Microbiology A Systems Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan –  Test Bank

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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

Microbiology  A Systems Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan –  Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

 

ch06
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Viruses have all the following except
A. Definite shape
B. Metabolism
C. Genes
D. Ability to infect host cells
E. Ultramicroscopic size
2. Host cells of viruses include
A. Human and other animals
B. Plants and fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoa and algae
E. All of the choices are correct
3. Viruses
A. Cannot be seen in a light microscope
B. Are prokaryotic
C. Contain 70S ribosomes
D. Undergo binary fission
E. All of the choices are correct
4. Virus capsids are made from subunits called
A. Envelopes
B. Spikes
C. Capsomeres
D. Prophages
E. Peplomers
5. Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus
A. Spike
B. Capsomere
C. Envelope
D. Capsid
E. Core
6. A _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
A. Capsomere
B. Capsid
C. Spike
D. Envelope
E. Monolayer
7. One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n)
_____ capsid.
A. Spiked
B. Complex
C. Icosahedral
D. Helical
E. Buckeyball
8. A naked virus only has a(n)
A. Capsid
B. Capsomere
C. Nucleocapsid
D. Envelope
E. Antigenic surface
9. Which of the following is not a typical capsid shape?
A. Tetrahedral
B. Complex
C. Helical
D. Icosahedron
E. All of the choices are capsid shapes
10. All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except
A. Gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane
B. Gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane
C. Contain special virus proteins
D. Help the virus particle attach to host cells
E. Located between the capsid and nucleic acid
11. Viral spikes
A. Are always present on enveloped viruses
B. Bind viral capsid and envelope together
C. Allow bacteria to evade host defenses
D. Are derived from host proteins
E. All of the choices are correct
12. The core of every virus particle always contains
A. DNA
B. Capsomeres
C. Enzymes
D. DNA and RNA
E. Either DNA or RNA
13. Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
A. Envelope
B. Capsomeres
C. Capsid
D. Nucleic acid
E. Genome
14. Viral nucleic acids include which of the following
A. Double stranded DNA
B. Single stranded DNA
C. Double stranded RNA
D. Single stranded RNA
E. All of the choices are correct
15. Reverse transcriptase synthesizes
A. The positive RNA strand from a negative RNA strand
B. A negative RNA strand from a positive RNA strand
C. Viral RNA from DNA
D. Viral DNA from RNA
E. None of the choices are correct
16. A negative RNA virus must first
A. Synthesize a DNA copy of its genome
B. Synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome
C. Synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome
D. Transcribe reverse transcriptase
E. Transcribe RNA polymerase
17. Viruses with _____ sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _____
sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message.
A. Positive, negative
B. Negative, positive
C. Primary, secondary
D. Secondary, primary
E. None of the choices are correct
18. Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except
A. Type of nucleic acid
B. Type of capsid
C. Presence of an envelope
D. Biochemical reactions
E. Number of strands in the nucleic acid
19. Which of the following represents a virus family name?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Herpesviridae
C. Picornavirus
D. Enterovirus
E. Hepatitis B virus
20. Which of the following is not a viral order in the classification system?
A. Caudovirales
B. Vaccinia virus
C. Nidovirales
D. Mononegavirales
E. All of the choices are viral orders
21. The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
A. Penetration, uncoating, synthesis, adsorption, assembly, release
B. Uncoating, penetration, synthesis, assembly, absorption, release
C. Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, release
D. Assembly, synthesis, uncoating, release, penetration, adsorption
E. Adsorption, release, synthesis, uncoating, assembly, penetration
22. Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during
A. Replication
B. Assembly
C. Adsorption
D. Release
E. Penetration
23. In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell’s _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the
host cell’s _____.
A. Nucleus, cytoplasm
B. Cytoplasm, cell membrane
C. Cell membrane, cytoplasm
D. Cytoplasm, nucleus
E. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum
24. Host range is limited by
A. Type of nucleic acid in the virus
B. Age of the host cell
C. Type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
D. Size of the host cell
E. All of the choices are correct
25. Oncogenic viruses include all the following except
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Measles virus
C. Papillomavirus
D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses
E. Epstein-Barr virus
26. Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?
