Microbiology A Human Perspective 7th Edition by Eugene Nester -Anderson-Roberts- Test Bank  

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Microbiology  A Human Perspective 7th Edition by Eugene Nester -Anderson-Roberts- Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

Ch03

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Eukaryotic cells are

A. less complex than prokaryotic cells.

 

B. members of the domains Bacteria and Archaea.

 

C. defined by the presence of a membrane bound nucleus.

 

D. able to reproduce more rapidly than prokaryotes.

 

E. less complex than prokaryotic cells, members of the domains Bacteria and Archaea AND able to reproduce more rapidly than prokaryotes.

 

2. The two magnifying lenses found in a light microscope are the

A. basic and transverse.

 

B. small and large.

 

C. ocular and objective.

 

D. simple and phase.

 

3. The resolving power of a microscope is described as the ability of the microscope to

A. separate clearly two objects that are very close together.

 

B. magnify an object.

 

C. separate the colors of an organism’s internal structure.

 

D. see structures at various depths in a tissue.

 

4. In viewing a microscopic specimen, oil is used to

A. increase the refraction.

 

B. decrease the refraction.

 

C. increase the reflection.

 

D. increase the resolution.

 

E. decrease the refraction AND increase the resolution.

 

5. The use of oil with certain high power objective lenses increases

A. magnification.

 

B. the amount of light that enters the objective lens.

 

C. resolution.

 

D. contrast.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

6. If everything else is equal, the best way to observe more details in a microscopic specimen is to

A. increase resolution.

 

B. increase magnification.

 

7. The microscope which allows the specimen to appear 3-dimensional is the

A. phase contrast microscope.

 

B. interference microscope.

 

C. fluorescence microscope.

 

D. dark-field microscope.

 

8. Which of the following microscope types would be least useful in viewing unstained living cells?

A. phase contrast

 

B. interference

 

C. bright-field

 

D. dark-field

 

9. Electron microscopes differ from light microscopes in that

A. electrons replace light.

 

B. electromagnets replace glass lenses.

 

C. resolution is higher.

 

D. magnification is higher.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

10. Specimens can be observed at the atomic level using a(n)

A. scanning electron microscope.

 

B. transmission electron microscope.

 

C. atomic force microscope.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

E. None of the choices is correct.

 

11. Individual atoms on the surface of prepared samples can be observed by using the

A. phase contrast microscope.

 

B. scanning electron microscope.

 

C. dark-field microscope.

 

D. atomic force microscope.

 

12. Basic dyes

A. have negative charges.

 

B. have positive charges.

 

C. are electrically neutral.

 

D. contain both positively and negatively charged particles.

 

13. Which of the following stains is/are considered differential?

A. capsule stain.

 

B. flagella stain.

 

C. acid-fast stain.

 

D. Gram stain.

 

E. acid-fast stain AND Gram stain.

 

14. The Gram stain and the endospore stain both use

A. basic dyes.

 

B. acidic dyes.

 

C. safranin.

 

D. methylene blue.

 

E. basic dyes AND safranin.

 

15. The order of reagents in the Gram stain reaction are

A. safranin, alcohol, methylene blue, iodine.

 

B. crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin.

 

C. methylene blue, alcohol, safranin.

 

D. crystal violet, alcohol, iodine, safranin.

 

16. Which may result in Gram-positive bacteria appearing to be Gram-negative?

A. decolorizing too long

 

B. decolorizing too short

 

C. using old cultures

 

D. using young cultures

 

E. decolorizing too long AND using old cultures

 

17. The major criteria used in placing bacteria into different groups is based on differences in

A. cell wall structure.

 

B. cell membrane permeability.

 

C. presence or absence of flagella.

 

D. detergent susceptibility.

 

18. In a basic staining procedure, which is the correct order?

A. fix, smear, stain

 

B. smear, fix, stain

 

C. fix, stain, decolorize

 

D. smear, decolorize, stain

 

19. The acid-fast stain

A. reflects differences in cytoplasmic membrane structure.

 

B. is useful for distinguishing a small group of organisms, including Mycobacterium.

 

C. uses crystal violet and safranin.

 

D. uses carbolfuchsin and methylene blue.

 

E. is useful for distinguishing a small group of organisms, including Mycobacterium AND uses carbolfuchsin and methylene blue.

 

20. Capsules

A. take up stain well.

 

B. may correlate with an organism’s ability to cause disease.

 

C. are typically “negatively” stained.

 

D. are stained as a wet mount.

 

E. may correlate with an organism’s ability to cause disease, are typically “negatively” stained AND are stained as a wet mount.

 

21. The endospore stain

A. is applicable to only a few groups of bacteria.

 

B. usually shows the spores as green structures among a background of pink cells.

 

C. uses crystal violet as the primary stain.

 

D. is an example of a negative stain.

 

E. is applicable to only a few groups of bacteria AND usually shows the spores as green structures among a background of pink cells.

 

22. Which fluorescent stain would be useful for distinguishing between dead and living bacteria?

A. acridine orange

 

B. auramine

 

C. rhodamine

 

D. CTC

 

23. Immunofluorescence

A. uses fluorescently tagged molecules.

 

B. makes use of the specificity in binding of antibodies.

 

C. utilizes acridine orange.

 

D. would require a special UV microscope.

 

E. uses fluorescently tagged molecules, makes use of the specificity in binding of antibodies AND would require a special UV microscope.

 

24. Which term(s) refer(s) to bacterial morphology?

A. Bacillus

 

B. coccus

 

C. bacillus

 

D. polyhedral

 

E. coccus AND bacillus

 

25. Which is not true of the cytoplasmic membrane?

A. It defines the boundaries of the cell.

 

B. It is a semipermeable barrier.

 

C. It consists mainly of a fixed, static phospholipid bilayer.

 

D. It uses proteins as selective gates and sensors.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

26. Which is true of simple diffusion of water?

A. Water usually enters a cell and produces a tremendous osmotic pressure.

 

B. Water usually leaves the cell and produces negative osmotic pressure.

 

C. Water tends to enter and leave the cell equally, resulting in no pressure in the cell.

 

D. The diffusion ultimately relies on the selectively permeable nature of the cell membrane.

 

E. Water usually enters a cell and produces a tremendous osmotic pressure AND the diffusion ultimately relies on the selectively permeable nature of the cell membrane.

 

27. The cytoplasmic membrane of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes functions to

A. form endoplasmic reticulum.

 

B. produce energy.

 

C. regulate movement of molecules which enter and leave the cell.

 

D. form lysosomes and golgi apparatus.

 

28. The proteins of bacteria that are involved in the movement of small molecules into the cell, are called

A. transport proteins.

 

B. permeases.

 

C. carriers.

 

D. peptidases.

 

E. transport proteins, permeases AND carriers.

 

29. Most solutes pass through the cytoplasmic membrane via

A. osmosis.

 

B. diffusion.

 

C. transport proteins.

 

D. secretion.

 

30. Facilitated diffusion and active transport

A. both transport molecules into or out of a cell.

 

B. are both not very specific as to which molecules are transported.

 

C. both require a concentration gradient to function.

 

D. both require an expenditure of energy in order to transport the molecules.

 

E. both require a concentration gradient to function AND both require an expenditure of energy in order to transport the molecules.

 

31. The macromolecule found in the cell walls of all bacteria is

A. diaminopimelic acid.

 

B. teichoic acid.

 

C. peptidoglycan.

 

D. glycocalyx.

 

32. Which is(are) true concerning the cell wall of prokaryotes?

A. It determines the shape of the bacteria.

 

B. It prevents the bacteria from bursting.

 

C. It contains peptidoglycan.

 

D. It may be targeted by antimicrobials.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

33. Which amino acid(s) is/are found only in the cell walls of bacteria?

A. glycerol

 

B. L-form of glycine

 

C. diaminopimelic acid

 

D. L-form of methionine

 

E. L-form of glycine AND L-form of methionine

 

34. The cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria

A. contains a thin layer of peptidoglycan.

 

B. contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan.

 

C. is, due to its thickness, an excellent barrier to most molecules.

 

D. contains an outer membrane containing LPS.

 

E. contains a thin layer of peptidoglycan AND contains an outer membrane containing LPS.

 

35. Which molecules are associated with the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria?

A. peptidoglycan

 

B. D-form amino acids

 

C. teichoic acids

 

D. LPS

 

E. peptidoglycan, D-form amino acids AND teichoic acids

 

36. The cell wall of Gram-negative organisms

A. has a thick peptidoglycan layer.

 

B. has a thin peptidoglycan layer.

 

C. is more permeable to various molecules than the Gram-positive cell wall.

 

D. is characterized by an outer membrane containing LPS.

 

E. has a thin peptidoglycan layer AND is characterized by an outer membrane containing LPS.

 

37. Endotoxin

A. consists of LPS.

 

B. determines bacterial shape.

 

C. may have different effects depending on the specific bacterial source.

 

D. is toxic due to the effects of the peptide side chains.

 

E. determines bacterial shape, may have different effects depending on the specific bacterial source AND is toxic due to the effects of the peptide side chains.

 

38. Penicillin would be most effective against

A. non-growing bacteria.

 

B. growing bacteria.

 

C. Gram-positive bacteria.

 

D. Gram-negative bacteria.

 

E. growing bacteria AND Gram-positive bacteria.

 

39. Peptidoglycan

A. may be digested by penicillin.

 

B. consists of a long string of NAG coupled to a long string of NAM.

 

C. may be digested by lysozyme.

 

D. is used to construct a spheroplast.

 

40. Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall?

