phospholipids at low temperatures.

 

  1. The phospholipid molecules are arranged with
    A.  the hydrophilic tails facing outward and the hydrophobic heads facing inward.
    B.  the hydrophilic tails facing inward and the hydrophobic heads facing outward.
    C.  the hydrophilic heads facing outward and the hydrophobic tails facing inward.
    D.  the hydrophilic heads facing inward and the hydrophobic tails facing outward.

 

  1. What is the role of glycolipids and glycoproteins in the plasma membrane?
    A.  Transport of molecules through the membrane
    B.  Rtabilize the phospholipid bilayer
    C.  Cell identification
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Explain the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is found within the cell’s nucleus?
    A.  Chromatin
    B.  Nucleolus
    C.  DNA
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. The function of the nucleolus is to make
    A.  mitochondria.
    B.  endoplasmic reticulum.
    C.  chromosomes.
    D.  ribosomes.

 

  1. Tightly-coiled, rod-like structures of DNA and proteins are called
    A.  nucleoli.
    B.  ribosomes.
    C.  chromatin.
    D.  chromosomes.

 

  1. The nuclear envelop is continuous with the Golgi apparatus.
    True    False

 

  1. Proteins that are mainly used inside the cell are synthesized
    A.  in the nucleus.
    B.  on polyribosomes.
    C.  on rough ER.
    D.  in the nucleoli.

 

  1. The nuclear envelope contains the nuclear material and its structure is a
    A.  double layered membrane with pores.
    B.  single layered membrane with pores.
    C.  solid single layered membrane.
    D.  solid double layered membrane.

 

  1. Which of the following organelles functions in protein synthesis?
    A.  Ribosomes
    B.  Golgi apparatus
    C.  Smooth ER
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. A system of membranous channels and saccules that runs from the nuclear membrane through the cytoplasm is the
    A.  nucleolus.
    B.  Golgi apparatus.
    C.  endoplasmic reticulum.
    D.  mitochondria.

 

  1. The rough ER is covered with
    A.  Golgi apparatus.
    B.  ribosomes.
    C.  lysosomes.
    D.  nucleoli.

 

  1. Liver cells help to detoxify drugs, therefore, they would have a large number of
    A.  rough ER.
    B.  Golgi apparatus.
    C.  smooth ER.
    D.  centrioles.

 

  1. Which of the following serves as the site for the synthesis of phospholipids?
    A.  Plasma membrane
    B.  Rough ER
    C.  Smooth ER
    D.  Golgi apparatus

 

  1. Which of the following functions in protein production?
    A.  Ribosomes
    B.  Golgi apparatus
    C.  Rough ER
    D.  Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, and rough ER

 

  1. Which organelle is involved in processing, packaging, and secretion of proteins and lipids?
    A.  Ribosomes
    B.  Golgi apparatus
    C.  Endoplasmic reticulum
    D.  Chromosomes

 

  1. Lysosomes
    A.  are formed by the Golgi apparatus.
    B.  are concerned with intracellular digestion.
    C.  contain digestive enzymes.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. A disease involving a missing or inactive lysosomal enzyme in nerve cells is called
    A.  Golgi’s disease.
    B.  multiple sclerosis.
    C.  neuritis.
    D.  Tay-Sachs disease.

 

  1. Digestive sacs found in cells that help to detoxify drugs and alcohol are
    A.  peroxisomes.
    B.  centrioles.
    C.  ribosomes.
    D.  rough ER.

 

  1. Mitochondria
    A.  produce protein.
    B.  store food.
    C.  produce ATP.
    D.  digest food.

 

  1. Aerobic cellular respiration
    A.  occurs in the mitochondria.
    B.  produces ATP.
    C.  uses oxygen.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. The inner membrane folds of mitochondria, where many of the reactions of aerobic cellular respiration occur, are called
    A.  smooth ER.
    B.  cristae.
    C.  grana.
    D.  thylakoid membranes.

 

  1. A nickname for the mitochondria is the cell’s powerhouse.
    True    False

 

  1. Short cylinders with a 9 +0 pattern that form the spindle apparatus during cell division are
    A.  centrioles.
    B.  basal bodies.
    C.  flagella.
    D.  actin filaments.

 

  1. Sperm use __________ for movement.
    A. cilia
    B. flagella
    C. microvilli
    D. microfilaments

 

  1. __________ are small hair-like extensions that produce movement across the surface of cells.
    A.  Cilia
    B.  Flagella
    C.  Microvilli
    D.  Basal bodies

 

  1. __________ help keep the lungs clean.
    A.  Cilia
    B.  Flagella
    C.  Basal bodies
    D.  Microvilli

 

  1. What structure anchors cilia and flagella?
    A.  Microvilli
    B.  Basal body
    C.  Hilus
    D.  Hillock

 

  1. Describe the functions of cilia and flagella, and give examples of the activities of each in the body.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which elements of the cytoskeleton help maintain the shape of the cells, move organelles around, and aid in cell division?
    A.  Intermediate fibers
    B.  Cilia
    C.  Microtubules
    D.  Actin filaments

 

  1. Which cytoskeletal structure is involved in the movement of chromosomes during cell division?
    A.  Actin filaments
    B.  Intermediate filaments
    C.  Microtubules
    D.  Microvilli

 

  1. What is the function of intermediate filaments?
    A.  Cell-to-cell junctions
    B.  Cell movement
    C.  Form flagella
    D.  Cell shape

 

  1. Match the cell organelle with its function.
1.  Smooth ER       intracellular digestion   ____
2.  Nucleolus       produces energy   ____
3.  Mitochondria       small membranous sac that isolates substances in a cell   ____
4.  Vacuole       makes ribosomes   ____
5.  Lysosome       lipid and steroid synthesis   ____

 

  1. Match the cell organelle with its function.
1.  Golgi apparatus       forms spindle in cell division   ____
2.  Centriole       processing and packaging molecules   ____
3.  Cilia       movement of substances on the cell surface   ____
4.  Nucleus       protein synthesis for export   ____
5.  Rough ER       storage of genetic information   ____

 

  1. The plasma membrane is
    A.  impermeable.
    B.  permeable to everything.
    C.  selectively permeable.

 

  1. What differentiates passive transport from active transport?
    A. Passive transport moves substances into cells, while active transport moves substances out of cells.
    B. Passive transport requires carriers, while active transport does not.
    C. Passive transport does not use cellular energy, while active transport uses cellular energy.
    D. Passive transport only moves water, while active transport only moves proteins.

 

  1. The random movement of simple substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called
    A.  osmosis.
    B.  filtration.
    C.  diffusion.
    D.  pumping.

 

  1. Small lipid soluble molecules would move through the plasma membrane by
    A.  diffusion.
    B.  osmosis.
    C.  filtration.
    D.  pumping.

 

  1. Proteins do not pass through plasma membranes because
    A.  the membrane is made of protein.
    B.  they contain nitrogen.
    C.  they are very large molecules.
    D.  they cause emulsification.

 

  1. The movement of H2O across a plasma membrane
    A.  is called osmosis.
    B.  is called diffusion.
    C.  requires energy.
    D.  is called osmosis and requires energy.

 

  1. When a cell is placed into a(n) __________ solution, water enters the cell.
    A.  isotonic
    B.  hypotonic
    C.  hypertonic

 

  1. When a cell is placed into a(n) __________ solution, crenation is possible.
    A.  isotonic
    B.  hypotonic
    C.  hypertonic

 

  1. When a cell is placed into a(n) __________ solution, the cell maintains its size.
    A.  isotonic
    B.  hypotonic
    C.  hypertonic

 

  1. A cell that has crenated has
    A.  swollen up.
    B.  burst.
    C.  broken in half.
    D.  shrunk.

 

  1. Hemolysis means
    A.  swelling of cells.
    B.  shrinking of blood cells.
    C.  diffusion of cells into blood.
    D.  bursting of blood cells

 

  1. Filtration
    A.  pushes material out of the blood.
    B.  uses blood pressure to move fluids.
    C.  can separate large particles from small particles.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a passive process of movement?
    A.  Solute pumps
    B.  Osmosis
    C.  Facilitated diffusion
    D.  Diffusion

 

  1. Which process does not require a concentration gradient?
    A.  Active transport
    B.  Diffusion
    C.  Facilitated diffusion
    D.  Osmosis

 

  1. Active transport
    A.  moves materials against their concentration gradients.
    B.  requires energy.
    C.  occurs in cells with many mitochondria.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. A carrier protein is required
    A.  for passive transport.
    B.  for active transport.
    C.  to move water.
    D.  for passive transport and to move water.

 

  1. The formation of a pocket of the plasma membrane to bring in solid materials is called
    A.  exocytosis.
    B.  pinocytosis.
    C.  phagocytosis.
    D.  facilitated diffusion.

 

  1. The movement of materials into a cell by the formation of a pocket of the plasma membrane is called
    A.  exocytosis.
    B.  hemolysis.
    C.  crenation.
    D.  endocytosis.

 

  1. Secretion of substances made by a cell would occur by the process of
    A.  pinocytosis.
    B.  exocytosis.
    C.  endocytosis.
    D.  phagocytosis.

 

  1. Water intoxication can be due to
    A.  loss of too much water.
    B.  excessive sweating.
    C.  excessive consumption of pure water.
    D.  excessive consumption of low-sodium sports drinks.

 

  1. The process of “cell drinking” is known as phagocytosis.
    True    False

 

  1. Bringing solutions into a cell is called
    A.  facilitated diffusion.
    B.  pinocytosis.
    C.  exocytosis.
    D.  phagocytosis.

 

  1. A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is an example of
    A.  pinocytosis.
    B.  exocytosis.
    C.  active transport.
    D.  phagocytosis.

 

  1. Facilitated diffusion requires cellular energy.
    True    False

 

  1. The process of programmed cell death due to problems in the cell cycle is called
    A.  mitosis.
    B.  apoptosis.
    C.  phagocytosis.
    D.  endocytosis.

 

  1. Apoptosis
    A.  involves the destruction of a cell.
    B.  occurs at the restriction checkpoint.
    C.  is not a component of the cell cycle.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. The portion of the cell cycle when a cell is not dividing and doing what it is designed to do is called
    A.  interphase.
    B.  mitosis.
    C.  apoptosis.
    D.  exterophase.