A. Inclusions in the nucleus
B. Multinucleated giant cells
C. Inclusions in the cytoplasm
D. Cells round up
E. All of the choices are correct
27. The envelope of enveloped viruses is
A. Identical to the host plasma membrane
B. Only compose of host endomembrane
C. Always includes spikes
D. Is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis
E. None of the choices are correct
28. Viruses attach to their hosts via
A. Host glycoproteins
B. Host phospholipids
C. Viral phospholipids
D. Viral flagella
E. All of the choices are correct
29. Viral tissue specificities are called
A. Ranges
B. Virions
C. Receptacles
D. Tropisms
E. Uncoating
30. The process of dissolving the envelope and capsid to release the viral nucleic acid is
A. Adsorption
B. Penetration
C. Uncoating
D. Synthesis
E. Assembly
31. Which of the following occurs during assembly?
A. Nucleocapsid is formed
B. New viral nucleic acid is formed
C. Viral spikes insert in host cell membrane
D. All of the choices occur
E. Only choices A and C occur
32. Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are
A. Chronic latent viruses
B. Oncoviruses
C. Syncytia
D. Inclusion bodies
E. Cytiopathic
33. Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are
A. Chronic latent viruses
B. Oncoviruses
C. Syncytia
D. Inclusion bodies
E. Cytiopathic
34. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transformed cell?
A. Viral nucleic acid integrated into host DNA
B. Decreased growth rate
C. Alterations in chromosomes
D. Changes in cell surface molecules
E. Capacity to divide indefinitely
35. New, nonenveloped virus release occurs by
A. Lysis
B. Budding
C. Exocytosis
D. Both lysis and budding
E. Both budding and exocytosis
36. What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors?
A. Sheath
B. Tail fibers
C. Nucleic acid
D. Capsid head
E. None of the choices are correct
37. Which of the following is incorrect about prophages?
A. Present when the virus is in lysogeny
B. Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
C. Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
D. Cause lysis of host cells
E. Occur when temperate phages enter host cells
38. T-even phages
A. Include the poxviruses
B. Infect Escherichia coli cells
C. Enter host cells by engulfment
D. Have helical capsids
E. All of the choices are correct
39. The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication
is
A. Adsorption to the host cells
B. Injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
C. Host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins
D. Assembly of nucleocapsids
E. Replication of viral nucleic acid
40. Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity
without symptoms are called
A. Latent
B. Oncogenic
C. Prions
D. Viroids
E. Delta agents
41. Uncoating of viral nucleic acid
A. Does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication
B. Involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid
C. Occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle
D. Occurs before replication
E. All of the choices are correct
42. In transduction, the viral genome
A. Initiates lysis of the host
B. Includes DNA from the previous host
C. Is replicated in the cytoplasm
D. Is replicated in the nucleus
E. None of the choices are correct
43. Lysogeny refers to
A. Altering the host range of a virus
B. Latent state of herpes infections
C. Virion exiting host cell
D. Viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome
E. None of the choices are correct
44. Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called
A. Viroids
B. Prions
C. Bacteriophages
D. Satellite viruses
E. All of the choices infect bacteria
45. During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the
A. Host cytoplasm
B. Host nucleus
C. Host nucleolus
D. Host DNA
E. Host cell membrane
46. What type of phage enters an inactive prophage stage?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Temperate
D. Temporary
E. Transformed
47. The activation of a prophage is called
A. Activation
B. Lysogeny
C. Transformation
D. Induction
E. Adsorption
48. When a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, it is called
A. Transformation
B. Lysogenic conversion
C. Viral persistence
D. Transcription
E. Translation
49. In which stage of the multiplication cycle of T-even phages are the phages developing and are not yet
infectious?
A. Virion
B. Induction
C. Eclipse
D. Conversion
E. None of the choices are correct
50. Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
A. Live lab animals
B. Embryonated bird eggs
C. Primary cell cultures
D. Continuous cell cultures
E. All of the choices will support viral cultivation
51. Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called
A. Lysogeny
B. Budding
C. Plaques
D. Cytopathic effects
E. Pocks
52. Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called
A. Lysogeny
B. Budding
C. Plaques
D. Cytopathic effects
E. Pocks
53. Cells grown in culture form a(n)
A. Monolayer
B. Bilayer
C. Aggregate
D. Plaque
E. None of the choices are correct
54. Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient’s blood for specific _____ that the
immune system produced against the virus.