A. Treponema pallidum

 

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

 

C. Staphylococcus aureus

 

D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

 

41. The capsule

A. may be used for protection.

 

B. may be used to help the bacteria adhere to surfaces.

 

C. may be involved in movement.

 

D. may be involved in energy production.

 

E. may be used for protection AND may be used to help the bacteria adhere to surfaces.

 

42. The structures used for motility in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes are

A. cilia.

 

B. flagella.

 

C. pili.

 

D. fimbriae.

 

43. Movement in bacteria

A. is directly to or away from a stimulus.

 

B. relies on the beating of cilia.

 

C. is often referred to as run and tumble.

 

D. may involve pili.

 

E. is often referred to as run and tumble AND may involve pili.

 

44. Extrachromasomal DNA is found in ____________________________.

A. mitochondria

 

B. plasmids

 

C. nucleoid

 

D. nucleoli

 

E. mitochondria AND plasmids

 

45. Endospores are

A. a dormant cell type.

 

B. a form of reproduction.

 

C. an obligate intracellular parasite.

 

D. sensitive to damaging environmental conditions.

 

46. Eukaryotic cells

A. are more obviously compartmentalized than prokaryotes.

 

B. usually have a single circular supercoiled piece of DNA.

 

C. contain peptidoglycan in the cell wall.

 

D. have the same size ribosomes as prokaryotes.

 

E. usually have a single circular supercoiled piece of DNA AND contain peptidoglycan in the cell wall.

 

47. The membranes of eukaryotes and mycoplasma

A. contain peptidoglycan.

 

B. contain sterols for “strength”.

 

C. contain ergosterol.

 

D. are fixed static structures.

 

48. Phagocytosis

A. is the ingestion of particles and may be performed by animal cells.

 

B. is the ingestion of particles and may be performed by bacteria.

 

C. is the secretion of proteins.

 

D. is the formation of a lysosome.

 

E. is the ingestion of particles and may be performed by bacteria AND is the formation of a lysosome.

 

49. The cytoskeleton

A. is a dynamic structure composed of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments.

 

B. is a static structure that gives a rigid shape to the cell.

 

C. consists of flagella and cilia that are internalized.

 

D. is not necessary for movement or reproduction.

 

E. is a static structure that gives a rigid shape to the cell, consists of flagella and cilia that are internalized AND is not necessary for movement or reproduction.

 

50. The nucleus

A. is a double membrane sac containing DNA and is found in eukaryotes.

 

B. is a single phospholipid membrane sac containing prokaryotic DNA.

 

C. is a smaller structure contained within the eukaryotic nucleolus.

 

D. cannot transport molecules to the cytoplasm due to the double membrane barrier.

 

51. Which is not true of mitochondria and chloroplasts?

A. They are found in all organisms.

 

B. They contain DNA and 70S ribosomes.

 

C. They are capable of performing protein synthesis.

 

D. They generate ATP.

 

52. An advantage of the smaller size of prokaryotes, compared to eukaryotes, is

A. high surface area relative to low cell volume.

 

B. more rapid growth rates.

 

C. compartmentalization of cellular processes in membrane-bound organelles.

 

D. predators, parasites, and competitors constantly surround them.

 

E. high surface area relative to low cell volume AND more rapid growth rates.

 

 

True / False Questions

53. Bacillus and Clostridium are medically relevant groups of bacteria that characteristically stain acid-fast.

True    False

 

54. LPS is found in the outer membrane of Gram-positive bacteria.

True    False

 

55. Drugs that target prokaryotic protein synthesis would have no effect on eukaryotic protein synthesis.

True    False

 

56. Penicillin affects the synthesis of phospholipids, thereby producing weak membranes and lysis of the bacteria.

True    False

 

57. Endospores are involved in bacterial reproduction.

True    False

 

58. Lysosomes are bags of digestive enzymes found in prokaryotic cells.

True    False

 

59. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis.

True    False

 

60. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are thought to have once been free living bacteria that invaded another cell.

True    False

 

61. Cilia and flagella project from the cell and are not covered by cytoplasmic membrane.

True    False

 

62. Prokaryotes may ingest particles via phagocytosis.

True    False

Ch05

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Lister developed his ideas on prevention of infection during medical procedures after studying the work of

A. Koch.

 

B. Pasteur.

 

C. Jenner.

 

D. Fleming.

 

2. One of the first chemicals used by Lister to prevent surgical infections was

A. alcohol.

 

B. iodine.

 

C. carbolic acid.

 

D. mercury.

 

3. The process of killing or removing all of the microorganisms in or on a material is termed

A. sterilization.

 

B. disinfection.

 

C. sanitation.

 

D. antisepsis.

 

4. A sterile item is free of

A. microbes.

 

B. endospores.

 

C. viruses.

 

D. prions.

 

E. microbes, endospores AND viruses.

 

5. A suffix used to describe a killing action would be

A. -static.

 

B. -cidal.

 

C. -cillin.

 

D. -tion.

 

6. Pasteurization

A. is the use of heat to sterilize food products.

 

B. is the use of heat to reduce numbers of pathogenic/spoilage bacteria in a food item to a safe level.

 

C. is a process which uses intense cold to kill microorganisms on foods.

 

D. is a process which uses short bursts of radiation to kill microorganisms on foods.

 

7. Plain soap is very effective in controlling spread of microorganisms because it is

A. bacteriostatic.

 

B. very effective at the mechanical removal of microorganisms.

 

C. virucidal.

 

D. bactericidal.

 

8. Nosocomial infections

A. are acquired at various social events.

 

B. are acquired while in the hospital.

 

C. occur because of a susceptible population and presence of disease causing organisms.

 

D. are acquired at sporting events.

 

E. are acquired while in the hospital AND occur because of a susceptible population and presence of disease causing organisms.

 

9. To reduce or eliminate disease/spoilage causing organisms, food is often subjected to

A. heat.

 

B. chemical additives.

 

C. radiation.

 

D. cold.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

10. Which of the following organisms are resistant to destruction by typical control methods?

A. endospores of Bacillus and Clostridium

 

B. Pseudomonas

 

C. naked viruses

 

D. Mycobacterium spp.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

11. A common environmental organism that may even grow in certain chemical disinfectants is

A. Escherichia coli.

 

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

 

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

 

D. enveloped virus.

 

12. Upon treatment with heat or chemicals, bacteria will

A. all die immediately.

 

B. die at a constant proportion.

 

C. die at an exponential rate.

 

D. die at a geometric rate.

 

13. In a one D process, how many D values would it take to reduce a population of 1010 cells to one survivor?

A. 2

 

B. 4

 

C. 5

 

D. 10

 

14. If a process kills 90% of the organisms per minute, how many minutes would it take to kill all organisms when starting with 100,000 organisms?

A. 1 minute

 

B. 2 minutes

 

C. 3 minutes

 

D. 6 minutes

 

15. Microbial death rates may be affected by

A. pH.

 

B. temperature.

 

C. the presence of organics.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

16. In order to speed up the sterilization process, which of the following would be useful?

A. drying the material

 

B. washing/mechanical removal of bacteria/organic matter

 

C. addition of organics

 

D. nothing

 

E. washing/mechanical removal of bacteria/organic matter AND addition of organics

 

17. Moist heat kills microorganisms by

A. irreversible coagulation of proteins.

 

B. destruction of carbohydrates in the cell wall.

 

C. denaturation of nucleic acids.

 

D. dissolving the capsule.

 

18. Boiling is not reliable for sterilization because

A. heat sensitive instruments may be destroyed.

 

B. heat resistant endospores are unaffected.

 

C. water boils at a higher temperature at lower altitudes.

 

D. viruses are more sensitive to heat than bacteria.

 

19. Typical conditions used for sterilization are

A. 100°C for 10 minutes.

 

B. 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.

 

C. 80°C for 15 minutes.

 

D. 72°C for 15 seconds.

 

20. Which are essentially equivalent treatments?

A. dry 200°C heat for 1.5 hours; wet 121°C heat for 15 minutes

 

B. dry 160°C heat for 1.0 hour; wet 200°C heat for 30 minutes

 

C. dry 121°C heat for 1.5 hours; wet 200°C heat for 15 minutes

 

D. dry 100°C heat for 2.0 hours; wet 100°C heat for 30 minutes

 

21. Which of the following is not a sterilization method?

A. hot air oven

 

B. autoclave

 

C. pasteurization

 

D. filtration

 

22. Which of the following methods sterilize the materials?

A. Pasteurization

 

B. High-temperature-short-time pasteurization (HTST)

 

C. Ultrahigh-temperature (UHT) method

 

D. None of these are sterilization methods

 

23. The autoclave treatment may be monitored by

A. heat-sensitive tape.

 

B. heat-resistant endospores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus.

 

C. pressure indicators alone.

 

D. waiting for contaminants to appear on freshly poured media.

 

E. heat sensitive tape AND heat-resistant endospores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus.

 

24. Commercial canning processes

A. are geared to destroy Clostridium botulinum spores.

 

B. kill all endospores.

 

C. are especially needed on low acid foods.

 

D. are 12D processes (designed to kill 1012 endospores).

 

E. are geared to destroy Clostridium botulinum spores, are especially needed on low acid foods, AND are 12D (designed to kill 1012 endospores) processes.

 

25. Oxidation of proteins is achieved most readily

A. by moist heat.

 

B. by moist heat under pressure.

 

C. in a hot air oven.

 

D. in the presence of organics.

 

26. A common application of dry heat in the microbiology laboratory is to

A. prepare specimens for study.

 

B. sterilize media.

 

C. sterilize plastics.

 

D. sterilize the inoculating loop.

 

27. Liquid media containing heat-sensitive components would best be sterilized by

A. Ultraviolet (UV) light at 500 nm.

 

B. freezing.

 

C. lyophilization.

 

D. membrane filtration.

 

28. Generally, membrane filters are not used to remove

A. bacteria from liquids.

 

B. microorganisms from gases.

 

C. spoilage agents from alcoholic beverages.

 

D. enzymes.

 

29. Gamma rays cause biological damage in living systems by

A. producing reactive molecules such as superoxide and hydroxyl free radicals.

 

B. causing tiny gravity sinks and black holes to be formed in the substance.

 

C. introducing toxins.

 

D. making the substance radioactive.

 

30. Gamma irradiation

A. has not been approved for use on food.

 

B. can be used to either sterilize or pasteurize, depending on the dose of radiation.

 

C. leaves some radioactive particles in the treated substance.

 

D. usually kills by disrupting cell membranes.

 

31. Which would be most effective against Pseudomonas?

A. alcohol

 

B. radiation

 

C. quaternary ammonium compounds

 

D. iodophors

 

32. Ultraviolet radiation at the bactericidal wavelength destroy bacteria by

A. destroying endospores.

 

B. damaging nucleic acid.

 

C. preventing spore formation.

 

D. denaturing proteins.

 

33. Microwaves do not kill organisms directly but kill by

A. the heat they generate in a product.

 

B. generating free radicals.

 

C. generating toxins.

 

D. creating thymine dimers.

 

34. Chemical germicides

A. may react irreversibly with proteins/enzymes.

 

B. may react with cytoplasmic membranes or viral envelopes.

 

C. may be disinfecting or even sterilizing.

 

D. are sensitive to dilution factor, time of contact, and temperature of use.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

35. Alcohols are not reliably effective at destroying

A. vegetative bacteria.

 

B. enveloped viruses.

 

C. naked viruses.

 

D. endospores.

 

E. naked viruses AND endospores.

 

36. Glutaraldehyde

A. is, if given enough time, able to destroy all forms of microbial life.

 

B. is very good for use on heat-sensitive medical items.

 

C. attacks lipids.

 

D. does not affect naked viruses.

 

E. is, if given enough time, able to destroy all forms of microbial life AND is very good for use on heat-sensitive medical items.

