Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora -Test Bank

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Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora -Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

 

Microbiology: An Introduction, 12e (Tortora)

Chapter 6   Microbial Growth

 

6.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

Figure 6.1

 

 

1) Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c

Answer:  B

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.5

Global Outcome:  3

 

2) In Figure 6.1,which line best depicts an obligate anaerobe in the presence of O2?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c

Answer:  C

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.5

Global Outcome:  3

 

 

3) In Figure 6.1, which line shows the growth of an obligate aerobe incubated anaerobically?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c

Answer:  C

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.5

Global Outcome:  3

4) In Figure 6.1, which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c

Answer:  A

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.5

Global Outcome:  3

 

5) In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0°C?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c

Answer:  B

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.5

Global Outcome:  3

 

6) If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of the radioactivity will be found in the cells’

  1. A) DNA.
  2. B) proteins.
  3. C) phospholipids.
  4. D) DNA and proteins.
  5. E) DNA and phospholipids.

Answer:  D

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

Learning Outcome:  6.4

Global Outcome:  2

 

7) Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function?

  1. A) nitrogen — needed for amino acid synthesis
  2. B) phosphorus — incorporated into nucleic acids
  3. C) sulfur — used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin
  4. D) magnesium and potassium — required as cofactors for enzymes
  5. E) phosphorus — used for production of carbohydrates.

Answer:  E

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  6.4

8) Pathogenic bacteria isolated from the respiratory or intestinal tracts of humans are

  1. A) strict aerobes that grow best in candle jars.
  2. B) capnophiles that grow best in carbon dioxide incubators.
  3. C) facultative anaerobes that require reducing media for growth.
  4. D) strict aerobes that grow best in reducing media.
  5. E) capnophiles that prefer highly oxygenated growth conditions.

Answer:  B

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.9

Global Outcome:  2

 

9) The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is

  1. A) BSL-1.
  2. B) BSL-2.
  3. C) BSL-3.
  4. D) BSL-4.

Answer:  A

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.6

Learning Outcome:  6.10

 

10) The biosafety level (BSL) for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, is

  1. A) BSL-1.
  2. B) BSL-2.
  3. C) BSL-3.
  4. D) BSL-4.

Answer:  C

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  8.6

Learning Outcome:  6.10

Global Outcome:  2

 

11) A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained

  1. A) 54 cells per milliliter.
  2. B) 540 cells per milliliter.
  3. C) 5,400 cells per milliliter.
  4. D) 54,000 cells per milliliter.
  5. E) 540,000 cells per milliliter.

Answer:  D

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  8.4

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global Outcome:  4

12) The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids?

  1. A) buffers
  2. B) sugars
  3. C) pH
  4. D) heat
  5. E) carbon

Answer:  A

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.5

Learning Outcome:  6.2

 

13) Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a

  1. A) depletion of nutrients.
  2. B) hypotonic environment.
  3. C) lower osmotic pressure.
  4. D) hypertonic environment.
  5. E) lower pH.

Answer:  D

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  6.3

 

 

14) The term aerotolerant anaerobe refers to an organism that

  1. A) does not use oxygen but tolerates it.
  2. B) is killed by oxygen.
  3. C) tolerates normal atmospheric nitrogen gas levels.
  4. D) requires less oxygen than is present in air.
  5. E) requires more oxygen than is present in air.

Answer:  A

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.5

 

15) Which of the following is an advantage of the standard plate count?

  1. A) can readily count cells that form aggregates
  2. B) determines the number of viable cells
  3. C) can be performed on very dilute samples, such as lake water
  4. D) provides immediate results
  5. E) can be used to count heat-sensitive bacteria

Answer:  B

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.4

Learning Outcome:  6.16

16) Which of the following is an advantage of the direct microscopic count?

  1. A) can readily count organisms that are motile
  2. B) can easily distinguish live from dead cells
  3. C) requires no incubation time
  4. D) sample volume is unknown
  5. E) requires a large number of cells

Answer:  C

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  8.4

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global Outcome:  2

 

17) Most bacteria reproduce by

  1. A) aerial hyphae.
  2. B) fragmentation.
  3. C) mitosis.
  4. D) binary fission.
  5. E) budding.

Answer:  D

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  6.14

 

18) Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample?