 

  1. The period of interphase when cell growth and manufacture of organelles occurs is the
    A.  G1 phase.
    B.  S phase.
    C.  G2 phase.
    D.  mitosis phase.

 

  1. The period of interphase when DNA is replicated is the
    A.  G1 phase.
    B.  S phase.
    C.  G2 phase.
    D.  mitosis phase.

 

  1. The period of interphase when the proteins are made that will be needed for cell division is the
    A.  G1 phase.
    B.  S phase.
    C.  G2 phase.
    D.  mitosis phase.

 

  1. The material that is replicated prior to cell division is called
    A.  RNA.
    B.  protein.
    C.  DNA.
    D.  ATP.

 

  1. If half of a DNA molecule is ACG-TCC-GTA, the complementary half would be
    A.  CTA-CTT-ACC.
    B.  TGC-AGG-CAT.
    C.  ACG-TCC-GTA.
    D.  UGC-AGG-CAU.

 

  1. Each strand of a replicated double helix of DNA is called a
    A.  chromatid.
    B.  chromosome.
    C.  autosome.
    D.  centriole.

 

  1. What is the function of DNA polymerase?
    A.  breaks hydrogen bonds between DNA strands
    B.  joins nucleotides of the complementary DNA strand
    C.  joins amino acids to form a protein
    D.  None apply.

 

  1. Why is DNA replication required prior to mitosis?

 

 

 

 

  1. Transcription involves _________, where translation involves _______.
    A.  polypeptide synthesis; mRNA synthesis
    B.  mRNA synthesis; polypeptide synthesis
    C.  amino acids; nucleotides

 

  1. When mRNA molecules are formed, they are complementary to DNA with the exception that
    A.  an A in DNA matches a T in mRNA.
    B.  a T in DNA matches an C in mRNA.
    C.  an A in DNA matches a G in mRNA.
    D.  an A in DNA matches a U in mRNA.

 

  1. The three base sequence on mRNA that matches the triplet of DNA is a(n)
    A.  triplet.
    B.  anticodon.
    C.  codon.
    D.  gene.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a form of RNA used in protein synthesis?
    A.  Messenger RNA
    B.  Complementary RNA
    C.  Transfer RNA
    D.  Ribosomal RNA

 

  1. Which of the following types of RNA are NOT matched correctly with their function?
    A.  tRNA – carries amino acids
    B.  rRNA – site of protein synthesis
    C.  tRNA – contains the code to make a polypeptide
    D.  mRNA – contains the code to make a polypeptide

 

  1. The process of translation creates the secondary structure of a polypeptide.
    True    False

 

  1. The anticodon of tRNA matches the codon of mRNA to ensure the correct sequence of amino acids.
    True    False

 

  1. Compare DNA, mRNA, and tRNA with regard to function and location.

 

 

 

 

  1. Differentiate between chromosomes, chromatin, DNA, and genes.

 

 

 

 

  1. The process of cell division involves the two processes of
    A.  interphase and cytokinesis.
    B.  interphase and mitosis.
    C.  mitosis and cytokinesis.
    D.  cytokinesis and G1 phase.

 

  1. The division of the cytoplasm and organelles is
    A.  cytokinesis.
    B.  mitosis.
    C.  interphase.
    D.  telophase.

 

  1. The division of the nucleus is
    A.  cytokinesis.
    B.  mitosis.
    C.  interphase.
    D.  telophase.

 

  1. The chromosomes shorten and thicken so that they become visible occurs during
    A.  metaphase.
    B.  telophase.
    C.  anaphase.
    D.  prophase.

 

  1. The centrioles moving apart to opposite poles occurs during
    A.  telophase.
    B.  prophase.
    C.  metaphase.
    D.  anaphase.

 

  1. The formation of spindle fibers occurs during
    A.  prophase.
    B.  metaphase.
    C.  anaphase.
    D.  telophase.

 

  1. The chromosomes attach to spindle fibers by their
    A.  chromatid.
    B.  centromere.
    C.  centrosome.
    D.  aster.

 

  1. The chromosomes lining up randomly at the equator of the cell occurs during
    A.  prophase.
    B.  metaphase.
    C.  anaphase.
    D.  telophase.

 

  1. The separation of sister chromatids, being pulled toward the centrioles occurs in
    A.  metaphase.
    B.  telophase.
    C.  prophase.
    D.  anaphase.

 

  1. The reforming of the nuclear membrane around chromosomes occurs during
    A.  prophase.
    B.  anaphase.
    C.  telophase.
    D.  metaphase.

 

  1. Cytokinesis occurs during
    A.  telophase.
    B.  metaphase.
    C.  anaphase.
    D.  prophase.

 

  1. Cytokinesis begins with the formation of an indentation around the cell called the
    A.  asters.
    B.  centromere.
    C.  cleavage furrow.
    D.  equator.

 

  1. Mitosis produces __________ identical daughter cell(s).
    A.  one
    B.  two
    C.  three
    D.  four

 

  1. What happens to the chromosome number as a result of mitosis?
    A.  It is halved.
    B.  It stays the same.
    C.  It is doubled.
    D.  It is tripled.

 

  1. Mitosis occurs during
    A.  growth.
    B.  tissue repair.
    C.  production of egg and sperm.
    D.  growth and tissue repair.

 

  1. Which of the following events of mitosis is CORRECTLY matched with its phase?
    A.  Metaphase – chromosomes shorten and thicken to become visible
    B.  Telophase – chromosomes line up down the middle of the cell
    C.  Prophase – chromosomes attach to spindle fibers
    D.  Anaphase – new nuclear envelops form around chromosomes

 

  1. The process of meiosis produces
    A.  body cells.
    B.  sex cells.
    C.  skin cells.
    D.  hair cells.

 

  1. What happens to chromosome number as a result of meiosis?
    A.  It is halved.
    B.  It stays the same.
    C.  It is doubled.
    D.  It is tripled.

 

  1. Compare mitosis and meiosis with regard to number of cell divisions, effect on chromosome number, and function.

 

 

Chapter 05 The Integumentary System

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Which of the following is NOT another name for the skin?
    A.  Integument
    B.  Serous membrane
    C.  Cutaneous membrane
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. The skin consists of ____ region(s).
    A.  1
    B.  2
    C.  3
    D.  4

 

  1. Adipose tissue
    A.  is for insulation.
    B.  gives a rounded appearance to the body.
    C.  in excess results in obesity.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. The epidermis and dermis make up the
    A.  serous membrane.
    B.  subcutaneous membrane.
    C.  integument.
    D.  hypodermis.

 

  1. The ___________ contains adipose tissue, while the ___________ contains melanocytes.
    A.  hypodermis, epidermis
    B.  epidermis, dermis
    C.  skin, hypodermis
    D.  stratum basale, stratum corneum

 

  1. Flexion creases in the skin are due to the
    A.  hypodermis.
    B.  epidermis.
    C.  cutaneous membrane.
    D.  dermis.

 

  1. The skin is both an organ and an organ system.
    True    False

 

  1. The epidermis
    A.  is the outer layer of skin.
    B.  consists of stratified squamous epithelial cells.
    C.  contains melanocytes.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. In which layer of the epidermis are cells constantly dividing?
    A.  Stratum corneum
    B.  Stratum lucidum
    C.  Stratum dermis
    D.  Stratum basale

 

  1. Which of the following types of cells are NOT found in the epidermis?
    A.  Squamous epithelial cells
    B.  Langerhans cells
    C.  Red blood cells
    D.  Melanocytes

 

  1. What happens to cells when they move from the epidermis to the surface of the skin?
    A.  They obtain more nutrients.
    B.  They divide more.
    C.  They die.
    D.  They become dermal cells.

 

  1. What is responsible for skin color?
    A.  Carotene
    B.  Melanin
    C.  Hemoglobin
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. A person with no color in their skin, hair, and eyes has
    A.  been exposed to the sun.
    B.  a circulatory disorder.
    C.  a genetic disorder.
    D.  a nervous disorder.

 

  1. The inability to produce the pigment melanin is called
    A.  albinism.
    B.  cyanosis.
    C.  decubitus.
    D.  alopecia.

 

  1. Merkel’s cells detect sensations of
    A.  pain.
    B.  deep pressure.
    C.  touch.
    D.  temperature.

 

  1. What can give skin a yellowish hue?
    A.  Hemoglobin
    B.  Melanin
    C.  Keratin
    D.  Carotene

 

  1. Which layer of the epidermis protects from abrasion and is found only in thick skin?
    A.  Stratum basale
    B.  Hypodermis
    C.  Stratum corneum
    D.  Stratum lucidum

 

  1. Which layer of the epidermis is closest to the surface?
    A.  Stratum lucidum
    B.  Stratum corneum
    C.  Dermis
    D.  Stratum basale

 

  1. Keratin is
    A.  a pigment.
    B.  a waterproof protein.
    C.  located in the hypodermis.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Melanin
    A.  is a pigment.
    B.  protects the skin from ultraviolet radiation.
    C.  is located in the epidermis.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. What is the function of Langerhans cells?
    A.  Water-proofing
    B.  UV protection
    C.  Register pain
    D.  Phagocytize microbes

 

  1. Distinguish between the stratum basale and the stratum corneum regarding structure and function.

 

 

 

 

  1. The stratum basale is supplied with sensory nerves to detect pain, temperature, and touch.
    True    False

 

  1. The epidermis is very vascular.
    True    False

 

  1. Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels AND nerve fibers?
    A.  Epidermis
    B.  Dermis
    C.  Epidermis and dermis

 

  1. Which of the following prevents the skin from overstretching and gives it strength?
    A.  Melanin
    B.  Collagen fibers
    C.  Adipose tissue
    D.  Elastic fibers

 

  1. The dermis is composed of
    A.  stratified squamous epithelium.
    B.  pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
    C.  loose connective tissue.
    D.  dense irregular connective tissue.

 

  1. The dermal papillae, found in the hypodermis, create the unique fingerprints of individuals.
    True    False

 

  1. Poorly oxygenated blood in the dermis will cause an individual to
    A.  turn cyanotic.
    B.  blush.
    C.  have pallor.
    D.  be pinkish.