 

37. Chlorhexidine

A. is a member of the biguanides.

 

B. is extensively used in antiseptics.

 

C. is ineffective against vegetative bacteria.

 

D. is limited in use due to its high toxicity.

 

E. is a member of the biguanides AND is extensively used in antiseptics.

 

38. Ethylene oxide is gas that

A. is very useful for sterilizing heat or moisture sensitive items.

 

B. is potentially carcinogenic.

 

C. is used as a 37% aqueous solution.

 

D. is effective against all microorganisms except endospores and viruses.

 

E. is very useful for sterilizing heat or moisture sensitive items AND is potentially carcinogenic.

 

39. Chlorine

A. readily reacts with organics to produce potentially carcinogenic trihalomethanes.

 

B. is an effective, inexpensive, disinfectant able to destroy all types of microorganisms.

 

C. is unaffected by the presence of organic material.

 

D. is ineffective when diluted.

 

E. readily reacts with organics to produce potentially carcinogenic trihalomethanes AND is an effective, inexpensive, disinfectant able to destroy all types of microorganisms.

 

40. Which is true of iodine?

A. It does not readily kill endospores.

 

B. It may be used as an antiseptic or as a disinfectant.

 

C. It is important to use it at the recommended dilution.

 

D. It is usually found as tinctures or iodophors.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

41. Which of the following is true of hydrogen peroxide?

A. It is a sterilant for inanimate objects and is quickly inactivated on living tissue.

 

B. It leaves a toxic residue.

 

C. It is broken down by catalase into water and oxygen.

 

D. It is even more effective when used in combination with peracetic acid.

 

E. It is a sterilant for inanimate objects and is quickly inactivated on living tissue; it is broken down by catalase into water and oxygen AND it is even more effective when used in combination with peracetic acid.

 

42. Phenolics

A. denature proteins and destroy cytoplasmic membranes.

 

B. remain effective in the presence of detergents or organic material.

 

C. such as triclosan, have been used widely in various lotions and soaps.

 

D. reliably inactivate all groups of viruses.

 

E. denature proteins and destroy cytoplasmic membranes, remain effective in the presence of detergents or organic material, AND phenolics such as triclosan, have been used widely in various lotions and soaps.

 

43. Hexachlorophene has been particularly effective against

A. Staphylococcus aureus.

 

B. Micrococcus aureus.

 

C. Escherichia coli.

 

D. Enterobacter aerogenes.

 

44. Quaternary ammonium compounds are

A. cationic detergents which help wash surfaces.

 

B. attracted to the negative charge on the microbial cell surface.

 

C. used as a 37% aqueous solution.

 

D. very effective against Pseudomonas.

 

E. cationic detergents which help wash surfaces AND attracted to the negative charge on the microbial cell surface.

 

45. The most important function of nitrites in processed foods is to

A. prevent browning.

 

B. inhibit the germination of Clostridium botulinum endospores.

 

C. prevent carcinogen formation.

 

D. make the food more acidic.

 

46. Which of the following is(are) considered when selecting a germicidal chemical?

A. toxicity

 

B. cost

 

C. compatibility with the material being treated

 

D. environmental impact

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

47. Silver sulfadiazine, a combination of silver and a sulfa drug, is used to

A. disinfect water for drinking.

 

B. prevent infection of surgical wounds.

 

C. prevent infection of second- and third-degree burns.

 

D. counteract lead poisoning.

 

E. treat bites from werewolves.

 

48. Compounds of tin, mercury, arsenic, and copper are no longer used to prevent microbial growth in cooling water primarily because

A. antibiotics are cheaper.

 

B. other chemicals were shown to be much more effective.

 

C. microbes developed resistance to these metals.

 

D. their use contributes to serious pollution of natural waters.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

True / False Questions

49. Prions and viroids are easily destroyed by common sterilization procedures.

True    False

 

50. The endospores of Pseudomonas make that organism very difficult to kill.

True    False

 

51. Upon heat treatment, bacteria die at a constant proportion.

True    False

 

52. The more bacteria one starts with, the longer it will take to kill them all.

True    False

 

53. Heat treatment is an effective method for sterilization or disinfection of all materials.

True    False

 

54. Boiling is very effective at removing most common waterborne pathogens.

True    False

 

55. Pasteurization results in the sterilization of food products.

True    False

 

56. Dry heat takes a much shorter time to sterilize material than wet heat.

True    False

 

57. 100% ethanol is twice as effective as 60% ethanol at controlling bacteria.

True    False

 

58. Generally, heavy metals, except silver, have been proven to be too toxic for use on human tissue and are no longer used medically.

True    False

 

59. Hydrogen peroxide may be used as a sterilant on living tissue.

True    False

 

60. Cold and freezing are very effective in killing bacteria.

True    False

 

61. Organic acids, such as benzoic acid, are often added to foods to prevent microbial growth.

True    False

 

 

Ch07

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The phrase “one gene-one enzyme” is associated with the work of

A. Lederberg.

 

B. Watson and Crick.

 

C. Beadle and Tatum.

 

D. Mendel.

 

2. The two strands of DNA are bonded to one another by

A. covalent bonds.

 

B. oxygen bonds.

 

C. hydrogen bonds.

 

D. carbon bonds.

 

3. Which pairing is incorrect?

A. A:T

 

B. G:C

 

C. A:U

 

D. A:G

 

4. What structure is indicated by: 10A, 15T, 3G, 7C?

A. double-stranded RNA

 

B. double-stranded DNA

 

C. single-stranded RNA

 

D. single-stranded DNA

 

5. Rotating the following answers any way necessary, but NOT changing their sequence, which is/are complementary to the sequence 5′ AGGCUAAC 3′?

A. 5′ TCCGATTG 3′

 

B. 3′ TCCGATTC 5′

 

C. 5′ CTTAGCCT 3′

 

D. 3′ TAAGCTTA 5′

 

E. 3′ TCCGATTC 5′ AND 5′ CTTAGCCT 3′

 

6. GCCCAAAG is a molecule of

A. RNA.

 

B. DNA.

 

C. protein.

 

D. cannot tell as written.

 

7. RNA is characterized by which one of the following features?

A. Deoxyribose.

 

B. Thymine.

 

C. Ribose.

 

D. Double-stranded.

 

8. DNA is characterized by which of the following feature(s)?

A. Ribose.

 

B. Single-stranded.

 

C. Deoxyribose.

 

D. Thymine.

 

E. Deoxyribose AND thymine.

 

9. Which is not true of RNA?

A. It is usually single-stranded.

 

B. It functions in the cytoplasm.

 

C. It contains uracil.

 

D. It contains ribose.

 

E. There are 4 functional types.

 

10. The 3′ end of DNA

A. refers to the end that has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 3 carbon of deoxyribose.

 

B. attaches to the 5′ phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide.

 

C. always has thymine attached to it.

 

D. usually has guanine attached to it.

 

E. refers to the end that has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 3 carbon of deoxyribose AND attaches to the 5′ phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide.

 

11. Which of the following is/are true of DNA replication?

A. It starts at the origin of replication.

 

B. Nucleotides are added to the 3′ end.

 

C. It requires an RNA primer to get started.

 

D. It utilizes polymerases.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

12. DNA replication is

A. conservative.

 

B. interspersive.

 

C. semiconservative.

 

D. chain reference.

 

13. Which is true about DNA replication?

A. It is semiconservative.

 

B. It starts at an origin of replication.

 

C. It is bi-directional.

 

D. It requires RNA primers.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

14. The term antiparallel

A. refers to the structure of single-stranded RNA.

 

B. is synonymous with semiconservative.

 

C. refers to the opposite orientation of the two strands in DNA.

 

D. refers to a type of prokaryotic replication.

 

15. The lagging strand

A. is the third type of RNA.

 

B. is found during RNA replication.

 

C. is necessary due to the properties of the enzymes and the antiparallel nature of DNA.

 

D. is always the bottom strand.

 

16. Which is true about the RNA transcript?

A. It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template.

 

B. It has the same 5′-3′ orientation as the DNA positive strand.

 

C. It is made in short fragments that are then stitched together.

 

D. The template starts at the promoter region.

 

E. It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template, it has the same 5′-3′ orientation as the DNA positive strand AND the template starts at the promoter region.

 

17. Which is true about prokaryotic (bacterial) RNA polymerase?

A. It is used during transcription.

 

B. It does not require a primer.

 

C. It has a detachable subunit, sigma factor, which recognizes the promoter.

 

D. It reads the template in the 3′-5′ direction.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

18. The specific sequence of nucleotides in the DNA to which the RNA polymerase binds is the

A. regulatory region.

 

B. promoter region.

 

C. sigma region.

 

D. core region.

 

19. The transcription terminator

A. results in a hairpin loop structure in RNA.

 

B. results in the polymerase falling off the DNA template.

 

C. stops DNA polymerase.

 

D. adds a terminator nucleotide to the RNA.

 

E. results in a hairpin loop structure in RNA AND results in the polymerase falling off the DNA template.

 

20. How many nucleotides are in a codon?

A. 1

 

B. 2

 

C. 3

 

D. 4

 

E. 5

 

21. There are _____ codons to code for the 20 possible amino acids.

A. 20

 

B. 30

 

C. 64

 

D. 61

 

22. The genetic code has more than one codon for some amino acids. This is an example of

A. evolution.

 

B. stringency.

 

C. degeneracy.

 

D. translation.

 

23. Which may be or is an RNA molecule?

A. AGCCTAC

 

B. GGGCCCA

 

C. GCCCUUA

 

D. AGCCTAC AND GGGCCCA

 

E. GGGCCCA AND GCCCUUA

 

24. Which molecule carries an anticodon?

A. DNA

 

B. mRNA

 

C. rRNA

 

D. tRNA

 

25. AUG

A. is only used as the start codon.

 

B. codes for methionine.

 

C. determines the reading frame.

 

D. is one of the stop codons.

 

E. codes for methionine AND determines the reading frame.

 

26. The amino acid that is placed first during translation in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts is

A. glycine.

 

B. methionine.

 

C. N-formyl-methionine.

 

D. serine.

 

27. The placement of the amino acid during translation is determined by the

A. DNAse which transcribes both molecules.

 

B. complementarity of the codon-anticodon.

 

C. sequence of nucleotides at the 5′ end of the tRNA.

 

D. secondary structure of the newly forming protein.

 

28. What is the number of tRNA molecules that may be associated with translation?

A. more than 100

 

B. 75

 

C. 64

 

D. less than 64

 

29. The P-site

A. is found on the polymerase enzyme.

 

B. is an allosteric site.

 

C. is a promoter site.

 

D. is the peptidyl site on the ribosome.

 

E. is an allosteric site AND is a promoter site.

 

30. The A-site

A. is found on the RNA polymerase enzyme.

 

B. is found on the 30S ribosome.

 

C. is found on the 70S ribosome.

 

D. is the amino acid site.

 

E. is found on the 70S ribosome AND is the amino acid site.

 

31. The E-site

A. is found on the RNA polymerase enzyme.

 

B. is responsible for the release of the tRNA.

 

C. is found on the 35S polysome.

 

D. is the eminoacyl site.

 

E. is responsible for the release of the tRNA AND is the eminoacyl site.

 

32. A stop codon

A. codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine.

 

B. forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.

 

C. codes for no amino acid.

 

D. enhances the binding of the e-polymerase.

 

E. codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine AND forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.