A. Glycoproteins
B. Antibodies
C. Complement proteins
D. Antigens
E. None of the choices are correct
55. Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer
is referred to as a _____ cell culture.
A. Initial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Continuous
E. Positive
56. A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures.
A. Embryo
B. Cell
C. Plaque
D. Bacteriophage
E. Egg
57. Infectious protein particles are called
A. Viroids
B. Phages
C. Prions
D. Oncogenic viruses
E. Spikes
58. Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called
A. Viroids
B. Phages
C. Prions
D. Oncogenic viruses
E. Spikes
59. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is
A. Caused by a chronic latent virus
B. Initiated by an oncogenic virus
C. Caused by a viroid
D. A spongiform encephalopathy of humans
E. Also called “mad cow disease”
60. Satellite viruses are
A. Also called viroids
B. Dependent on other viruses for replication
C. The cause of spongiform encephalopathies
D. Significant pathogens of plants
E. All of the choices are correct
61. Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called _____ and the infectious
RNA strands called _____.
A. Prions, capsomeres
B. Virions, prions
C. Viroids, phages
D. Prions, phages
E. Prions, viroids
62. Who developed a rabies vaccine by separating bacteria from virus using a filter?
A. Leewonhoek
B. Koch
C. Pasteur
D. Cohn
63. The primary purposes of viral cultivation are:
A. to isolate and identify viruses in clinical specimens
B. to prepare viruses for vaccines
C. to do detailed research on viral structure, lifestyle, genetics and effects on host cells
D. All of these
64. When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host
cell.
True False
65. Viruses are used to produce vaccines for prevention of certain viral infections.
True False
66. Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm.
True False
67. A fully formed virus that can cause an infection in a host cell is called a virion.
True False
68. Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid.
True False
69. Each virus is assigned to genus status based on its host, target tissue and type of disease it causes.
True False
70. A specific animal virus has the ability to attach to and enter almost any animal host cell.
True False
71. Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis.
True False
72. Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle.
True False
73. Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration.
True False
74. Viruses are the most common cause of acute infections that do not result in hospitalization.
True False
75. The adeno-associated virus (AAV) and the delta agent are prions.
True False
76. Viruses are simple, non-cellular and lack mRNA.
True False
77. Viruses mutate and some have not been discovered.
True False
78. Viruses are not filterable.
True False
79. Viruses are unable to multiple outside of a host cell.
True False
ch06 Key
ch07
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism
A. Element
B. Macronutrient
C. Water
D. Growth factor
E. Trace element
2. Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein
structure
A. Element
B. Macronutrient
C. Water
D. Growth factors
E. Trace element
3. What compound has the highest concentration in a cell?
A. CO2
B. CH4
C. H2O
D. Glucose
E. NH3
4. Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from
A. Inorganic compounds
B. Minerals
C. Water
D. Organic compounds
E. Salts
5. Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell?