 

  1. Reduced blood flow into the dermis will cause
    A.  cyanosis.
    B.  pallor.
    C.  blushing.
    D.  jaundice.

 

  1. Continuous pressure that reduces blood supply to the skin can result in a(n)
    A.  urticaria.
    B.  decubitus ulcer.
    C.  hirsutism.
    D.  callus.

 

  1. Which of the following allows movement of muscles and joints and maintains normal skin tension?
    A.  Elastic fibers
    B.  Collagen fibers
    C.  Sensory fibers
    D.  Dermal papillae

 

  1. Hair is produced by epithelial cells located in the
    A.  epidermis.
    B.  dermis.
    C.  hypodermis.
    D.  dermis and hypodermis.

 

  1. Which consists of keratinized cells?
    A.  Hair
    B.  Nails
    C.  Stratum corneum
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. The arrector pili muscle
    A.  is a smooth muscle.
    B.  causes hair to “stand on end.”
    C.  contracts when cold, forming goose bumps.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. A condition described by excessive body and facial hair in women is
    A.  hirsutism.
    B.  decubitus ulcer.
    C.  scabies.
    D.  alopecia.

 

  1. What type of gland is associated with hair follicles?
    A.  Sebaceous glands
    B.  Apocrine sweat glands
    C.  Eccrine sweat glands
    D.  Ceruminous glands

 

  1. The area of rapidly dividing cells in the nail base is the
    A.  cuticle.
    B.  nail bed.
    C.  lunula.
    D.  follicle.

 

  1. What type of skin gland secretes sweat?
    A.  Sebaceous gland
    B.  Sudoriferous gland
    C.  Ceruminous gland
    D.  Mammary gland

 

  1. Which type(s) of skin gland(s) become(s) active with puberty?
    A.  Sebaceous gland
    B.  Apocrine sweat gland
    C.  Eccrine sweat gland
    D.  Both sebaceous and apocrine sweat glands.

 

  1. Which type of gland opens into hair follicles and secretes sweat after puberty?
    A.  Sebaceous glands
    B.  Apocrine sweat glands
    C.  Eccrine sweat glands
    D.  Ceruminous glands

 

  1. What type of skin gland secretes earwax?
    A.  Sebaceous gland
    B.  Eccrine sweat gland
    C.  Apocrine sweat gland
    D.  Ceruminous gland

 

  1. An inflammation of sebaceous glands that occurs during adolescence is
    A.  impetigo.
    B.  psoriasis.
    C.  acne vulgaris.
    D.  decubitus ulcer.

 

  1. Which is the most dangerous form of skin cancer?
    A.  Basal cell carcinoma
    B.  Squamous cell carcinoma
    C.  Melanoma
    D.  Both basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma

 

  1. Which of the following is the most common type of skin cancer?
    A.  Basal cell carcinoma
    B.  Squamous cell carcinoma
    C.  Melanoma
    D.  Kaposi’s sarcoma

 

  1. In the ABCDE rule for melanoma, “B” stands for
    A.  borders that are even.
    B.  borders that are irregular.
    C.  burning feeling.
    D.  bright colors.

 

  1. In the ABCDE rule for melanoma, which of the following is NOT a warning sign?
    A.  Uneven coloration
    B.  Diameter greater than 3mm
    C.  Perfectly round
    D.  Changing size, shape, and elevation

 

  1. The ABCDE rule is used to determine the skin area involved in a burn.
    True    False

 

  1. What type of skin cancer is seen most often in patients with AIDS?
    A.  Kaposi’s sarcoma
    B.  Basal cell carcinoma
    C.  Melanoma
    D.  Squamous cell carcinoma

 

  1. Exposure to sunlight is the most common cause of skin cancer.
    True    False

 

  1. Impetigo is
    A.  a bacterial infection resulting in crusty pustules.
    B.  caused by over keratinization.
    C.  overactive cell division.
    D.  a fungal infection.

 

  1. Athlete’s foot is
    A.  a bacterial infection.
    B.  caused by over keratinization.
    C.  caused by sensitivity to chemicals.
    D.  a fungal infection.

 

  1. Dandruff is
    A.  a viral infection of the scalp.
    B.  caused by over keratinization.
    C.  caused by sensitivity to chemicals.
    D.  a fungal infection of the scalp.

 

  1. Eczema is
    A.  a bacterial infection.
    B.  caused by over keratinization.
    C.  caused by sensitivity to chemicals.
    D.  caused by overactive cell division giving silvery scales.

 

  1. Another name for hives is psoriasis.
    True    False

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation as seen in a skin injury?
    A.  Cold
    B.  Swelling
    C.  Redness
    D.  Pain

 

  1. What is a scar composed of?
    A.  Epithelium
    B.  Blood clot
    C.  Collagen fibers
    D.  Areolar tissue

 

  1. What is the function of a blood clot?
    A.  Prevents blood loss
    B.  Prevents toxins from entering other tissues
    C.  Prevents pathogens from entering other tissue
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. What is NOT a function of fibroblasts in wound healing?
    A.  Bring about scar formation
    B.  Promote tissue regeneration
    C.  Fight infections
    D.  Pull the margins of wound together

 

  1. Pain is rarely felt from a
    A.  first-degree burn.
    B.  second-degree burn.
    C.  third-degree or fourth-degree burn.
    D.  sunburn.

 

  1. The epidermis only is damaged from a
    A.  first-degree burn.
    B.  second-degree burn.
    C.  third-degree burn.
    D.  fourth-degree burn.

 

  1. The epidermis and part of the dermis are damaged from a
    A.  first-degree burn.
    B.  second-degree burn.
    C.  third-degree burn.
    D.  fourth-degree burn.

 

  1. Severe burns result in
    A.  fluid loss.
    B.  heat loss.
    C.  bacterial infection.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Explain the difference between first-degree and third-degree burns. Which one would possibly require skin grafting?

 

 

 

 

  1. What percentage of a person’s skin would be involved if they had burned their left arm, front of the trunk, and the front of their left leg?
    A.  45%
    B.  40.5%
    C.  36%
    D.  31.5%

 

  1. An adult with third-degree burns over 15% of their body would NOT be considered critical.
    True    False

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an aging effect of the skin?
    A.  The skin wrinkles.
    B.  The hair turns gray.
    C.  The amount of adipose tissue increases.
    D.  There are fewer sweat glands.

 

  1. Older persons are more likely to feel cold because the dermis becomes thinner.
    True    False

 

  1. Many age-related changes to the skin appear to be due to sun damage.
    True    False

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a cause of skin wrinkles?
    A.  Decrease in the number of hair follicles
    B.  Less padding from the hypodermis
    C.  Loose epidermis
    D.  Fewer and less organized dermal fibers

 

  1. Which of the following is a function of the skin?
    A.  Protection
    B.  Sensory reception
    C.  Synthesis of vitamin D
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a protective function of the skin?
    A.  Melanocytes protect from UV radiation.
    B.  As a covering, it keeps pathogens out.
    C.  The oily secretions allow bacteria to grow.
    D.  Langerhans cells phagocytize pathogens.

 

  1. Which is true of the skin?
    A.  It is waterproof.
    B.  It prevents water loss.
    C.  It prevents water from entering when immersed.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. What is needed to produce vitamin D?
    A.  Calcium
    B.  Phosphorus
    C.  Ultraviolet light
    D.  Calcium and phosphorus

 

  1. Vitamin D is needed by the body to
    A.  form keratin.
    B.  move calcium and phosphorus into the bones.
    C.  make blood cells.
    D.  help the skin tan.

 

  1. Along with sweat glands, what actively regulates body temperature?
    A.  Adipose tissue
    B.  Blood vessels
    C.  Sebaceous glands
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. What occurs when the body’s temperature regulatory mechanism is overcome?
    A.  Hypothermia
    B.  Hyperthermia
    C.  Either hypothermia or hyperthermia

 

  1. What condition is described by high temperature, low blood pressure, and loss of salts due to profuse sweating?
    A.  Heat exhaustion
    B.  Heat stroke
    C.  Fever
    D.  Hypothermia

 

  1. Which would NOT occur when the body temperature is too low?
    A.  Involuntary muscle contraction
    B.  Dermal blood vessel dilation
    C.  Sweat production
    D.  Neither dermal blood vessel dilation nor sweat production would occur.

 

  1. The skin aids the urinary system by excreting water and small amounts of other wastes through perspiration.
    True    False

 

  1. Describe the skin’s involvement in temperature regulation.

 

 

 

 

  1. Describe the effects that long-term exposure to the sun may have on the skin.

 

 

 

 

  1. Describe how the skin functions to promote bone development and maintenance.

 

 

 

 

  1. Describe how sweat cools the body and explain why sitting in front of a fan cools the body more rapidly.

 

 

 

Chapter 07 The Muscular System

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Cardiac muscle fibers need outside nervous stimulation in order to contract.
    True    False

 

  1. Which type of muscle tissue has intercalated disks?
    A.  Cardiac
    B.  Skeletal
    C.  Smooth
    D.  Both cardiac and skeletal are correct.

 

  1. Which type of muscle tissue is striated?
    A.  Cardiac
    B.  Skeletal
    C.  Smooth
    D.  Both cardiac and skeletal are correct.

 

  1. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow internal organs?
    A.  Cardiac
    B.  Skeletal
    C.  Smooth
    D.  Both smooth and skeletal are correct.

 

  1. Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary?
    A.  Cardiac
    B.  Skeletal
    C.  Smooth
    D.  Both cardiac and smooth are correct.

 

  1. Which of the following surrounds a fascicle?
    A.  Endomysium
    B.  Epimysium
    C.  Fascia
    D.  Perimysium

 

  1. Which of the following connective tissue sheaths covers the muscle organ itself?
    A.  Endomysium
    B.  Epimysium
    C.  Fascia
    D.  Perimysium

 

  1. A bundle of muscles fibers is a myofilament.
    True    False

 

  1. What does the endomysium cover?
    A.  A muscle fiber
    B.  A muscle fascicle
    C.  The whole muscle organ
    D.  The tendon of a muscle

 

  1. The pressure of skeletal muscle contraction is important in maintaining blood circulation.
    True    False

 

  1. Skeletal muscle contraction is necessary for upright posture.
    True    False

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscles?
    A.  Generate heat
    B.  Maintain posture
    C.  Move food through the GI tract
    D.  Keep blood moving in veins and lymphatics

 

  1. The special name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is the
    A.  sarcolemma.
    B.  sarcoplasm.
    C.  T tubules.
    D.  sarcoplasmic reticulum.