 

33. Post-translational modification may include

A. formation of exons and introns.

 

B. folding of the protein, often with the aid of chaperones.

 

C. removal of the signal sequence.

 

D. addition of glycine tags.

 

E. folding of the protein, often with the aid of chaperones AND removal of the signal sequence.

 

34. The ribosomes

A. move along the tRNA in a 3′-5′ direction.

 

B. move along the mRNA in a 5′-3′ direction.

 

C. move along the DNA in a 5′-3′ direction.

 

D. provide a platform which brings the amino acids into a favorable position for joining.

 

E. move along the mRNA in a 5′-3′ direction AND provide a platform which brings the amino acids into a favorable position for joining.

 

35. Some segments of the precursor mRNA in eukaryotes are non-coding and are called

A. exons.

 

B. introns.

 

C. integrans.

 

D. uselessans.

 

36. “Junk DNA”

A. are also called introns.

 

B. are also called exons.

 

C. may have regulatory roles.

 

D. have no known function.

 

E. are also called exons AND have no known function.

 

F. are also called introns AND may have regulatory roles.

 

37. Ribozymes

A. are complexes of ribosomes and RNA.

 

B. are self-catalytic RNA.

 

C. suggest that nucleic acids evolved before proteins.

 

D. are enzymes that degrade RNA and therefore have potential for clinical applications.

 

E. are self-catalytic RNA AND suggest that nucleic acids evolved before proteins.

 

38. The scientists responsible for the idea that RNA can act as a catalyst were

A. Watson and Crick.

 

B. Beadle and Tatum.

 

C. Altman and Cech.

 

D. Lederberg and Stanley.

 

39. Gene regulation may entail

A. turning on genes only when needed.

 

B. turning off genes when not needed.

 

C. turning on or off entire groups of genes.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

40. The regulatory protein

A. binds to the promoter region of DNA.

 

B. may inhibit or enhance transcription.

 

C. may control translation of the operon.

 

D. affects the activity of the DNA polymerase.

 

E. binds to the promoter region of DNA AND affects the activity of the DNA polymerase.

 

41. Operon(s) in bacteria

A. refers to a group of genes that are coordinately controlled.

 

B. involve polycistronic mRNA.

 

C. involve monocistronic mRNA.

 

D. are also known as Wagnerons.

 

E. refers to a group of genes that are coordinately controlled AND involve polycistronic mRNA.

 

42. The set of genes in bacteria that are linked together and transcribed as a single unit is referred to as a(n)

A. operon.

 

B. regulon.

 

C. operator.

 

D. repressor.

 

43. The DNA site to which the repressor protein binds is the

A. operon.

 

B. regulon.

 

C. operator.

 

D. repressor.

 

44. The molecules that bind to a repressor and cause it to no longer bind to the operator are called

A. activators.

 

B. repressors.

 

C. introns.

 

D. inducers.

 

45. Repressors

A. are involved in negative control.

 

B. are involved in positive control.

 

C. always bind to the promoter.

 

D. bind or do not bind to the operator depending on their shape (conformation).

 

E. are involved in negative control AND bind or do not bind to the operator depending on their shape (conformation).

 

46. Activators

A. are involved in negative control.

 

B. are involved in positive control.

 

C. always bind to the promoter.

 

D. are allosteric proteins.

 

E. are involved in positive control AND are allosteric proteins.

 

47. Negative control means a regulator molecule is

A. bound and transcription starts.

 

B. removed and transcription is inhibited.

 

C. bound and transcription is inhibited.

 

D. removed and transcription starts.

 

E. bound and transcription is inhibited AND removed and transcription starts.

 

48. Glucose

A. is preferentially used over lactose in E. coli as a result of catabolite repression.

 

B. levels are directly sensed via catabolite repression.

 

C. levels are the inverse of cAMP levels.

 

D. levels directly affect the production of lactose dehydrogenase.

 

E. is preferentially used over lactose in E. coli as a result of catabolite repression AND levels are the inverse of cAMP levels.

 

49. The lac operon

A. is an example of negative control.

 

B. is affected by catabolite repression.

 

C. produces lactose.

 

D. is an example of a regulon.

 

E. is an example of negative control AND is affected by catabolite repression.

 

50. CAP

A. is involved in positive control.

 

B. stands for cyclic amp protein.

 

C. works in conjunction with cAMP.

 

D. is involved in negative control.

 

E. is involved in positive control AND works in conjunction with cAMP.

 

51. RNAi

A. is the form of mRNA that initiates translation.

 

B. uses short pieces of single stranded RNA to direct the degradation of specific RNA transcripts.

 

C. is a mechanism of genetic regulation found in eukaryotes.

 

D. is any chemical that inhibits transcription.

 

E. uses short pieces of single stranded RNA to direct the degradation of specific RNA transcripts AND is a mechanism of genetic regulation found in eukaryotes.

 

52. Signal transduction

A. is the relay of information about conditions outside a cell to inside the cell.

 

B. often relies on a two component system.

 

C. may involve phosphorylation of various molecules.

 

D. is used by certain pathogens to sense low magnesium conditions.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

53. Quorum sensing

A. is used by bacteria to sense the density of cells.

 

B. involves the production and monitoring of the amount of homoserine lactone present.

 

C. is used by bacteria to limit the density of bacteria.

 

D. is used by eukaryotes to sense the presence of bacteria.

 

E. is used by bacteria to sense the density of cells AND involves the production and monitoring of the amount of homoserine lactone present.

 

54. In DNA sequence analysis

A. the + strand of DNA is used.

 

B. the start codon is ATG.

 

C. ORFs are searched for.

 

D. codon usage is a helpful indicator for protein coding areas.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

True / False Questions

55. Adenine binds to thymine via 3 hydrogen bonds.

True    False

 

56. One end of a strand of DNA is different from the other end.

True    False

 

57. DNA replication is usually unidirectional.

True    False

 

58. There are 4 functional types of RNA.

True    False

 

59. The minus strand of DNA serves as the template for RNA production.

True    False

 

60. Antisense RNA is the complement of the plus strand and may be useful in inhibiting translation.

True    False

 

61. The genetic code is universal.

True    False

 

62. A codon consists of 2 nucleotides.

True    False

 

63. The anticodon determines which amino acid is linked to its tRNA.

True    False

 

64. Ribozymes are non-protein molecules with catalytic activity.

True    False

 

 

 

Ch09

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Short tandem repeats (STRs)

A. are useful in identifying specific individuals

 

B. are important sites in vectors where foreign DNA can be integrated

 

C. are errors that can arise during DNA sequencing

 

D. are DNA fragments generated during PCR

 

2. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) in humans

A. is always donated to the offspring from both parents

 

B. can be used to identify related people

 

C. can be isolated only from intact embryos

 

D. can be used to establish paternity

 

3. DNA molecules that contain pieces of DNA from two different sources are defined as

A. biotechnology.

 

B. gene cloning.

 

C. recombinant DNA.

 

D. genetic engineering.

 

4. A common vector used for cloning genes is/are

A. bacteria.

 

B. viruses.

 

C. nucleotides.

 

D. plasmids.

 

5. The molecules used as molecular scissors in genetic engineering is/are

A. exonucleases.

 

B. proteases.

 

C. restriction enzymes.

 

D. RNA polymerase.

 

6. Digestion of DNA by restriction enzymes

A. produces sticky ends.

 

B. produces blunt ends.

 

C. cuts both strands of the DNA molecule.

 

D. generates restriction fragments.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

7. Restriction enzymes have proved so useful in manipulating DNA because

A. they cut at defined sites.

 

B. the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of any type of DNA.

 

C. they protect eukaryotes against virus attack.

 

D. they cut RNA molecules.

 

E. they cut at defined sites AND the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of any type of DNA.

 

8. The molecule(s) that act as molecular glue to bind DNA fragments together is/are

A. DNAse.

 

B. DNA ligase.

 

C. ligandase.

 

D. polymerase.

 

E. DNAse AND ligandase.

 

9. Agarose gel electrophoresis separates nucleic acid fragments according to

A. density.

 

B. shape.

 

C. size.

 

D. sequence.

 

10. A dye often used for its ease and sensitivity to visualize nucleic acid after agarose gel electrophoresis is

A. nigrosin.

 

B. malachite green.

 

C. gold oxide.

 

D. ethidium bromide.

 

11. The energy to separate fragments during agarose gel electrophoresis is supplied by

A. gravity.

 

B. active transport.

 

C. agarosis.

 

D. electricity.

 

12. The agarose used in electrophoresis

A. interacts electrically with the DNA.

 

B. chemically binds to the DNA.

 

C. acts as a sieve.

 

D. selectively sorts recombinant DNA from host DNA.

 

13. The gene for human insulin has been successfully cloned in

A. S. aureus.

 

B. yeast.

 

C. E. coli.

 

D. rhinovirus.

 

14. Genetic engineering

A. allows the use of bacteria as production factories for a number of molecules.

 

B. relies on recombinant DNA technology.

 

C. is dependent on RNA enzymes.

 

D. relies completely on conjugation.

 

E. allows the use of bacteria as production factories for a number of molecules AND relies on recombinant DNA technology.