A. Copper
B. Carbon
C. Hydrogen
D. Nitrogen
E. Oxygen
6. An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an
A. Element
B. Macronutrient
C. Water
D. Growth factor
E. Trace element
7. An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is
A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
E. Potassium
8. An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes
is
A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
E. Potassium
9. The term autotroph refers to an organism that:
A. Uses CO2 for its carbon source
B. Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C. Gets energy from sunlight
D. Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E. Does not need a carbon source
10. The term heterotroph refers to an organism that
A. Uses CO2 for its carbon source
B. Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C. Gets energy from sunlight
D. Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E. Does not need a carbon source
11. Calcium is required for bacteria because
A. It stabilizes the cell wall
B. It stabilizes the ribosomes
C. It stabilizes the nucleoid
D. It maintains cellular pH
E. It makes strong bones
12. Growth factors
A. Are inorganic
B. Are synthesized by organism
C. Contain elemental oxygen
D. Cannot be synthesized by the organism
E. All of the choices are correct
13. An organism that uses CO2 for its carbon needs would be called a/an
A. Heterotroph
B. Photoautotroph
C. Chemoheterotroph
D. Saprobe
E. Halotroph
14. The term phototroph refers to an organism that
A. Uses CO2 for its carbon source
B. Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C. Gets energy from sunlight
D. Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E. Does not need a carbon source
15. The term chemotroph refers to an organism that
A. Uses CO2 for its carbon source
B. Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C. Gets energy from sunlight
D. Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E. Does not need a carbon source
16. The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that
A. Have sunlight
B. Are very acidic
C. Have abundant oxygen and CO2
D. Are extremely cold
E. Are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2
17. Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called
A. Saprobes
B. Parasites
C. Autotrophs
D. Lithoautotrophs
E. Phototrophs
18. The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen
A. Occurs in cyanobacteria
B. Does not require CO2 as a reactant
C. Occurs in purple and green sulfur bacteria
D. Does not require sunlight
E. Occurs in algae and plants
19. Archea as a group are not pathogens. This is because
A. They evolved without mammals
B. Mammals evolved special defenses against them
C. Mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements
D. They are out competed by natural flora
E. None of the choices are correct
20. Aerobic respiration is an example of
A. Photosynthesis
B. Methanoheterophy
C. Photoheterotrophy
D. Chemoheterotrophy
E. Photo autotrophy
21. Microorganisms that live in severe habitats, such as very hot, acidic or salty environments, are called
A. Thermophiles
B. Halophiles
C. Psychrophiles
D. Extremophiles
E. Barophiles
22. Organisms called _____ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm.
A. Mesophiles
B. Thermophiles
C. Commensals
D. Pathogens
E. Halophiles
23. The term obligate refers to
A. The ability to exist in a wide range of conditions
B. Existing in a very narrow niche
C. Using chemicals for energy production
D. Using light for energy production
E. Using oxygen for metabolism
24. The term facultative refers to
A. The ability to exist in a wide range of conditions
B. Existing in a very narrow niche
C. Using chemicals for energy production
D. Using light for energy production
E. Using oxygen for metabolism
25. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is
called
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Endocytosis
26. Diffusion of water through a semi permeable membrane is called
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Endocytosis
27. The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semi permeable membrane that
must have a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Endocytosis
28. The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semi permeable membrane that
must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Endocytosis
29. The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it
is called
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Endocytosis
30. Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would
A. Be in a hypotonic solution
B. Gain water
C. Be in a isotonic solution
D. Shrivel
E. None of the choices are correct
31. Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental?
A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Fungi
D. Algae
E. Cyanobacteria
32. Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Endocytosis
D. Osmosis
E. None of the choices are correct
33. Contractile vacuoles are
A. Used to expel excess water from cells
B. Found in bacterial cells
C. Important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments
D. Protein carriers in cell membranes
E. Used to bring solutes into a cell
34. Nutrient absorption is mediated by the
A. Cell wall
B. Peptidoglycan layer
C. Proteins in the periplasmic space
D. Cell membrane
E. Nuclear membrane
35. Halo bacteria regulate osmotic pressure by
A. Releasing salt to the environment
B. Absorbing salt from the environment
C. Excluding salt from the environment
D. Changing their cell wall to provide additional osmotic protection
E. None of the choices are correct
36. Facilitated diffusion is limited by
A. Substrate concentration
B. Carrier proteins in the membrane
C. Size of the pores in the membrane
D. Osmotic pressure
E. The size of the cell
37. When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically
termed
A. Pinocytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Facilitated transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Exocytosis
38. Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a _____ _____
that will bind to the substance effecting a conformational change that allows movement across the
membrane.
A. Protein carrier
B. Lipid carrier
C. Porin carrier
D. All of the choices are correct
39. In _____ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic
D. All of the choices are correct
40. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the
shelf of a 37° C incubator and on the shelf of a 50° C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth
at 37° C and 50° C, slight growth out on the bench top and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term
could be used for this species?