 

  1. The smooth ER that stores calcium ions is the
    A.  sarcolemma.
    B.  sarcoplasm.
    C.  T tubules.
    D.  sarcoplasmic reticulum.

 

  1. The extensions of the sarcolemma that carry the nerve impulses deep into the sarcoplasm are the
    A.  sarcolemmas.
    B.  myoglobins.
    C.  T tubules.
    D.  sarcoplasmic reticulums.

 

  1. A sarcomere is
    A.  formed from myosin only.
    B.  the distance between Z lines.
    C.  the length of the H zone.
    D.  between the I bands.

 

  1. Myofibrils
    A.  are located in muscle fibers.
    B.  are contractile units.
    C.  have striations.
    D.  All apply

 

  1. Myosin is
    A.  a protein.
    B.  the thin filament.
    C.  pulled inward during contraction.
    D.  All apply

 

  1. Which of the following proteins is NOT a component of the thin filament?
    A.  Tropomyosin
    B.  Myosin
    C.  Troponin
    D.  Actin

 

  1. The A band
    A.  is in the center of the sarcomere.
    B.  is the dark region of the sarcomere.
    C.  contains the overlapping of the thick and thin filaments.
    D.  All apply

 

  1. The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction describes
    A.  how a sarcomere shortens.
    B.  the disappearance of the A band.
    C.  the movement of the myosin in relation to the actin.
    D.  All apply

 

  1. Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contain the cross bridges?
    A.  Myosin
    B.  Actin
    C.  Tropomyosin
    D.  Troponin

 

  1. The I band is dark and split by a Z line.
    True    False

 

  1. What ion is necessary for cross-bridging?
    A.  Iron
    B.  Sodium
    C.  Potassium
    D.  Calcium

 

  1. What does calcium do during muscle contraction?
    A.  Binds to troponin
    B.  Binds to the cross bridges
    C.  Supplies energy
    D.  Hydrolyzes ATP

 

  1. What is the role of ATP in the sliding filament theory?
    A.  Energizes the myosin cross-bridge
    B.  Releases calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    C.  Breaks the link between actin and myosin
    D.  Both energizes the myosin cross-bridge and breaks the link between actin and myosin.

 

  1. What is released from axon terminals to stimulate a muscle fiber to contract?
    A.  Calcium ions
    B.  Acetylcholine
    C.  ATP
    D.  Troponin

 

  1. What is the correct order of events in the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction?
    1. Myosin head binds to actin
    2. Calcium ions bind to troponin
    3. Myosin cross-bridges bend pulling actin toward center of sarcomere
    4. ATP is split into ADP and P
    5. Tropomyosin moves to expose active sites of actin
    6. Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions
    7. ADP and P released from myosin
    A.  2,4,6,1,3,5,7
    B.  1,2,3,4,5,6,7
    C.  6,2,5,4,1,7,3
    D.  4,2,7,1,6,5,3

 

  1. What is ATP used for in the process of muscle contraction?
    A.  Pump calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    B.  Power stroke of myosin cross-bridge
    C.  Release of myosin from actin
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. After nervous stimulation of the muscle cell has ceased, the calcium
    A.  is destroyed by cholinesterase.
    B.  is chemically bound to the filaments.
    C.  level in the sarcoplasm increases.
    D.  is actively pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum for storage.

 

  1. The power stroke of muscle contraction is when the myosin cross-bridges pull the actin toward the middle of the sarcomere.
    True    False

 

  1. In smooth muscle, the thin filaments are attached to ______ that will draw the cell inward during contraction.
    A.  thick filaments
    B.  Z lines
    C.  dense bodies
    D.  myosin

 

  1. Smooth muscle has thick and thin filaments arranged the same way as in skeletal muscle.
    True    False

 

  1. Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by
    A.  forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin.
    B.  forming a chemical compound with actin.
    C.  inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments.
    D.  storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed.

 

  1. What process provides the most of a muscle’s ATP?
    A.  Cellular respiration
    B.  Lactic acid fermentation
    C.  Creatine phosphate breakdown
    D.  Alcoholic fermentation

 

  1. Lactic acid buildup
    A.  occurs after strenuous activity.
    B.  occurs due to lack of oxygen and ATP.
    C.  causes cramps.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. What is the role of myoglobin in muscle contraction?
    A.  Oxygen carrier in muscle
    B.  Blood carrier in muscle
    C.  ATP carrier in muscle
    D.  Creatine phosphate generator in muscle

 

  1. Myoglobin
    A.  breaks down glycogen.
    B.  holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells.
    C.  is a protein involved in the addition of a phosphate to ADP.
    D.  produces the axon terminal signal.

 

  1. Athletes sometimes complain of oxygen debt, a condition that results when insufficient oxygen is available to completely break down pyruvic acid. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to
    A.  a strong base.
    B.  stearic acid.
    C.  hydrochloric acid.
    D.  lactic acid.

 

  1. What is the sign that a person has accrued an oxygen debt?
    A.  Inability of muscle to contract
    B.  Rigor mortis
    C.  Heavy breathing
    D.  Fainting

 

  1. Rigor mortis occurs because
    A.  there is no ATP to relax the muscles.
    B.  the body temperature drops.
    C.  there are no brain waves.
    D.  there are no nerve signals.

 

  1. The deadly botulism toxin can be used to release muscle contractures of patients with brain and spinal cord injuries, as well as, paralyze facial muscle for a “face-lift” effect.
    True    False

 

  1. What is meant by oxygen debt?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Muscle fatigue is usually due to lactic acid accumulation in the muscles. How and why does this happen?

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following obeys the all-or-none law?
    A.  The whole muscle
    B.  A muscle fiber
    C.  The whole muscle and a muscle fiber

 

  1. Latent period is
    A.  the time of receiving many impulses in rapid succession.
    B.  the period between stimulation and contraction.
    C.  the time when ATP is depleted.
    D.  the time of muscle relaxation.

 

  1. A single muscle contraction lasting a fraction of a second is a
    A.  myogram.
    B.  muscle twitch.
    C.  motor unit.
    D.  tetanic contraction.

 

  1. The stage of a muscle twitch that occurs from the point of stimulation to the beginning of contraction is called the _____ period?
    A.  latent
    B.  lag
    C.  contraction
    D.  refractory

 

  1. Summation is
    A.  receiving many impulses in rapid succession.
    B.  the period between stimulation and contraction.
    C.  the depletion of ATP.
    D.  a single contraction that lasts only a fraction of a second.

 

  1. A sustained muscle contraction with no relaxation is called
    A.  a twitch.
    B.  a tetanic contraction.
    C.  fatigue.
    D.  oxygen debt.

 

  1. Fatigue is caused by
    A.  gradual muscle weakening after repetitive use.
    B.  depletion of ATP.
    C.  depletion of acetylcholine from motor neurons.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. A motor unit is
    A.  a group of muscles working together.
    B.  a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it supplies.
    C.  a group of muscle fiber.
    D.  an artery and the muscle fibers it supplies.

 

  1. The more stimulation a muscle receives, the more motor units are activated. This is called
    A.  fatigue.
    B.  oxygen debt.
    C.  recruitment.
    D.  hypertrophy.

 

  1. When muscles are not used, they shrink or
    A.  atrophy.
    B.  hypertrophy.
    C.  antagonize.
    D.  fatigue.

 

  1. If muscle fibers obey the all-or-none law, then how can muscles exhibit various strengths of contraction?

 

 

 

 

  1. Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their fuel supply, oxygen supply, and tension. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of slow-twitch fibers?
    A.  A sprint by an Olympic runner
    B.  Swinging a baseball bat
    C.  Lifting weights
    D.  Mountain climbing

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of slow-twitch fibers?
    A.  Have few capillaries
    B.  Small motor units
    C.  Have many mitochondria
    D.  Abundant supply of myoglobin

 

  1. Which type of muscle fibers would be utilized for short periods of walking or jogging?
    A.  Slow-twitch fibers
    B.  Intermediate-twitch fibers
    C.  Fast-twitch fibers
    D.  Medium-twitch fibers

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fast-twitch fibers?
    A.  Useful for bursts of energy
    B.  Fatigues quickly
    C.  Light in color
    D.  Mostly aerobic

 

  1. The muscles of people who train will have more mitochondria than those who do not train.
    True    False

 

  1. Which part of a muscle is on the stationary bone?
    A.  Insertion
    B.  Prime mover
    C.  Origin

 

  1. The muscle that does most of the work for a particular movement is called the
    A.  prime mover.
    B.  synergist.
    C.  insertion.
    D.  antagonist.

 

  1. The biceps brachii and triceps brachii in the upper arm
    A.  are antagonistic.
    B.  are synergistic.
    C.  depend upon activity to determine antagonism or synergism.

 

  1. When muscles contract, they shorten. So, muscles can only pull the insertion toward the origin.
    True    False

 

  1. The gluteus maximus muscle is named for
    A.  its size and shape.
    B.  its size and location.
    C.  its shape and action.
    D.  its attachment and fiber direction.

 

  1. The biceps femoris is named for
    A.  its shape and location.
    B.  its fiber direction and action.
    C.  its shape and number of attachments.
    D.  its number of attachments and location.

 

  1. The extensor digitorum is named for
    A.  its action and attachment.
    B.  its location and action.
    C.  its size and attachment.
    D.  its number of attachments and shape.

 

  1. Which muscle is named for its shape?
    A.  Frontalis
    B.  Masseter
    C.  Trapezius
    D.  Biceps brachii

 

  1. The subscapularis muscle is
    A.  under the scapula.
    B.  above the scapula.
    C.  inferior to the scapula.
    D.  beside the scapula.