 

15. Genetic engineering of plants has so far produced

A. pest resistant plants.

 

B. plants that are herbicide resistant.

 

C. plants with increased nutritional value.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

16. The entire set of cloned fragments of the complete human genome is termed a

A. book of genes.

 

B. recombinant gene.

 

C. DNA library.

 

D. restructured genome.

 

17. An ideal vector

A. may be a plasmid or bacteriophage.

 

B. has a restriction enzyme recognition site.

 

C. contains an origin of replication.

 

D. contains a selectable marker.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

18. Host cells containing recombinant DNA can be selected on the basis of the properties of the

A. vector.

 

B. ribosomes.

 

C. enzymes.

 

D. virus.

 

19. Selecting for transformants involves

A. identifying organisms that have taken up recombinant DNA.

 

B. searching for RNA.

 

C. production of proteins.

 

D. production of DNA.

 

20. Laboratory strains of E. coli are desirable hosts because

A. it is easy to grow.

 

B. its genetics is well known.

 

C. it is especially able to express foreign genes.

 

D. it has known phenotypic characteristics.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

21. A danger in using E. coli in cloning is that

A. E. coli could cause disease.

 

B. the human cells may reject the insertion.

 

C. the exons may invert the introns.

 

D. the outer membrane is poisonous to humans.

 

22. When a vector that employs the lacZ gene as a second marker is used in a cloning experiment, bacteria that harbor the recombinant DNA will give rise to

A. red colonies.

 

B. white colonies.

 

C. blue colonies.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

23. Goal(s) of gene cloning may be to produce

A. a protein.

 

B. many copies of the gene to be used as a probe.

 

C. many copies of the gene for sequencing.

 

D. more copies of the host cell.

 

E. a protein, many copies of the gene to be used as a probe AND many copies of the gene for sequencing.

 

24. In order to get around the lack of ability of prokaryotes to remove introns from precursor RNA, it may be necessary to

A. use the DNA directly.

 

B. use the DNA after it has been processed.

 

C. use different promoters.

 

D. turn mRNA into cDNA.

 

E. use the DNA directly AND use the DNA after it has been processed.

 

25. Which of the following genera has proved useful for manipulating plant cells?

A. Escherichia

 

B. Bacillus

 

C. Pseudomonas

 

D. Agrobacterium

 

26. The Ti plasmid is naturally found in

A. E. coli.

 

B. Pseudomonas.

 

C. Agrobacterium.

 

D. Staphylococcus.

 

E. E. coli AND Staphylococcus.

 

27. The Ti plasmid is used as a vector to transfer DNA into

A. viruses.

 

B. bacteria.

 

C. plant cells.

 

D. animal cells.

 

28. Genetically modified food has raised some concerns because

A. it contains radioactive particles.

 

B. it may contain some unanticipated allergens.

 

C. it may have some unintended environmental effects.

 

D. the modified DNA may transfer to other organisms.

 

E. it may contain some unanticipated allergens, it may have some unintended environmental effects AND the modified DNA may transfer to other organisms.

 

29. The current cost of sequencing a human genome is about

A. $ 10,000

 

B. $ 250,000

 

C. $ 1,000,000

 

D. $ 4,000,000

 

30. Knowing the sequence of a genome is useful in

A. identifying genetic alterations associated with disease.

 

B. studying evolutionary relationships.

 

C. determining protein sequences.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

31. Dideoxynucleotides

A. are useful in nucleic acid sequencing.

 

B. have two additional hydroxyl groups at the 2′ and 3′ carbons.

 

C. act as chain initiators.

 

D. act as chain terminators.

 

E. are useful in nucleic acid sequencing AND act as chain terminators.

 

32. The polymerase chain reaction is used to duplicate small sections of

A. DNA.

 

B. RNA.

 

C. proteins.

 

D. lipids.

 

33. The polymerase chain reaction is used to

A. amplify certain sections of DNA.

 

B. amplify mRNA.

 

C. produce proteins.

 

D. produce long polymers of carbohydrates to be used in electrophoresis.

 

34. PCR is particularly useful in

A. detecting viable yet non-culturable organisms.

 

B. assessing impure (multiple types of bacteria present) samples.

 

C. dealing with very small numbers of bacteria.

 

D. relatively quickly producing results.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

35. Double-stranded DNA will separate into two strands when exposed to

A. high temperature.

 

B. high pH.

 

C. low temperature.

 

D. low salt.

 

E. high temperature AND high pH.

 

36. Starting with a single piece of dsDNA, after 3 PCR cycles there are

A. 2 additional pieces of dsDNA.

 

B. 4 additional pieces of dsDNA.

 

C. 8 additional pieces of dsDNA.

 

D. 16 additional pieces of dsDNA.

 

37. Taq polymerase is

A. a reverse transcriptase.

 

B. an RNA polymerase.

 

C. from E. coli.

 

D. a heat stable DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus.

 

E. an RNA polymerase AND from E. coli.

 

38. PCR produces

A. DNA fragments of all possible sizes.

 

B. DNA fragments that are one nucleotide larger than the next fragment.

 

C. DNA fragments of a particular size.

 

D. DNA fragments of increasing size.

 

E. DNA fragments that are one nucleotide larger than the next fragment AND DNA fragments of increasing size.

 

39. The size of the amplified DNA fragment generated during PCR is determined by

A. how many cycles are performed.

 

B. the size of the template DNA.

 

C. the location to which the primers anneal.

 

D. how much Taq is used.

 

40. DNA probes

A. may be obtained from denatured tagged dsDNA.

 

B. may be obtained from similar genes from another organism.

 

C. may be synthesized usually using information based on the protein sequence.

 

D. are usually tagged dsRNA.

 

E. may be obtained from denatured tagged dsDNA, may be obtained from similar genes from another organism AND may be synthesized usually using information based on the protein sequence.

 

41. A common way to identify the E. coli that carries the desired recombinant DNA is by using a

A. vector.

 

B. probe.

 

C. host.

 

D. plasmid.

 

42. DNA microarray technology

A. may use many DNA fragments that function like probes.

 

B. attaches nucleotides to a solid support such as a glass slide.

 

C. relies on arrays that contain a detectable tag.

 

D. uses nucleic acid hybridization.

 

E. may use many DNA fragments that function like probes, attaches nucleotides to a solid support such as a glass slide AND uses nucleic acid hybridization.

 

43. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

A. uses virus hosts.

 

B. uses a labeled probe.

 

C. is useful in microbial ecology.

 

D. allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples.

 

E. uses a labeled probe, is useful in microbial ecology AND allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples.

 

 

True / False Questions

44. Agarose gel electrophoresis may be considered as a partial purification technique.

True    False

 

45. Most eukaryotic genes are cloned directly into the vector for expression in prokaryotes.

True    False

 

46. PCR is useful for amplifying a particular section of DNA.

True    False

 

47. PCR typically results in the generation of fragments of all sizes.

True    False

 

48. Vectors must have at least one restriction enzyme recognition site.

True    False

 

49. A very common vector is a plasmid.

True    False

 

50. When using lacZ containing vectors, colonies containing intact vector turn blue.

True    False

 

51. DNA probes are used to find regions of complementary DNA.

True    False

 

52. FISH uses labeled probes to detect specific whole cells.

True    False

 

53. A DNA microarray contains oligonucleotides that contain a label.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

54. Possessing the entire sequence of a particular human genome may not be as useful as we think.  Why not?

A. Every human genome is different enough that knowing ONE human’s DNA sequence can’t tell us almost anything about ALL humans.

 

B. It’s not the DNA sequence that matters-we need to know the mRNA sequence of the human genome.

 

C. Due to the presence of introns/exons, and splicing of RNA after transcription, the DNA sequence doesn’t necessarily tell us the exact number/type of proteins that will eventually be made from it.

 

D. The amount of ‘junk DNA’ present in the human genome masks any useful genetic information that we’d like to obtain.

 

55. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to perform DNA sequencing reactions.  In this case, are 2 primers (a forward and a reverse) necessary?

A. Yes-you can’t perform PCR without 2 specific primers to amplify the region in question in the DNA.

 

B. No-dideoxynucleotide sequencing depends on different length fragments being formed and then separated based on size.  This can take place with only a specific forward OR a specific reverse primer.

 

C. No-you actually need a primer pair for each round of DNA amplification…so you’ll need many, many primer pairs.

 

D. Yes-and it will be important to make sure that the primer pairs are made with dideoxynucleotides that are labeled with fluorescent dyes.  Otherwise, you won’t be able to detect the fragments that are made in the PCR process.

 

56. In a FISH experiment, what would happen if unbound probe was not washed off?

A. Nothing-it’s not necessary to wash off the unbound probe.

 

B. You would get false positive results in different areas where the probe hadn’t actually bound, but it was still sitting there and lighting up.

 

C. Your FISH would be floating at the top of the tank due to the toxicity of the probe building up within them.

 

D. Nothing-the target nucleotide sequences are labeled, not the probe.  Therefore, excess unbound probe wouldn’t matter for the experiment.

 

57. A graduate student wants to clone a particular gene into a plasmid.  The sequence includes AluI and BamHI sites on both sides of the desired fragment.  AluI cuts symmetrically directly between the G and C nucleotides in a palindromic 5′ AGCT 3′ sequence.  BamHI cuts asymmetrically directly between the G and G nucleotides in a palindromic 5′ GGATCC 3′ sequence.  Which of the two restriction endonucleases should the graduate student choose, and why?

A. BamHI to cut both sides-since it cuts asymmetrically, it’ll leave the sticky, cohesive single-strand DNA ends that will make it easier to ligate into a BamHI-cut plasmid DNA sequence.

 

B. AluI to cut both sides-it’s always easier to ligate together blunt ends of DNA.  She should also use AluI on the plasmid she wants to put the fragment into.

 

C. BamHI on the fragment, and AluI on the plasmid-this will give her the matching sequences to anneal/ligate together on the fragment/plasmid combination.

 

D. BamHI on one side of the fragment, and AluI on the other side-this would keep the fragment from sticking right back to where it was cut out from in the original DNA.