A. Halophile
B. Mesophile
C. Anaerobe
D. Psychrophile
E. Capnophile
41. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a
candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but
heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an
A. Aerobe
B. Anaerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
E. Capnophile
42. A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37° C, but can survive short exposure to
high temperatures is called a/an
A. Extremophile
B. Thermophile
C. Psychrophile
D. Facultative psychrophile
E. Thermoduric
43. An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32° C is called a/
an
A. Extremophile
B. Thermophile
C. Psychrophile
D. Facultative psychrophile
E. Thermoduric
44. An organism with a temperature growth range of 45° C to 60° C would be called a/an
A. Extremophile
B. Thermophile
C. Psychrophile
D. Facultative psychrophile
E. Thermoduric
45. Human pathogens fall into the group
A. Psychrophiles
B. Thermophiles
C. Halophiles
D. Mesophiles
E. Acidophiles
46. All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except
A. Psychrophiles
B. Anaerobes
C. Facultative anaerobes
D. Mesophiles
E. Capnophiles
47. A microorganism that does not have catalase or super oxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an
environment with
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. High salt
D. Temperatures above 37° C
E. High acidity
48. A microaerophile
A. Grows best in an anaerobic jar
B. Grows with or without oxygen
C. Needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen
D. Requires a small amount of oxygen but won’t grow at normal atmospheric levels
E. None of the choices are correct
49. The toxic super oxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes,
A. Catalase and hydrogen peroxidases
B. Super oxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidases
C. Super oxide dismutase and catalase
D. Catalase and oxidase
E. Super oxide dismutase and oxidase
50. An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen
products is a/an
A. Aerobe
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
E. Obligate anaerobe
51. An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen less environments is a/an
A. Aerobe
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
E. Obligate anaerobe
52. An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a/an
A. Aerobe
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
E. Obligate anaerobe
53. An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a/an
A. Aerobe
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
E. Obligate anaerobe
54. What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?
A. Blood agar
B. Thioglycollate
C. Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine
D. Sodium chloride
E. None of the choices is correct
55. A halophile would grow best in
A. Acid pools
B. Fresh water ponds
C. Hot geyser springs
D. Arid, desert soil
E. Salt lakes
56. A barophile would grow best in
A. Acid pools
B. The deep oceans
C. Hot geyser springs
D. Arid, desert soil
E. Salt lakes
57. The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses
would be best termed a _____ relationship.
A. Parasitic
B. Saprobic
C. Commensal
D. Mutualistic
E. None of the choices are correct
58. The production of antibodies is a form of antagonism called
A. Symbiosis
B. Satellitism
C. Antibiosis
D. Mutualism
E. Synergism
59. When microbes live independently but cooperate and share nutrients, it is called
A. Symbiosis
B. Satellitism
C. Antibiosis
D. Mutualism
E. Synergism
60. When microbes in close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is
called
A. Symbiosis
B. Satellitism
C. Commensalism
D. Mutualism
E. Synergism
61. A change in one partner in a close relationship that leads to a change in the other partner is
A. Symbiosis
B. Coevolution
C. Antibiosis
D. Mutualism
E. Synergism
62. The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the
A. Binary fission
B. Growth curve
C. Generation time
D. Death phase
E. Culture time
63. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is
the
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
E. Telophase
64. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new
environment, metabolizing but not growing is the
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
E. Prophase
65. The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
E. Prophase
66. In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface
and incubated. Each _____ represents one _____ from the sample.
A. Cell, cell
B. Cell, colony
C. Colony, cell
D. Species, colony
E. Generation, cell
67. When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size and differentiate between dead and
live cells a ___ is used.
A. coulter counter
B. flow cytometer
C. SEM
D. methylene dye indicator
68. Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms.
True False
69. Most microorganisms on earth can only live and survive in habitats that are similar to human body
conditions.
True False
70. Inorganic nitrogen must be converted to ammonia to be used by a cell.
True False
71. Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen.
True False
72. Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy.
True False
73. Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.
True False
74. A saprobe with a cell wall will utilize extra cellular digestion.
True False
75. Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism.
True False
76. Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources.
True False
77. Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the
plasma membrane.
True False
78. In a commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor
benefited.
True False
79. Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO2 environment.
True False
80. The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9.
True False
81. Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours.
True False
82. The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally
governed by that species generation time.
True False
83. Transverse binary fission results in 4 daughter cells from 1 parent cell.
True False
84. After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically.
True False
85. A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.
True False
86. The degree of turbidity in a culture correlates to the amount of cell growth.
True False
87. The direct cell count, using a cytometer, can calculate viable cell numbers from a sample.
True False
88. A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine the size.
True False
89. Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than planktonic bacteria.
True False
90. Planktonic bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics as compared to biofilm microorganisms.
True False