 

  1. The latissimus dorsi muscle is a _______ muscle.
    A.  round
    B.  triangular
    C.  wide
    D.  huge

 

  1. The __________ raises your eyebrow.
    A.  biceps brachii
    B.  frontalis
    C.  hamstring group
    D.  gluteus maximus

 

  1. The ______ is used in forming a kiss.
    A.  zygomaticus
    B.  buccinator
    C.  orbicularis oris
    D.  orbicularis oculi

 

  1. The _______ is used to smile.
    A.  zygomaticus
    B.  buccinator
    C.  frontalis
    D.  orbicularis oris

 

  1. Which muscle is NOT used for smiling?
    A.  Zygomaticus
    B.  Temporalis
    C.  Levator anguli oris
    D.  Levator labii superioris

 

  1. A prime mover for raising the mandible is the
    A.  temporalis.
    B.  depressor labii inferioris.
    C.  zygomaticus.
    D.  levator anguli oris.

 

  1. The orbicularis oculi muscle will
    A.  open the eyes.
    B.  raise the eyebrows.
    C.  lower the eyebrows.
    D.  close the eyes.

 

  1. Which muscle is called the “trumpeters muscle”, and aids in chewing and sucking?
    A.  Zygomaticus
    B.  Masseter
    C.  Levator anguli oris
    D.  Buccinator

 

  1. The _______ is used for actual chewing.
    A.  buccinator
    B.  masseter
    C.  zygomaticus
    D.  Both the buccinator and masseter.

 

  1. Which of the following structures are NOT involved with swallowing?
    A.  The hyoid bone
    B.  The masseter muscle
    C.  The suprahyoid muscles
    D.  The epiglottis

 

  1. The ____________ is used to flex the neck and turn the head laterally.
    A.  trapezius
    B.  temporalis
    C.  sternocleidomastoid
    D.  suprahyoid

 

  1. The _______ will adduct the scapulae and help extend the neck.
    A.  trapezius
    B.  temporalis
    C.  sternocleidomastoid
    D.  deltoid

 

  1. The _______ aid in inspiration during respiration.
    A.  external intercostals and infrahyoids
    B.  internal intercostals and diaphragm
    C.  diaphragm and external intercostals
    D.  internal and external intercostals

 

  1. The _______ will flex the trunk.
    A.  transverse abdominis
    B.  external intercostals
    C.  rectus abdominis
    D.  internal obliques

 

  1. Which muscle is NOT used to “suck in your gut” to make you look thinner?A.  Rectus abdominis
    B.  External oblique
    C.  Transversus abdominis
    D.  Internal oblique

 

  1. The _______ will abduct the arm.
    A.  serratus anterior
    B.  deltoid
    C.  latissimus dorsi
    D.  pectoralis major

 

  1. The _____ flexes and adducts the arm.
    A.  serratus anterior
    B.  deltoid
    C.  latissimus dorsi
    D.  pectoralis major

 

  1. Which muscle allows you to punch a punching bag?
    A.  Pectoralis major
    B.  Serratus anterior
    C.  Deltoid
    D.  Latissimus dorsi

 

  1. Which muscle will extend and adduct the arm for swimming or climbing a rope?
    A.  Biceps brachii
    B.  Serratus anterior
    C.  Deltoid
    D.  Latissimus dorsi

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?
    A.  Deltoid
    B.  Supraspinatus
    C.  Infraspinatus
    D.  Subscapularis

 

  1. The __________ flexes the forearm.
    A.  biceps brachii
    B.  frontalis
    C.  triceps brachii
    D.  gluteus maximus

 

  1. What is the action of the brachialis muscle?
    A.  Extend the forearm
    B.  Flex the forearm
    C.  Pronate the forearm
    D.  Flex the arm

 

  1. The ______ extends the forearm.
    A.  biceps brachii
    B.  frontalis
    C.  triceps brachii
    D.  gluteus maximus

 

  1. The _______ will extend the wrist and fingers.
    A.  flexor digitorum
    B.  extensor carpi
    C.  brachialis
    D.  extensor digitorum

 

  1. The flexor carpi muscles will flex the
    A.  wrist.
    B.  hands.
    C.  fingers.
    D.  wrist and hand.
    E.  wrist and fingers.

 

  1. The __________ extends your thigh.
    A.  iliopsoas
    B.  sartorius
    C.  quadriceps femoris group
    D.  gluteus maximus

 

  1. The _______ is helpful in keeping a rider on a horse.
    A.  iliopsoas
    B.  adductor group
    C.  quadriceps femoris group
    D.  gluteus maximus

 

  1. The __________ flexes your knee.
    A.  biceps brachii
    B.  quadriceps femoris
    C.  hamstring group
    D.  gluteus maximus

 

  1. The major flexor of the thigh that also keeps the trunk from falling backwards when erect is the
    A.  gluteus maximus.
    B.  sartorius.
    C.  iliopsoas.
    D.  adductor group.

 

  1. The ______ will straighten your leg (extend) at the knee.
    A.  adductor group
    B.  quadriceps femoris
    C.  hamstring group
    D.  gluteus maximus

 

  1. The muscle that helps you to sit “Indian style” is the
    A.  sartorius.
    B.  iliopsoas.
    C.  rectus femoris.
    D.  gluteus medius.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT part of the quadriceps femoris?
    A.  Vastus lateralis
    B.  Rectus femoris
    C.  Biceps femoris
    D.  Vastus intermedius

 

  1. Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the hamstring group?
    A.  Semimembranosus
    B.  Eectus femoris
    C.  Biceps femoris
    D.  Semitendinosus

 

  1. This muscle allows you to stand on your tiptoes.
    A.  Gastrocnemius
    B.  Tibialis anterior
    C.  Flexor digitorum longus
    D.  Hamstring group

 

  1. The _________ will evert the foot.
    A.  gastrocnemius
    B.  tibialis anterior
    C.  fibularis muscles
    D.  extensor digitorum longus

 

  1. The tibialis anterior will ______ the foot.
    A.  dorsiflex and invert
    B.  plantarflex and invert
    C.  dorsiflex and adduct
    D.  invert and abduct

 

  1. Fibularis muscles are on the _________ area of the leg.
    A.  posterior
    B.  medial
    C.  anterior
    D.  lateral

 

  1. Exercise programs can improve
    A.  muscular strength.
    B.  muscular endurance.
    C.  flexibility.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Aging muscles have less fat present in them than in a young person.
    True    False

 

  1. Disuse of muscles causes weakness.
    True    False

 

  1. How does the muscular system aid the skeletal system?
    A.  Provides attachment for muscles
    B.  Provides calcium for muscle contraction
    C.  Protects and moves bones
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true of smooth muscle?
    A.  Causes peristalsis in the digestive tract
    B.  Assists voiding of urine
    C.  Direct flow of blood
    D.  Assists in respiration

 

  1. A sudden, involuntary muscular contraction is a
    A.  spasm.
    B.  cramp.
    C.  sprain.
    D.  tendinitis.

 

  1. A _____ is caused by stretching or tearing of a muscle.
    A.  spasm
    B.  cramp
    C.  strain
    D.  tendinitis

 

  1. A chronic condition of achy pain, tenderness, and stiff muscles is called
    A.  a strain.
    B.  fibromyalgia.
    C.  tendinitis.
    D.  a cramp.

 

  1. A genetic disease of progressive muscle weakening and degeneration due to the lack of a protein is
    A.  fibromyalgia.
    B.  myasthenia gravis.
    C.  muscular dystrophy.
    D.  osteoarthritis.

 

  1. An autoimmune disease caused by a reduction of acetylcholine needed to stimulate skeletal muscles to contract is
    A.  fibromyalgia.
    B.  myasthenia gravis.
    C.  muscular dystrophy.
    D.  osteoarthritis.

 

  1. The correct name for Lou Gehrig’s disease is
    A.  fibromyalgia.
    B.  myasthenia gravis.
    C.  muscular dystrophy.
    D.  amyotropic lateral sclerosis.

 

  1. This disease is characterized by the death of motor neurons but does not affect intellect and sensation.
    A.  Amyotropic lateral sclerosis
    B.  Myasthenia gravis
    C.  Duchenne muscular dystrophy
    D.  Fibromyalgia

 

Chapter 09 The Sensory System

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. The signaling system begun by a stimulus is called a(n)
    A.  action potential.
    B.  all-or-none response.
    C.  receptor potential.
    D.  local potential.

 

  1. Which of the following are examples of chemoreceptors?
    A.  Taste
    B.  Olfaction
    C.  Proprioception
    D.  Taste and olfaction

 

  1. What type of receptor responds to changes in temperature?
    A.  Mechanoreceptor
    B.  Thermoreceptor
    C.  Photoreceptor
    D.  Chemoreceptor

 

  1. Nerve signals from the general body senses travel up the spinal cord to the thalamus and then to the
    A.  somatosensory area of the parietal lobe.
    B.  prefrontal area of the frontal lobe.
    C.  visual area of the occipital lobe.
    D.  primary motor area of the frontal lobe.

 

  1. Receptors can generate action potentials.
    True    False

 

  1. Proprioceptors are involved in the sense of
    A.  pain.
    B.  temperature.
    C.  pressure.
    D.  limb position.

 

  1. Information from muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are used for
    A.  maintaining equilibrium and posture.
    B.  processing pain.
    C.  registering pressure.
    D.  registering light touch.

 

  1. The function of muscle spindles is to detect
    A.  muscle or tendon stretch.
    B.  muscle or tendon contraction.
    C.  muscle or tendon relaxation.
    D.  None apply.

 

  1. The response to signals from muscle spindles is to
    A.  decrease the degree of muscle contraction.
    B.  increase the degree of muscle relaxation.
    C.  increase the degree of muscle contraction.
    D.  decrease the frequency of impulses to muscles.

 

  1. The response to signals from Golgi tendon organs is to
    A.  decrease the degree of muscle contraction.
    B.  decrease the degree of muscle relaxation.
    C.  increase the degree of muscle contraction.
    D.  None apply.