Ch11

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. It has been estimated that 99% of the intestinal bacteria are

A. facultative anaerobes.

 

B. obligate aerobes.

 

C. facultative aerobes.

 

D. obligate anaerobes.

 

2. The methanogens

A. are part of the Archaea.

 

B. oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane.

 

C. appear only in aerobic environments.

 

D. use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor.

 

E. are part of the Archaea AND oxidize hydrogen gas to produce methane.

 

3. Methanogens often grow in association with

A. nitrifying bacteria.

 

B. lithotrophic bacteria.

 

C. photosynthetic bacteria.

 

D. fermentative bacteria.

 

4. Comparatively greater energy is released when

A. carbon dioxide is the final electron acceptor.

 

B. hydrogen is the final electron acceptor.

 

C. nitrate is the final electron acceptor.

 

D. oxygen is the final electron acceptor.

 

5. Hydrogen sulfide

A. is produced when sulfur compounds are used as terminal electron acceptors.

 

B. may react with iron to produce a black precipitate.

 

C. is produced by Desulfovibrio.

 

D. has a rotten egg smell.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

6. Endospores

A. are a form of reproduction.

 

B. are a dormant form of a bacterium.

 

C. are formed by members of medically relevant groups of bacteria.

 

D. are involved in anaerobic respiration.

 

E. are a dormant form of a bacterium AND are formed by members of medically relevant groups of bacteria.

 

7. Lactic acid bacteria such as Lactococcus

A. produce catalase.

 

B. are obligate fermenters.

 

C. require anaerobic environments.

 

D. use oxygen as a final electron acceptor.

 

8. Streptococcus pyogenes

A. is alpha-hemolytic.

 

B. is gamma-hemolytic.

 

C. is beta-hemolytic.

 

D. may form endospores.

 

E. is alpha-hemolytic AND may form endospores.

 

9. The lactobacilli, in their role as normal flora of the vagina, help the vagina resist infection by contributing to

A. the neutrality of the vaginal mucus.

 

B. acidity of the vagina.

 

C. food for the resident vaginal flora.

 

D. fertility of the host.

 

10. Which of the following colonize the vagina during childbearing years?

A. Streptococci

 

B. Clostridium

 

C. Lactobacilli

 

D. Enterobacter

 

E. Clostridium AND Lactobacilli

 

11. A particular characteristic of disease-causing Streptococcus is

A. catalase production.

 

B. beta-hemolysis.

 

C. lactic acid production.

 

D. growth at refrigerator temperatures.

 

12. Propionibacterium

A. produces propionic acid.

 

B. produces lactic acid.

 

C. is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese.

 

D. requires aerobic environments.

 

E. produces propionic acid AND is responsible for the holes in Swiss cheese.

 

13. Which of the following microbes is(are) important to cheese-making?

A. lactic acid bacteria

 

B. Clostridium acetylbutylicum

 

C. Desuflovibrio

 

D. Propionibacterium

 

E. lactic acid bacteria AND Propionibacterium

 

14. Clostridium, Lactobacillus, and Propionibacterium all

A. use sulfur compounds as terminal electron acceptors.

 

B. oxidize inorganic compounds.

 

C. oxidize organic compounds.

 

D. use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors.

 

E. oxidize organic compounds AND use organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors.

 

15. Which of the following contains bacteriochlorophyll?

A. Bacillus subtilus

 

B. Staphylococcus aureus

 

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

 

D. E. coli

 

E. Chromatium, Thiospirillum, Thidictyon

 

16. Anoxygenic phototrophs

A. produce oxygen.

 

B. use water as a source of electrons.

 

C. use hydrogen sulfide or organic compounds as a source of electrons.

 

D. use the same form of chlorophyll found in terrestrial plants.

 

E. produce oxygen AND use the same form of chlorophyll found in terrestrial plants.

 

17. The purple sulfur and green sulfur bacteria

A. both use hydrogen sulfide as a source of electrons.

 

B. generate oxygen.

 

C. preferentially use organic molecules as an electron source.

 

D. both lack gas vesicles.

 

18. The earliest oxygenic phototrophs are thought to be

A. purple sulfur bacteria.

 

B. green nonsulfur bacteria.

 

C. purple nonsulfur bacteria.

 

D. cyanobacteria.

 

E. green nonsulfur bacteria AND purple nonsulfur bacteria.

 

19. Cyanobacteria

A. are a form of algae.

 

B. are prokaryotes.

 

C. use hydrogen sulfide as an electron source.

 

D. are eukaryotes.

 

20. Phycobiliproteins are

A. found in purple sulfur bacteria.

 

B. found in cyanobacteria.

 

C. used to gather wavelengths of light that are not well absorbed by chlorophyll.

 

D. are used to reduce hydrogen sulfide.

 

E. found in cyanobacteria AND used to gather wavelengths of light that are not well absorbed by chlorophyll.

 

21. The genus of bacteria that is able to fix nitrogen and form heterocysts is

A. Pseudomonas.

 

B. Escherichia.

 

C. Vibrio.

 

D. Anabaena.

 

22. Heterocysts

A. are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria.

 

B. are used to protect nitrogenase.

 

C. produce catalase.

 

D. generate oxygen.

 

E. are found in nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria AND are used to protect nitrogenase.

 

23. Purple sulfur bacteria and filamentous sulfur-oxidizers both

A. accumulate sulfur as intracellular granules.

 

B. fix nitrogen.

 

C. produce oxygen from carbon dioxide.

 

D. use gliding motility.

 

24. Sulfuric acid is

A. involved in bioleaching.

 

B. produced by unicellular sulfur-oxidizers.

 

C. produced by Lactobacillus.

 

D. a result of reduction of metal sulfides.

 

E. involved in bioleaching AND produced by unicellular sulfur-oxidizers.

 

25. The conversion of ammonia to nitrate could be accomplished by the presence of

A. Nitrosomonas alone.

 

B. Nitrobacter alone.

 

C. Anabaena alone.

 

D. both Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.

 

26. The Gram-positive rod that is also acid-fast and is a human pathogen is

A. Corynebacterium diptheria.

 

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

 

C. Streptococcus pyogenes.

 

D. Listeria monocytogenes.

 

27. Which organism(s) is/are acid-fast?

A. Nocardia

 

B. Pseudomonas

 

C. E. coli

 

D. Mycobacterium

 

E. Nocardia AND Mycobacterium

 

28. Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of Hansen’s disease (leprosy)?

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

 

B. Mycobacterium avium

 

C. Mycobacterium leprae

 

D. Mycobacterium smegmatis

 

29. Pseudomonas

A. are resistant to many disinfectants and antimicrobials.

 

B. are mostly harmless except for the opportunistic P. aeruginosa.

 

C. require nutrient rich environments.

 

D. do not contain plasmids.

 

E. are resistant to many disinfectants and antimicrobials AND are mostly harmless except for the opportunistic P. aeruginosa.

 

30. Thermus and Deinococcus

A. survive in extreme environments.

 

B. are both thermophilic.

 

C. are both radiation resistant.

 

D. both serve as the source of Taq polymerase.

 

31. Members of the family Enterobacteriaceae

A. include E. coli, Enterobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella.

 

B. include many medically relevant bacteria.

 

C. primarily reside in the intestinal tract of humans and animals.

 

D. are facultative anaerobes.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

32. Coliforms

A. are an informal grouping of enterics.

 

B. ferment lactose.

 

C. includes E. coli.

 

D. are used as indicators of fecal contamination.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

33. Bacteria that may form endospores include

A. E. coli.

 

B. Pseudomonas and Micrococcus.

 

C. Clostridium and Bacillus.

 

D. Enterococcus and Deinococcus.

 

34. Azotobacter

A. forms endospores.

 

B. forms cysts.

 

C. fixes carbon dioxide.

 

D. are used as an indicator of fecal pollution.

 

35. Streptomyces

A. resemble fungi in their pattern of growth.

 

B. produce a number of antibiotics.

 

C. produce a characteristic blue green pigment.

 

D. form endospores.

 

E. resemble fungi in their pattern of growth AND produce a number of antibiotics.

 

36. Complex structures called fruiting bodies are a characteristic of

A. Clostridia.

 

B. myxobacteria.

 

C. Streptomyces.

 

D. lactic acid bacteria.

 

37. Agrobacterium

A. contain the Ti plasmid which modifies the growth of plant tissue.

 

B. produce antibiotics.

 

C. infect animal cells.

 

D. resemble fungus.

 

38. Rhizobium

A. fix nitrogen inside nodules on the roots of legumes.

 

B. resemble fungi.

 

C. produce antibiotics.

 

D. produce a gall in plants.

 

39. Which causes uncontrolled growth of plant tissue, resulting in a tumor?

A. Rhizobium

 

B. Agrobacterium

 

C. Bacillus anthracis

 

D. Yersinia pestis

 

40. Sphaerotilus and Leptothrix are examples of

A. purple sulfur bacteria.

 

B. Enterobacteriaceae.

 

C. sheathed bacteria.

 

D. green nonsulfur bacteria.

 

41. Swarmer cells are

A. formed by Myxobacteria.

 

B. formed by sheathed bacteria.

 

C. also known as coliforms.

 

D. part of the green nonsulfur bacteria.

 

42. Bdellovibrio

A. prey on other bacteria.

 

B. are parasites of plants.

 

C. may fix nitrogen.

 

D. are photosynthetic.

 

43. Luminescence

A. is catalyzed by luciferase.

 

B. may be controlled by quorum sensing.

 

C. may be produced by bacteria.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

44. Movement of spirochetes occurs by means of structures called

A. cilia.

 

B. flagella.

 

C. axial filaments.

 

D. pili.

 

45. Many spirochetes are difficult to cultivate, so their classification is based on their

A. morphology and ability to cause disease.

 

B. number of flagella.

 

C. pattern of pili.

 

D. number of chromosomes.

 

46. Each axial filament is made up of fibrils identical in structure to

A. cilia.

 

B. pili.

 

C. flagella.

 

D. pseudopods.

 

47. Helicobacter pylori

A. inhabit the stomach.

 

B. inhabit squid ink sacs.

 

C. cause crown gall in plants.

 

D. have axonemes.

 

48. Organisms that typically produce colonies with a fried egg appearance are the

A. Mycoplasma.

 

B. Actinomyces.

 

C. Chlamydia.

 

D. Mycobacteria.

 

49. Mycoplasma

A. lack peptidoglycan.

 

B. are the smallest free-living organisms.

 

C. have sterols in their membranes.

 

D. are killed by penicillin.

 

E. lack peptidoglycan, are the smallest free-living organisms AND have sterols in their membranes.

 

50. Treponema and Borrelia

A. are luminescent.

 

B. are endosymbionts.

 

C. are spirochaetes.

 

D. are both easily grown on artificial media.

 

51. Which of the following is/are obligate intracellular parasites?

A. Chlamydia and Rickettsia

 

B. E. coli and Pseudomonas

 

C. Mycoplasma

 

D. Treponema pallidum

 

52. Reticulate and elementary bodies are two forms of

A. Mycoplasma.

 

B. Caulobacter.

 

C. Chlamydia.

 

D. Myxobacteria.

 

53. Wolbachia are found only in

A. hot springs.

 

B. plants.

 

C. mammals.

 

D. arthropods.

 

54. The Euryarchaeota includes all

A. known thermophilic extreme acidophiles.

 

B. the bacteria.

 

C. known methanogens.

 

D. green sulfur bacteria.

 

55. Members of the Archaea typically thrive in conditions of excessive

A. heat.

 

B. acidity.

 

C. alkalinity.

 

D. salinity.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

56. Archaea are typically found living in extreme environments. An exception to this are the

A. sulfur-oxidizing archaea.

 

B. sulfur-reducing archaea.

 

C. methanogens.

 

D. sulfur-oxidizing archaea AND sulfur-reducing archaea.

 

 

True / False Questions

57. The skin and oral cavity may have anaerobic microenvironments.

True    False

 

58. Lactic acid bacteria such as Streptococcus are obligate fermenters that can exist in an aerobic environment due to their use of catalase to mitigate the presence of oxygen.