 

  1. The speed of the action potentials generated by a muscle spindle is proportional to the amount of muscle stretch.
    True    False

 

  1. Excessive muscle contraction will activate
    A.  muscle spindles.
    B.  Golgi tendon organs.
    C.  Merkel disks.
    D.  Meissner corpuscles.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a cutaneous receptor sensitive to fine touch?
    A.  Meissner corpuscles
    B.  Root hair plexus
    C.  Pacinian corpuscles
    D.  Merkel disks

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a cutaneous receptor sensitive to pressure?
    A.  Ruffini endings
    B.  Meissner corpuscles
    C.  Pacinian corpuscles
    D.  Krause end bulb

 

  1. Which of the following cutaneous receptors is NOT correctly matched with its stimulus?
    A.  Krause end bulbs – pressure
    B.  Free nerve endings – heat or cold
    C.  Pacinian corpuscles – fine touch
    D.  Ruffini endings – pressure

 

  1. What type of cutaneous receptor would be the first to respond to a touch that barely contacts the skin of the forearm?
    A.  Merkel disk
    B.  Pacinian corpusle
    C.  Meissner corpuscle
    D.  Root hair plexus

 

  1. Temperature receptors of the skin are
    A.  Ruffini endings.
    B.  Krause end bulbs.
    C.  Free nerve endings.
    D.  Merkel disks.

 

  1. Which type of cutaneous receptor would respond to the lightest pressure?
    A.  Krause end bulbs
    B.  Ruffini endings
    C.  Pacinian corpuscles
    D.  Meissner corpuscles

 

  1. Receptors all over the body are very specific in the type of stimulus they respond to.
    True    False

 

  1. The feeling of pain on the body surface that has its origin in an internal organ is called
    A.  nociception.
    B.  proprioception.
    C.  referred pain.
    D.  visceral pain.

 

  1. Nociceptors
    A.  are stimulated by chemicals released from damaged tissues.
    B.  detect pain.
    C.  are found in internal organs.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Somatic nociceptors are stimulated by excessive stretching of internal organs.
    True    False

 

  1. Pain receptors are stimulated by normal changes in chemicals.
    True    False

 

  1. When a person suffers a heart attack they often experience pain in their left shoulder and arm. What is this called and why does it occur?

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a stimulus that will activate a chemoreceptor?
    A.  Taste of pizza
    B.  Carbon dioxide level of the blood
    C.  Oxygen deprivation in a visceral organ
    D.  Smell of roses

 

  1. The sensory receptors for taste are located in
    A.  taste buds.
    B.  salivary glands.
    C.  the teeth.
    D.  the cheeks.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a primary taste?
    A.  Umami
    B.  Sweet
    C.  Bitter
    D.  Minty
    E.  Salty

 

  1. The gustatory (taste) area of the cerebrum is located in the
    A.  parietal lobe.
    B.  insula.
    C.  frontal lobe.
    D.  parietal lobe and insula.

 

  1. The bonding of chemicals to receptors on microvilli of the taste buds will initiate nerve impulses.
    True    False

 

  1. Taste buds are found on structures called lamellae.
    True    False

 

  1. Olfactory receptors are located on microvilli projecting from olfactory cells.
    True    False

 

  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT about olfaction (smell)?
    A.  Olfactory cells are modified neurons.
    B.  Olfactory cilia have receptors for odor molecules.
    C.  There are 23 primary odors.
    D.  What we taste is related to what we smell.

 

  1. The olfactory receptors are located
    A.  in the roof of the nasal cavity.
    B.  on nasal mucosa cilia.
    C.  in the back of the throat.
    D.  in the paranasal sinuses.

 

  1. The olfactory area of the cerebrum is located in the
    A.  insula.
    B.  parietal lobe.
    C.  temporal lobe.
    D.  frontal lobe.

 

  1. An emotional response to an odor means that the _______ is involved.
    A.  reticular activating system
    B.  limbic system
    C.  somatosensory area
    D.  cerebrospinal fluid

 

  1. Gustation and olfaction rely on each other to give complete perceptions of taste and smell.
    True    False

 

  1. Which of the following bones is NOT part of the orbit of the eye?
    A.  Ethmoid
    B.  Palatine
    C.  Zygomatic
    D.  Temporal

 

  1. The mucous membrane that lines the inside of the eyelids is called the
    A.  conjunctiva.
    B.  lacrimal apparatus.
    C.  aqueous humor.
    D.  sclera.

 

  1. The structure that produces tears is called the
    A.  conjunctiva.
    B.  lacrimal apparatus.
    C.  aqueous humor.
    D.  sclera.

 

  1. What is the purpose of blinking of the eyes?
    A.  Lubricate the eye surface
    B.  Protect the eye from infection
    C.  Remove debris from the eye surface
    D.  Lubricate and remove debris from eye surface

 

  1. The levator palpebrae superioris muscle will raise the eyebrows.
    True    False

 

  1. The conjunctiva covers the cornea.
    True    False

 

  1. The three pair of muscles attached to the outside of the eyeball that are used for eye movement are called ____ muscles.
    A.  intrinsic
    B.  extrinsic

 

  1. The medial rectus muscle
    A.  rolls the eye upward.
    B.  turns the eye outward, away from the midline.
    C.  turns the eye inward, toward the midline.
    D.  rotates the eye clockwise.

 

  1. The superior oblique muscle
    A.  rolls the eye upward.
    B.  turns the eye outward, away from the midline.
    C.  rotates the eye counterclockwise.
    D.  rotates the eye clockwise.

 

  1. The inferior rectus muscle
    A.  rolls the eye downward.
    B.  rotates the eye clockwise.
    C.  turns the eye inward, toward the midline.
    D.  rolls the eye upward.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a cranial nerve that innervates the extrinsic eye muscles?
    A.  Oculomotor
    B.  Abducens
    C.  Trigeminal
    D.  Trochlear

 

  1. Which eye muscle is innervated by the abducens nerve?
    A.  Lateral rectus muscle
    B.  Medial rectus muscle
    C.  Superior oblique muscle
    D.  Inferior rectus muscle

 

  1. Eyebrows have no function connected with the eyes. They are only cosmetic.
    True    False

 

  1. Photoreceptors are located in the
    A.  retina.
    B.  cornea.
    C.  choroids.
    D.  sclera.

 

  1. Absorption of stray light rays occurs in the
    A.  retina.
    B.  cornea.
    C.  choroid.
    D.  sclera.

 

  1. The lens is held in place by the
    A.  retina.
    B.  cornea.
    C.  choroids.
    D.  ciliary body.

 

  1. Protection and support is the function of the ____ of the eye.
    A.  retina
    B.  cornea
    C.  choroid
    D.  sclera

 

  1. What is the function of the iris?
    A.  Changes the shape of the lens
    B.  Absorbs stray light rays
    C.  Regulates the size of the pupil
    D.  Refracts light rays

 

  1. Changing the shape of the lens for near and far vision is called
    A.  refraction.
    B.  accommodation.
    C.  convergence.
    D.  transmutation.

 

  1. The anterior compartment of the eye is filled with a fluid called the
    A.  aqueous humor.
    B.  lacrimal secretions.
    C.  vitreous humor.
    D.  fovea centralis.

 

  1. What is the area that contains only cones for the most acute vision?
    A.  Vitreous body
    B.  Bipolar cell layer
    C.  Fovea centralis
    D.  Blind spot

 

  1. The muscle that controls the amount of light that enters the eye through the pupil is the
    A.  choroids.
    B.  suspensory ligament.
    C.  ciliary muscle.
    D.  iris.

 

  1. The posterior compartment of the eye is filled with a clear gel called the
    A.  aqueous humor.
    B.  lacrimal secretions.
    C.  vitreous humor.
    D.  fovea centralis.

 

  1. The lens of the eye rounds up or bulges
    A.  for distant vision.
    B.  for close vision.
    C.  when a person is frightened.
    D.  when sleeping.

 

  1. Which is (are) involved in refraction?
    A.  lens
    B.  iris
    C.  choriod
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT involved in refraction?
    A.  Cornea
    B.  Aqueous humor
    C.  Lens
    D.  Pupil

 

  1. Changing the shape of the lens to correctly focus light on the retina is called
    A.  refraction.
    B.  accommodation.
    C.  astigmatism.
    D.  presbyopia.

 

  1. The place where the optic nerve exits the eye is the
    A.  lens.
    B.  blind spot.
    C.  ciliary body.
    D.  fovea.

 

  1. Which of the following is (are) true of the rods?
    A.  See color
    B.  Function in dim light
    C.  Located in the fovea centralis
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. The cones are most densely packed in the
    A.  blind spot.
    B.  vitreous humor.
    C.  fovea centralis.
    D.  choroids.

 

  1. The photopigment rhodopsin is found in
    A.  rods.
    B.  cones.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a color pigment found in cones?
    A.  Red
    B.  Green
    C.  Yellow
    D.  Blue

 

  1. Which of the following is the correct pathway from the retina to the visual cortex?
    A.  Optic nerve, optic radiations, optic chiasma, ganglion cells, thalamus, optic tract, occipital lobe
    B.  Optic tract, ganglion cells, optic radiations, thalamus, optic chiasma, optic nerve, temporal lobe
    C.  Ganglion cells, optic nerve, optic chiasma, optic tract, thalamus, optic radiations, occipital lobe
    D.  Optic nerve, optic tract, optic chiasma, optic radiations, thalamus, ganglion cells, parietal lobe

 

  1. Where does the visual pathway cross so that each optic tract carries impulses from the opposite visual field?
    A.  Thalamus
    B.  Optic radiations
    C.  Optic chiasma
    D.  Optic nerve

 

  1. Both rods and cones are found with the same density in the entire retina.
    True    False

 

  1. Photoreceptors are the same as other types of receptors in that the stimulus of light causes the release of neurotransmitters, which then creates an action potential.
    True    False

 

  1. The image, ╓ is projected onto the retina as ╜.
    True    False

 

  1. Describe the focusing process of the eye.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain why someone with a vitamin A deficiency might have dim vision at night.

 

 

 

 

  1. The clouding of the lens is called
    A.  a cataract.
    B.  macular degeneration.
    C.  detached retina.
    D.  glaucoma.

 

  1. Blindness caused by abnormal blood vessel growth in the retina is
    A.  cataracts.
    B.  macular degeneration.
    C.  glaucoma.
    D.  conjunctivitis.

 

  1. People who can see close objects better than those far away have
    A.  hyperopia.
    B.  myopia.
    C.  presbyopia.
    D.  astigmatism.

 

  1. Nearsightedness is due to a(n)
    A.  shortened eyeball.
    B.  elongated eyeball.
    C.  damaged lens.
    D.  damaged cornea.