True    False

 

59. Bacteria and Archaea both have members that use sulfur compounds as a terminal electron acceptor.

True    False

 

60. Anoxygenic phototrophs grow photosynthetically only under aerobic conditions.

True    False

 

61. Obligate aerobes may transform energy via fermentation.

True    False

 

62. The most medically relevant species of Pseudomonas is P. aeruginosa.

True    False

 

63. Endospores of Bacillus stearothermophilus are used in testing autoclave operation.

True    False

 

64. Streptomyces produce a number of antibiotics.

True    False

 

65. Rhizobium is considered an endosymbiont with plants.

True    False

 

66. Chlamydia occurs in two forms, a reticulate body and an elementary body.

True    False

 

Ch13

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The term filterable viruses was coined by

A. Beijerinck.

 

B. Iwanowsky.

 

C. Twort.

 

D. d’Herelle.

 

2. Crystallization of Tobacco Mosaic Virus was accomplished by

A. Berkley.

 

B. Stanley.

 

C. Iwanowsky.

 

D. Twort.

 

3. Viruses that infect bacteria are referred to as

A. viralcidens.

 

B. bacteriocidins.

 

C. bacterialogens.

 

D. bacteriophages.

 

4. A virion is a(n)

A. pathogenic virus.

 

B. subviral particle.

 

C. complete, extracellular virus particle.

 

D. enveloped virus particle.

 

5. A virion is composed of

A. lipid, protein, and either RNA or DNA.

 

B. protein and either RNA or DNA.

 

C. protein and both, RNA and DNA.

 

D. protein, either RNA or DNA, and possibly lipid.

 

6. The protein coat of a virus

A. is called a capsomere.

 

B. is called a capsid.

 

C. protects the nucleic acid.

 

D. is involved in recognition of host cell receptors.

 

E. is called a capsid, protects the nucleic acid AND is involved in recognition of host cell receptors.

 

7. Which does not refer to the shape of a virus?

A. icosahedral (isometric)

 

B. helical

 

C. complex

 

D. bacillus

 

8. The shape of the virus is determined by its

A. nucleic acid.

 

B. capsid.

 

C. envelope.

 

D. tail.

 

9. The viral envelope closely resembles the

A. prokaryotic cell wall.

 

B. capsomere.

 

C. eukaryotic cell membrane.

 

D. cytoplasm.

 

10. The protein projections on the surface of a virus that are involved in attachment to the host cell are called

A. suckers.

 

B. pili.

 

C. cilia.

 

D. spikes.

 

E. hooks.

 

11. Outside of living cells, viruses are

A. scavenging glucose.

 

B. slowly stockpiling ATP from the mitochondria.

 

C. using cilia to move to the next host.

 

D. metabolically inert.

 

12. Viruses

A. probably keep the numbers of bacteria in check.

 

B. have no effect on the number of bacteria.

 

C. increase the number of bacteria.

 

D. are active in passing DNA from one bacterium to another.

 

E. probably keep the numbers of bacteria in check AND are active in passing DNA from one bacterium to another.

 

13. What part of the attached bacteriophage enters through the host cell wall?

A. the entire virus

 

B. only the enzymes necessary for replication

 

C. the nucleic acid

 

D. the nucleic acid and capsid

 

E. the capsid only

 

14. A phage that replicates inside the host cell and then lyses its host during its release is a

A. virulent or lytic phage.

 

B. latent phage.

 

C. lysogenic phage.

 

D. dormant phage.

 

15. The correct order for the stages of a phage infection is:

A. penetration, transcription, attachment, replication of nucleic acid and protein, assembly, release

 

B. attachment, penetration, transcription, replication of nucleic acid and protein, assembly, release

 

C. attachment, replication of nucleic acid and protein, penetration, transcription, assembly, release

 

D. transcription, attachment replication of nucleic acid and protein, assembly, penetration, release

 

16. Phages that can either replicate and cause cell lysis or can integrate their DNA into the host DNA are called

A. lysogenic phages.

 

B. lytic phages.

 

C. virulent phages.

 

D. segmented phages.

 

17. One of the most intensively studied virulent phages which infects E. coli is

A. T9.

 

B. T4.

 

C. beta.

 

D. gamma.

 

18. During attachment of phage to E. coli, the phage

A. actively seek out the bacteria.

 

B. randomly bump into the bacteria.

 

C. attach to proteins or carbohydrates on the bacterial surface.

 

D. attach to the bacterial RNA.

 

E. randomly bump into the bacteria AND attach to proteins or carbohydrates on the bacterial surface.

 

19. What part of the E. coli T4 phage attaches to the host cell receptors?

A. Capsid fragments around the nucleic acid.

 

B. Protein fibers at the end of the phage tail.

 

C. Pili of the envelope.

 

D. Spikes of the envelope.

 

20. During penetration of E. coli by the T4 phage

A. lysozyme is used to allow entry of the phage capsid.

 

B. the tail acts as a “hypodermic needle”, injecting the phage DNA into the cell.

 

C. the protein fibers digest a hole in the cell wall.

 

D. the bacterial receptor molecules open a hole through the cell wall.

 

21. Phage-encoded proteins are

A. coded for by host DNA.

 

B. coded for by phage DNA.

 

C. proteins normally present in the uninfected cell.

 

D. early proteins.

 

E. coded for by phage DNA AND early proteins.

 

22. Phage-encoded enzymes are

A. all produced simultaneously.

 

B. produced in a sequential manner.

 

C. strictly host enzymes.

 

D. used to customize the cell for viral production.

 

E. produced in a sequential manner AND used to customize the cell for viral production.

 

23. Assembly of the T4 phage

A. may involve some self-assembly.

 

B. may involve the use of scaffolds.

 

C. is completely self-assembly.

 

D. is completely dependent on scaffolds.

 

E. may involve some self-assembly AND may involve the use of scaffolds.

 

24. In the case of T-even phages, the burst size is about

A. 1 per host cell.

 

B. 5 per host cell.

 

C. 200 per host cell.

 

D. 1000 per host cell.

 

25. The time from absorption to release for T-even phage is about

A. 1 minute.

 

B. 10 minutes.

 

C. 30 minutes.

 

D. 1 day.

 

26. The replicative form of nucleic acid in filamentous phages is

A. dsDNA.

 

B. dsRNA.

 

C. positive ssRNA.

 

D. negative ssDNA.

 

27. Filamentous phage

A. only infect E. coli that have pili.

 

B. only infect E. coli lacking pili.

 

C. infect E. coli regardless of the presence of pili.

 

D. do not infect E. coli.

 

28. Which is a filamentous phage?

A. M13

 

B. T4

 

C. lambda

 

D. phi X174

 

29. The bacterial viruses that are released by a process termed extrusion are called

A. lysogenic viruses.

 

B. temperate phages.

 

C. filamentous phages.

 

D. lambda viruses.

 

30. The filamentous phages all contain

A. single-stranded DNA.

 

B. double-stranded DNA.

 

C. single-stranded RNA.

 

D. double-stranded RNA.

 

31. Bacteria infected with filamentous phages are termed

A. temperate cells.

 

B. plaque-producing cells.

 

C. virulent strains.

 

D. carrier cells.

 

32. An exit method used by viruses which does not immediately destroy the host bacterium is

A. lysis.

 

B. inversion.

 

C. extrusion.

 

D. excising.

 

33. In the replication of phage containing positive-sense DNA,

A. the host’s enzymes are used to make dsDNA.

 

B. the host’s DNA polymerase uses the phage RNA as a template to make negative-sense DNA.

 

C. a phage-encoded DNA polymerase is used to make negative-sense RNA using the phage positive-sense RNA as a template.

 

D. a phage-encoded DNA polymerase is used to make DNA using the phage positive-sense RNA as a template.

 

34. Most phages that contain single-stranded DNA

A. are extruded.

 

B. contain a positive-sense DNA strand.

 

C. have their DNA transformed to double-stranded DNA before replication and transcription occur.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

35. RNA phages usually contain

A. dsRNA.

 

B. dsDNA.

 

C. ssRNA.

 

D. ssDNA.

 

36. Regarding phage replication,

A. the majority of phages are temperate.

 

B. when integrated into host DNA, the phage DNA is called a prophage.

 

C. lambda is a good example of a temperate phage.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

37. A temperate phage

A. may be lysogenic.

 

B. may be lytic.

 

C. enters a lysogenic or lytic life cycle shortly after entering the host cell.

 

D. are all RNA viruses.

 

E. may be lysogenic AND enters a lysogenic or lytic life cycle shortly after entering the host cell.

 

38. The integration of phage DNA into the bacterial chromosome occurs because of

A. identical DNA sequences in both.

 

B. the phage’s ability to synthesize enzymes to enter the bacterium.

 

C. similar RNA nucleotides in both.

 

D. the similarity in enzyme metabolism.

 

E. the phage’s ability to synthesize enzymes to enter the bacterium AND similar RNA nucleotides in both.

 

39. Once integrated, phage DNA can remain in the prophage state as long as

A. the bacteria is frequently plated on new media.

 

B. certain phage genes are excised.

 

C. certain phage genes are repressed.

 

D. bacterial repressor genes are activated.

 

40. The activation of the SOS system in a bacterium infected with a prophage results in

A. destruction of the viral genes.

 

B. complete lysis of the bacterial culture.

 

C. mutation of the DNA.

 

D. destruction of the viral repressor through host protease activity.

 

E. complete lysis of the bacterial culture AND destruction of the viral repressor through host protease activity.

 

41. Lysogenized cells

A. are immune to any further infection by any virus.

 

B. are immune to infection by the same virus.

 

C. may have new properties.

 

D. respond to infection with the SOS response.

 

E. are immune to infection by the same virus AND may have new properties.

 

42. The phenomenon responsible for the ability of Corynebacterium diphtherium to produce the virulent toxin responsible for the devastating effects of diphtheria is called

A. self-assembly.

 

B. matrix conversion.

 

C. prion protein.

 

D. lysogenic conversion.

 

43. Transducing virulent phages do not lyse the cells they invade because

A. transformation is taking place in the phage and this is transferred to the bacterium.

 

B. bacterial DNA has replaced critical viral DNA in the phage.

 

C. their virulence is dependent on the bacteria and virus replicating together.

 

D. the lytic genes are unable to enter during penetration and are shed outside the host.

 

44. DNA is protected from restriction enzymes by being

A. sequestered in a lysosome.

 

B. turned into RNA.

 

C. methylated.

 

D. made into double stranded RNA.

 

45. A limiting factor for viral infection is

A. internal metabolic temperature of the host cell.

 

B. nutrition of the host cell.

 

C. stage of cell cycle of the host cell.

 

D. presence of specific receptor molecules on the host cell.

 

46. If the infecting phage lacks some critical pieces of DNA necessary for replication it is called

A. incomplete.

 

B. mutated.

 

C. defective.

 

D. vegetative.

 

47. Specialized transduction

A. involves the random transmission of any gene.

 

B. involves the transfer of a few specific genes.

 

C. utilizes a defective virus.

 

D. only involves genes near the viral DNA integration site.

 

E. involves the transfer of a few specific genes, utilizes a defective virus AND only involves genes near the viral DNA integration site.