 

  1. The buildup of pressure due to an increased amount of aqueous humor is known as
    A.  cataracts.
    B.  glaucoma.
    C.  a sty.
    D.  astigmatism.

 

  1. The corrective lens for those with myopia is _________ which will diverge the light rays so that they focus on the retina.
    A.  concave
    B.  convex

 

  1. People who can see far objects better than those that are close have
    A.  hyperopia.
    B.  myopia.
    C.  presbyopia.
    D.  astigmatism.

 

  1. Farsightedness is due to a(n)
    A.  shortened eyeball.
    B.  elongated eyeball.
    C.  damaged lens.
    D.  damaged cornea.

 

  1. The corrective lens for those with hyperopia is _______ which will bend the light rays more so that they focus on the retina.
    A.  concave
    B.  convex

 

  1. Astigmatism is due to a(n)
    A.  shortened eyeball.
    B.  elongated eyeball.
    C.  misshapened cornea or lens.
    D.  increased pressure inside the eye.

 

  1. The external auditory canal is part of the
    A.  middle ear.
    B.  outer ear.
    C.  inner ear.

 

  1. The cochlea is part of the
    A.  middle ear.
    B.  outer ear.
    C.  inner ear.

 

  1. The ossicles are part of the
    A.  middle ear.
    B.  outer ear.
    C.  inner ear.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an ossicle?
    A.  Stapes
    B.  Malleus
    C.  Cochlea
    D.  Incus

 

  1. Which of the following is connected to the nasopharynx by the auditory (eustachian) tube?
    A.  Inner ear
    B.  Cochlea
    C.  Middle ear
    D.  Outer ear

 

  1. What structure does the stapes attach to?
    A.  Tympanic membrane
    B.  Oval window
    C.  Malleus
    D.  Round window

 

  1. What is the function of the auditory (eustachian) tube?
    A.  Equalizes air pressure in the middle ear
    B.  Allows fluid to drain out of the inner ear
    C.  Keeps infection out of the middle ear
    D.  Allows us to hear ourselves speak

 

  1. What structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear?
    A.  Auditory tube
    B.  Round window
    C.  Oval window
    D.  Tympanic membrane

 

  1. Which of the following structures is NOT involved in hearing?
    A.  Ossicles
    B.  Cochlea
    C.  Semicircular canals
    D.  Pinna

 

  1. The receptors for hearing and balance are in the
    A.  outer ear.
    B.  middle ear.
    C.  inner ear.

 

  1. Which of the following structures have hair cells as receptors?
    A.  Cochlea
    B.  Semicircular canals
    C.  Vestibule
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. The function(s) of the ossicles in hearing is (are)
    A.  equalize pressure in the middle ear.
    B.  magnifiying the sound waves about 20 times.
    C.  transferring the sound waves to the fluid of the inner ear.
    D.  Both magnifiying the sound waves about 20 times and transferring the sound waves to the fluid of the inner ear.

 

  1. The sense organ for hearing is the
    A.  crista ampullaris.
    B.  macula.
    C.  spiral organ.
    D.  saccule.

 

  1. We hear and control equilibrium with microscopic hair cells.
    True    False

 

  1. The auditory cortex is located in the
    A.  temporal lobe.
    B.  parietal lobe.
    C.  insula.
    D.  occipital lobe.

 

  1. Where is the spiral organ located?
    A.  Cochlear duct
    B.  Vestibular duct
    C.  Tympanic duct
    D.  Semicircular duct

 

  1. The hair cells of the organ of Corti have stereocilia embedded in the
    A.  basilar membrane.
    B.  tympanic membrane.
    C.  oval window.
    D.  tectorial membrane.

 

  1. What substance is found in the cochlear duct?
    A.  Endolymph
    B.  Air
    C.  Perilymph
    D.  Mucus

 

  1. The pitch of a sound depends on which part of the basilar membrane vibrates.
    True    False

 

  1. Which part of the spiral organ responds to low pitched sounds?
    A.  The tip
    B.  The middle
    C.  The base
    D.  Along the entire length

 

  1. The base of the spiral organ responds to low frequencies of sound.
    True    False

 

  1. Describe the process in which sound waves are conducted to the spiral organ.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following functions in gravitational equilibrium?
    A.  Saccule
    B.  Utricle
    C.  Semicircular canals
    D.  Both saccule and utricle are correct.

 

  1. Which of the following functions in rotational equilibrium?
    A.  Saccule
    B.  Utricle
    C.  Semicircular canals
    D.  Both saccule and utricle are correct.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of the semicircular canals?
    A.  Ampulla
    B.  Cupula
    C.  Otoliths
    D.  Endolymph

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT involved in the sense of equilibrium?
    A.  Vision
    B.  Hearing
    C.  Proprioceptors in joints and muscles
    D.  Cerebellum

 

  1. What structures in the utricle and saccule interact with the stereocilia to produce action potentials?
    A.  Ampullae
    B.  Cupulae
    C.  Otoliths
    D.  Cochlea

 

  1. Which ear component tells your brain that you are standing on your head?
    A.  Semicircular canals
    B.  Utricle
    C.  Spiral organ
    D.  Saccule

 

  1. Which ear component tells your brain that you are doing a sit-spin on the ice?
    A.  Semicircular canals
    B.  Utricle and saccule
    C.  Spiral organ
    D.  Ossicles

 

  1. Which ear component tells your brain that you slid forward on ice and ran into a wall?
    A.  Semicircular canals
    B.  Utricle
    C.  Spiral organ
    D.  Saccule

 

  1. Movement of fluid in the semicircular canals will cause the cupula to displace and bend the stereocilia to create an action potential.
    True    False

 

  1. The clouding of the lens is an aging condition of the eyes called
    A.  glaucoma.
    B.  presbyopia.
    C.  macular degeneration.
    D.  cataracts.

 

  1. Destruction of the macula lutea that contains the fovea centralis results in
    A.  glaucoma.
    B.  presbyopia.
    C.  macular degeneration.
    D.  cataracts.

 

  1. Age-related decline in hearing is called
    A.  presbycusis.
    B.  otosclerosis.
    C.  conduction deafness.
    D.  sensorineural deafness.

 

  1. Which aspect of a noise may affect hearing loss?
    A.  Loudness
    B.  Duration
    C.  Proximity
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Conduction deafness may be due to damage to the
    A.  organ of Corti.
    B.  incus, malleus, and stapes.
    C.  cochlear nerve.
    D.  All apply.

 

Chapter 11 Blood

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Platelets are found in the buffy coat that is the top layer in a tube of centrifuged blood.
    True    False

 

  1. The hematocrit is the volume of a blood sample made up of
    A. plasma.
    B. white blood cells.
    C. platelets.
    D. red blood cells.

 

  1. Fifty-five percent of blood is
    A. organic molecules.
    B. plasma.
    C. formed elements.
    D. blood cells.

 

  1. The formed elements of blood consist of
    A.  red blood cells.
    B.  white blood cells.
    C.  platelets.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Blood transports
    A.  oxygen.
    B.  glucose.
    C.  carbon dioxide.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Which of the following is a defensive function of blood?
    A.  Engulfing and destroying pathogens
    B.  Delivery of nutrients to cells
    C.  Distributing heat around the body
    D.  Regulating pH

 

  1. Which components of blood do NOT perform the defensive functions of blood?
    A.  Red blood cells
    B.  White blood cells
    C.  Antibodies
    D.  Platelets

 

  1. Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood?
    A.  Secreting antibodies
    B.  Forming a blood clot
    C.  Maintain water-salt balance
    D.  Removal of wastes from cells

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a regulatory function of blood?
    A.  Regulating body temperature
    B.  Regulating pH
    C.  Regulating capillary exchanges
    D.  Regulating osmotic pressure

 

  1. White blood cells defend the body against pathogens.
    True    False

 

  1. What percentage of plasma is water?
    A. 55%
    B. 92%
    C. 45%
    D. 8%

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma proteins?
    A. Gamma globulins form lipoproteins.
    B. Albumins contribute to osmotic pressure.
    C. Fibrinogen is needed for blood clotting.
    D. Beta globulins bind to metal ions for transport.

 

  1. The plasma proteins that have the greatest effect on osmotic pressure are
    A.  albumins.
    B.  fibrinogens.
    C.  globulins.
    D.  hormones.

 

  1. What is the function of dissolved salts in the plasma?
    A.  Maintain osmotic pressure and food for cells
    B.  Maintain pH and transport substances
    C.  Maintain osmotic pressure and pH
    D.  Transport and fight infection

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a nitrogenous waste found in the plasma?
    A.  Ammonia
    B.  Amino acids
    C.  Uric acid
    D.  Urea

 

  1. The process of blood cell formation is called
    A. hemostasis.
    B. hematopoiesis.
    C. coagulation.
    D. blood typing

 

  1. Where does the process of hematopoiesis occur in the adult?
    A.  Red bone marrow
    B.  Yellow bone marrow
    C.  Liver
    D.  Spleen

 

  1. The cells that give rise to red blood cells, platelets, and most white blood cells are called
    A.  erythroblasts.
    B.  megakaryoblasts.
    C.  lymphatic stem cells.
    D.  myeloid stem cells.

 

  1. What type of red bone marrow cells can become any type of formed element?
    A.  Myeloid stem cells
    B.  Multipotent stem cells
    C.  Totipotent stem cells
    D.  Lymphatic stem cells

 

  1. Red blood cells are also known as
    A. leukocytes.
    B. thrombocytes.
    C. erythrocytes.
    D. multipotent stem cells.

 

  1. The main component of a red blood cell is
    A. globulin.
    B. fibrinogen.
    C. albumin.
    D. hemoglobin.

 

  1. Hemoglobin
    A.  contains iron.
    B.  carries O2.
    C.  is a respiratory pigment.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. When the oxygen content of the blood is low, _____ is released by the kidneys to increase red blood cell production in the red bone marrow.
    A. erythropoietin
    B. renin
    C. aldosterone
    D. prothrombin

 

  1. The hormone that is released by the kidney that promotes the production of red blood cells is
    A. insulin.
    B. thyroxin.
    C. erythropoietin.
    D. estrogen.

 

  1. When erythrocytes are broken down, the heme group is excreted as
    A. amino acids.
    B. bile pigments.
    C. iron.
    D. erythropoietin.

 

  1. __________ is an increased rate of red blood cell destruction.
    A. Sickle-cell disease
    B. Hemolytic anemia
    C. Pernicious anemia
    D. Aplastic anemia

 

  1. __________ is a genetic blood disease.
    A. Sickle-cell disease
    B. Hemolytic anemia
    C. Pernicious anemia
    D. Aplastic anemia

 

  1. __________ is a blood disorder caused by the lack of vitamin B-12.
    A. Sickle-cell disease
    B. Hemolytic anemia
    C. Pernicious anemia
    D. Polycythemia

 

  1. An increase in the numbers of red blood cells that makes the blood too viscous is
    A. hemorrhagic anemia.
    B. hemolytic anemia.
    C. pernicious anemia.
    D. polycythemia.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a difference between erythrocytes and leukocytes?
    A. Leukocytes have a nucleus.
    B. Leukocytes are smaller.
    C. Leukocytes have no hemoglobin.
    D. Leukocytes are translucent unless stained.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of leukocytes?
    A. They fight infection.
    B. They destroy dead or dying body cells.
    C. They take oxygen to cells.
    D. They recognize and kill cancer cells.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a granular leukocyte?
    A.  Monocyte
    B.  Basophil
    C.  Eosinophil
    D.  Neutrophil

 

  1. Which type of white blood cell is the first to respond to an infection?
    A.  Monocyte
    B.  Eosinophil
    C.  Basophil
    D.  Neutrophil

 

  1. Which type of white blood cell stains red and helps to lessen an allergic reaction?
    A.  Lymphocyte
    B.  Eosinophil
    C.  Basophil
    D.  Monocyte

 

  1. Which of the following leukocytes IS correctly matched with its function?
    A.  Monocyte – fights against parasitic worms
    B.  Basophil – engulfs pathogens by phagocytosis
    C.  Neutrophil – becomes macrophages
    D.  Lymphocyte – responsible for specific immunity

 

  1. Which type of leukocyte has granules that release histamine and heparin?
    A.  Neutrophil
    B.  Monocyte
    C.  Basophil
    D.  Lymphocyte

 

  1. Which type of leukocyte is polymorphonuclear?
    A.  Neutrophils
    B.  Lymphocytes
    C.  Eosinophils
    D.  Basophils

 

  1. Leukemia involves
    A. uncontrolled production of abnormal white blood cells.
    B. a decrease in leukocyte production.
    C. a viral infection.
    D. a bacterial infection.

 

  1. Which type of white blood cell has the largest percentage in a blood sample?
    A.  Eosinophils
    B.  Neutrophils
    C.  Basophils
    D.  Lymphocytes

 

  1. Which type of leukocyte will enlarge in the tissues and become macrophages?
    A.  Lymphocytes
    B.  Monocytes
    C.  Eosinophils
    D.  Neutrophils

 

  1. Which type of leukocyte will produce antibodies?
    A.  Basophils
    B.  T lymphocytes
    C.  B lymphocytes
    D.  Monocytes

 

  1. Natural killer (NK) cells are a type of granular lymphocyte.
    True    False

 

  1. White blood cells have the ability to squeeze through pores in capillary walls into the tissues.
    True    False

 

  1. The globin portion of hemoglobin is converted to bilirubin and biliverdin which contribute to the color of the feces.
    True    False

 

  1. Higher oxygen concentration and a more basic pH will cause hemoglobin to take up oxygen.
    True    False

 

  1. Oxyhemoglobin gives blood a dark maroon color.
    True    False

 

  1. The average adult has between 3 to 4 million RBCs per mm3 of blood.
    True    False

 

  1. Mature red blood cells are capable of mitosis.
    True    False

 

  1. List the three types of formed elements in blood and give their general functions.

 

 

 

 

  1. Thrombocytes
    A.  have a nucleus.
    B.  are cell fragments.
    C.  are produced in the thymus.
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. Thrombocytes are complete cells.
    True    False

 

  1. Platelets generally have a very short life because they have no nucleus.
    True    False

 

  1. What type of cells do platelets come from?
    A.  Megakaryocytes
    B.  Reticulocytes
    C.  NK cells
    D.  Myeloblasts

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an event of hemostasis?
    A.  Coagulation
    B.  Platelet plug formation
    C.  Clot retraction
    D.  Vascular spasm

 

  1. What is the first event of hemostasis after the injury?
    A.  Vascular spasm
    B.  Coagulation
    C.  Cclot retraction
    D.  Platelet plug formation

 

  1. What substance is released by the damaged blood vessel to aid in the vascular spasm?
    A.  Heparin
    B.  Serotonin
    C.  Histamine
    D.  Thrombin

 

  1. What is needed for hemostasis?
    A.  Platelets
    B.  Proteins
    C.  Vitamin K
    D.  All apply.

 

  1. The __________ mechanism for activation of clotting comes from the blood.
    A. intrinsic
    B. extrinsic

 

  1. The extrinsic mechanism for activation of clotting comes from the
    A. blood.
    B. damaged tissue.
    C. external environment.
    D. central nervous system.

 

  1. Which of the following is the correct order of events of coagulation?
    (1) thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin
    (2) fibrin strands form the clot
    (3) prothrombin activator is formed
    (4) prothrombin converted to thrombin
    A. 4, 1, 2, 3
    B. 1, 2, 3, 4
    C. 3, 4, 1, 2
    D. 2, 1, 4, 3

 

  1. What vitamin is needed for the formation of prothrombin by the liver?
    A.  Vitamin B-12
    B.  Vitamin C
    C.  Vitamin K
    D.  Vitamin A

 

  1. What ion is necessary for coagulation?
    A. Na+
    B. K+
    C. Mg2+
    D. Ca2+

 

  1. Serum is plasma minus
    A. platelets.
    B. fibrinogen.
    C. prothrombin.
    D. Both fibrinogen and prothrombin are correct.

 

  1. What chemical will dissolve fibrin to remove a blood clot?
    A.  Prothrombin
    B.  Thrombin
    C.  Plasmin
    D.  Serum

 

  1. What can help prevent clots from forming in undamaged blood vessels?
    A.  Heparin from basophils and mast cells
    B.  Smooth endothelium of blood vessel walls
    C.  Prothrombin activator
    D.  Both heparin and a smooth endothelium are correct.

 

  1. Platelets in a damaged blood vessel can adhere to each other and exposed collagen fibers.
    True    False

 

  1. Compare plasma, tissue fluid, and serum with regard to composition.

 

 

 

 

  1. A low platelet count is called
    A. hemophilia.
    B. thrombus.
    C. thrombocytopenia.
    D. thromboembolism.

 

  1. A blood condition due to the lack of one or more clotting factors is
    A. hemophilia.
    B. thrombus.
    C. thrombocytopenia.
    D. embolus.

 

  1. A clot that forms in an unbroken blood vessel is a(n)
    A.  embolus.
    B.  stem cell.
    C.  plasmin.
    D.  thrombus.

 

  1. A circulating clot that then blocks a blood vessel is a(n)
    A.  embolus.
    B.  thromboembolism.
    C.  thrombus.
    D.  platelet plug.

 

  1. Blood type is determined by
    A. antigens in the plasma.
    B. antigens on red blood cells.
    C. antibodies in the plasma.
    D. antibodies on red blood cells.

 

  1. A person with blood type A has which antigen?
    A.  A
    B.  B
    C.  A and B
    D.  Neither A nor B

 

  1. A person with blood type B has which antibodies?
    A.  Anti-A
    B.  Anti-B
    C.  Anti-A and anti-B
    D.  No antibodies

 

  1. A person with type AB blood has ________ antigens.
    A.  A
    B.  B
    C.  both A and B
    D.  no

 

  1. A person with type O blood has ___________antibodies.
    A. anti-A
    B. anti-B
    C. both anti-A and anti-B
    D. no

 

  1. Which blood type is considered the universal donor type?
    A. Type A
    B. Type B
    C. Type AB
    D. Type O

 

  1. Why is Type AB blood considered the universal recipient?
    A. It has both antibodies in the plasma.
    B. It has no antibodies in the plasma.
    C. It has no antigens on the red blood cells.

 

  1. Mr. Jones has Type A blood and needs a transfusion. What type(s) could he safely be given?
    A. Type A only
    B. Type A or Type AB
    C. Type A or Type O
    D. Type O only

 

  1. Mrs. Smith needs a blood transfusion. She has Type O blood. What type(s) could she safely be given?
    A. Type AB only
    B. Type AB and Type O
    C. Type O only
    D. Type A, Type B, Type AB, or Type O

 

  1. When could an Rh-negative person get antibodies to the Rh antigen?
    A. at birth
    B. when exposed to Rh antigen
    C. an Rh-negative person will never get antibodies

 

  1. Which could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
    A.  Mother Rh-; father Rh+; baby Rh+
    B.  Mother Rh+; father Rh-; baby Rh-
    C.  Mother Rh-; father Rh-; baby Rh+
    D.  Mother Rh+; father Rh+; baby Rh-

 

  1. Rh immunoglobin (Rho-Gam)
    A. is used to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
    B. contains anti-Rh antibodies.
    C. contains Rh antigens.
    D. Both is used to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn and contains anti-Rh antibodies are correct.

 

  1. Cross-matching blood is important before a transfusion is given because there are other blood antigens that could cause agglutination.
    True    False

 

  1. Agglutination of blood may occur if anti-B antibodies come into contact with B antigens.
    True    False

 

  1. Agglutination may occur if a person with type B+ blood is given
    A.  type B- blood.
    B.  type B+ blood.
    C.  type O- blood.
    D.  type AB+ blood.

 

  1. Which of the following does NOT increase as one ages?
    A.  Anemias
    B.  Leukemias
    C.  Clotting disorders
    D.  Blood volume

 

  1. What type of test is used to detect blood in the stool?
    A.  Colonoscopy
    B.  Sonogram
    C.  Occult blood test
    D.  Type and match blood test

 

  1. Those persons who prefer a vegan diet are at risk for
    A.  iron-deficiency anemia.
    B.  leukemia.
    C.  colon cancer.
    D.  pernicious anemia.

 

  1. Clotting disorders can be associated with atherosclerosis in an elderly person.
    True    False

 

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