 

48. Once inside the host cell, phage DNA

A. is replicated.

 

B. is transcribed.

 

C. may get degraded by bacterial nucleases.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

49. Using phages to treat a bacterial infection is an interesting idea because

A. a single type of phage can destroy a wide range of strains of the same pathogen.

 

B. of the increasing problem of antibiotic resistance.

 

C. lysed bacteria pose no threat.

 

D. a single phage can be genetically engineered to infect many different species of bacteria.

 

 

True / False Questions

50. The RNA phages contain only a single positive-sense strand of RNA.

True    False

 

51. A lysogenic cell contains viral DNA, a prophage, integrated into the host chromosome.

True    False

 

52. The integration of phage DNA into host DNA occurs in much the same fashion as seen in transformation, transduction or conjugation.

True    False

 

53. Filamentous virus is incapable of causing a lytic infection.

True    False

 

54. Completed filamentous phages are often found in the cytoplasm of infected bacteria.

True    False

 

55. All single-stranded DNA phages are extruded.

True    False

 

56. Virulent as well as temperate phages can serve as generalized transducing phages.

True    False

 

57. Transduction often involves defective virus.

True    False

 

58. The restriction-modification system always has two genes involved, the cutting enzyme and the methylating enzyme.

True    False

 

59. The host range of a virus depends on the presence of host receptor molecules.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

60. The nucleocapsid is composed of

A. DNA and RNA and protein.

 

B. DNA or RNA and protein.

 

C. protein located in the nucleus.

 

D. nucleic acid in the ribosome.

 

61. Enveloped viruses

A. just require a stamp.

 

B. have an outer lipid bilayer membrane containing various proteins.

 

C. are surrounded by an additional layer of carbohydrate.

 

D. envelope a cell.

 

62. The term “segmented” refers to viruses that

A. may contain several pieces of RNA.

 

B. have an icosahedral-shaped capsid.

 

C. are linked together before budding out.

 

D. have an envelope.

 

63. The terms isometric, icosahedral and pleomorphic refer to

A. viral life cycles.

 

B. forms of nucleic acid.

 

C. types of viral envelopes.

 

D. shapes of viruses.

 

64. Animal viruses are divided into a number of families whose names end in

A. -virus.

 

B. -viridae.

 

C. -viscous.

 

D. -eieio.

 

65. There are _______ families of DNA containing viruses that infect vertebrates.

A. two

 

B. four

 

C. five

 

D. seven

 

66. There are _______ families of RNA containing viruses that infect vertebrates.

A. two

 

B. five

 

C. seven

 

D. fourteen

 

67. Viruses are commonly referred to by their _________ name.

A. locale

 

B. genus

 

C. disease

 

D. species

 

E. disease AND species

 

68. The common species name of the virus is based on the

A. presence or absence of a nuclear membrane.

 

B. type of nucleic acid it contains.

 

C. disease the virus causes.

 

D. geographic area it is found.

 

69. The family to which the Rhinovirus belongs is the

A. Picornaviridae.

 

B. Enterovirus.

 

C. Enteroviridae.

 

D. Picornavirus.

 

70. A key feature of all viral infections is the

A. integration of viral DNA into host DNA.

 

B. disintegration of host DNA.

 

C. addition of a lipid membrane to the virus.

 

D. separation of viral nucleic acid from the capsid.

 

71. An infection in which the virus is continually present in the body is referred to as

A. acute.

 

B. balanced.

 

C. determinant.

 

D. persistent.

 

72. Attachment of animal viruses to the host cell may be by means of

A. a tail.

 

B. the envelope.

 

C. a capsid.

 

D. spikes.

 

73. The receptors to which animal virus attachment proteins usually bind are

A. proteins.

 

B. carbohydrates.

 

C. nucleic acid.

 

D. lipids.

 

E. glycoproteins.

 

74. Resistance of some animals to certain viral diseases is based on

A. lack of spikes for attachment.

 

B. phagocytosis of the virus by the host cell.

 

C. the presence of the viral envelope.

 

D. lack of specific receptors on the host cell.

 

75. When an enveloped virus adsorbs to the host cell with its protein spikes, the virions are taken into the cell by the process of

A. penetration.

 

B. production.

 

C. fusion.

 

D. endocytosis.

 

76. Bacteriophages and animal viruses

A. both may enter a host cell by endocytosis.

 

B. both may enter a host cell by fusion.

 

C. both involve entry of the entire nucleocapsid.

 

D. differ because bacteriophages leave the capsid outside the cell, while animal virus entry involves the entry of the whole nucleocapsid.

 

77. For which of the following processes are enzymes not required?

A. replication

 

B. translation

 

C. maturation

 

D. self-assembly

 

78. Cells infected with animal viruses lyse because

A. the release of the virions depletes the cell of energy.

 

B. the virus releases enzymes that lyse the cell.

 

C. functions necessary for cell survival are not carried out and the cell dies.

 

D. the virus RNA and cellular protein interact to kill the cell.

 

79. In addition to lysis, animal viruses may exit the host cell by

A. extrusion.

 

B. budding.

 

C. fission.

 

D. fusion.

 

80. In the region of budding, the inside of the plasma membrane becomes coated with

A. enzymes.

 

B. carbohydrates.

 

C. steroids.

 

D. matrix proteins.

 

81. In the region of budding, the plasma membrane becomes involved with

A. carbohydrates.

 

B. spike proteins.

 

C. matrix proteins.

 

D. enzymes.

 

E. spike proteins AND matrix proteins.

 

82. The enveloped viruses typically obtain their envelope

A. from the host plasma membrane.

 

B. as they exit the host.

 

C. from a newly constructed viral-derived membrane.

 

D. from the nuclear membrane.

 

E. from the host plasma membrane AND as they exit the host.

 

83. Carriers

A. may have a persistent infection.

 

B. may be a source of infection.

 

C. usually show symptoms of the disease.

 

D. have been cured of the infection.

 

E. may have a persistent infection AND may be a source of infection.

 

84. In latent infections, the virions are

A. constantly produced.

 

B. only produced during reactivation.

 

C. produced slowly.

 

D. continually being slowly budded out.

 

85. The best known chronic infection involves

A. chickenpox.

 

B. herpes.

 

C. hepatitis A.

 

D. hepatitis B.

 

86. The genome of retroviruses is made of

A. ssDNA.

 

B. dsDNA.

 

C. ssRNA.

 

D. dsRNA.

 

87. The best-known examples of viruses that cause latent infections are

A. polio.

 

B. herpes.

 

C. measles.

 

D. chickenpox.

 

E. herpes AND chickenpox.

 

88. Diseases of short duration frequently followed by long-term immunity are referred to as

A. intermittent infections.

 

B. chronic infections.

 

C. acute infections.

 

D. persistent infections.

 

89. Retroviruses are unique in that they

A. replicate in nervous system cells.

 

B. do not have a capsid.

 

C. use RNA as a template to make DNA.

 

D. use DNA as a template to make RNA.

 

90. Genetic exchange in segmented viruses that allows a zoonotic virus to infect humans is termed

A. antigenic shift.

 

B. hemagglutination.

 

C. genetic reassortment.

 

D. antigenic drift.

 

91. Cells taken from a tumor

A. may be used to grow viruses.

 

B. can be cultivated in vitro indefinitely.

 

C. may be used to grow bacteriophages.

 

D. divide 50 times and then die.

 

E. may be used to grow viruses AND can be cultivated in vitro indefinitely.

 

92. Viruses may not be cultivated in

A. live organisms.

 

B. embryonated chicken eggs.

 

C. tissue culture.

 

D. blood agar.

 

93. The changes that occur in virally-infected cells are characteristic for a particular virus and are referred to as the

A. cytopathic effect.

 

B. phenotypic effect.

 

C. genotypic expression.

 

D. cytology.

 

94. After growth in tissue culture, the infected cells lyse and the virus may be harvested from

A. the liquid supernatant after centrifugation, the lysate.

 

B. the remainder.

 

C. the quantal layer.

 

D. the monolayer.

 

95. Normal tissue taken from animals and prepared immediately as media for viral growth is termed a(n)

A. advantageous group.

 

B. monolayer culture.

 

C. plaque.

 

D. primary culture.

 

96. If reasonably pure preparations of virus are available, the number of virus present may be determined by

A. photocolorimetry.

 

B. gas chromatography.

 

C. light microscopy.

 

D. electron microscopy.

 

97. The approximate viral concentration of a sample may be determined by

A. quantal assay.

 

B. endpoint assay.

 

C. the titer.

 

D. the lysate assay.

 

98. The concentration of virus that infects or kills 50% of the host cells is referred to as the

A. LD50.

 

B. ID50.

 

C. ID100.

 

D. LD100.

 

E. LD50 AND ID50.

 

99. One group of animal viruses that are able to agglutinate red blood cells are the

A. coronavirus.

 

B. retrovirus.

 

C. reovirus.

 

D. myxovirus.

 

100. The site at which a virus has infected and subsequently lysed the infected cell, releasing its progeny to infect and lyse surrounding cells, thereby forming a “clear zone”, is referred to as

A. a burst area.

 

B. a lyse area.

 

C. a plaque.

 

D. a dead zone.

 

101. Which of the following is not a characteristic of normal cells?

A. They grow as a monolayer.

 

B. They grow as multiple layers.

 

C. They undergo a limited number of divisions and then die.

 

D. They stick tightly to the surface of glass culture dishes.