  1. A) 4 per milliliter
  2. B) 9 per milliliter
  3. C) 18 per milliliter
  4. D) 36 per milliliter
  5. E) 72 per milliliter

Answer:  D

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  8.4

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global Outcome:  4

Figure 6.2

 

 

19) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which section (or sections) shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) a and c

Answer:  C

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2a

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global Outcome:  3

 

 

20) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which sections of the graph illustrate a logarithmic change in cell numbers?

  1. A) a and c
  2. B) b and d
  3. C) a and b
  4. D) c and d
  5. E) a and d

Answer:  B

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2a

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global Outcome:  3

21) Most bacteria grow best at pH

  1. A) 1.
  2. B) 5.
  3. C) 7.
  4. D) 9.
  5. E) 14.

Answer:  C

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.2

 

22) Most fungi grow best at pH

  1. A) 1.
  2. B) 5.
  3. C) 7.
  4. D) 9.
  5. E) 14.

Answer:  B

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.2

 

 

23) Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n)

  1. A) selective medium.
  2. B) differential medium.
  3. C) enrichment culture.
  4. D) selective and differential medium.
  5. E) differential and enrichment culture.

Answer:  D

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  8.3

Learning Outcome:  6.9

 

24) A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart is a

  1. A) chemically defined medium.
  2. B) complex medium.
  3. C) selective medium.
  4. D) differential medium.
  5. E) reducing medium.

Answer:  B

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  8.2

Learning Outcome:  6.8

25) Which of the following pairs of microbe classification terms and optimal growth temperatures is mismatched?

  1. A) psychrotroph — growth at 0°C
  2. B) thermophile — growth at 37°C
  3. C) mesophile — growth at 25°C
  4. D) psychrophile — growth at 15°C
  5. E) hyperthermophiles — growth at 85°C

Answer:  B

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.1

 

 

26) During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?

  1. A) lag phase
  2. B) log phase
  3. C) death phase
  4. D) stationary phase
  5. E) The culture is equally susceptible during all phases.

Answer:  B

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global Outcome:  2

 

27) Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?

  1. A) the length of time needed for lag phase
  2. B) the length of time needed for a cell to divide
  3. C) the minimum rate of doubling
  4. D) the duration of log phase
  5. E) the time needed for nuclear division

Answer:  B

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  6.14

 

28) Which of the following is NOT a direct method to measure microbial growth?

  1. A) direct microscopic count
  2. B) standard plate count
  3. C) filtration on a support membrane followed by incubation on medium
  4. D) metabolic activity
  5. E) most probable number (MPN)

Answer:  D

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  8.4

Learning Outcome:  6.17

Global Outcome:  2

 

29) Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with salt?

  1. A) psychrophiles
  2. B) facultative halophiles
  3. C) anaerobes
  4. D) thermophiles
  5. E) hyperthermophiles

Answer:  B

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.3

Global Outcome:  2

 

30) Which of the following is an organic growth factor?

  1. A) glucose
  2. B) vitamin B1
  3. C) peptone
  4. D) Mg+2
  5. E) H2O

Answer:  B

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  6.4

Global Outcome:  2

 

31) Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth?

  1. A) standard plate count
  2. B) glucose consumption
  3. C) direct microscopic count
  4. D) turbidity
  5. E) most probable number (MPN)

Answer:  B

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  8.4

Learning Outcome:  6.4

Global Outcome:  2

 

 

32) An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the

cells go through?

  1. A) 64
  2. B) 32
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 5
  5. E) 4

Answer:  D

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global Outcome:  4

33) Three cells with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. How many cells are there after 5 hours?

  1. A) 900
  2. B) 180
  3. C) 96
  4. D) 32
  5. E) 15

Answer:  C

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  6.15

Global Outcome:  4

 

 

Figure 6.3

 

 

34) In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a microaerophile?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  E

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.5

Global Outcome:  3

 

35) In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  B

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.5

Global Outcome:  3

 

36) In one hospital, Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tract of 10 percent of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. After each use, endoscopes were washed with an automatic reprocessor that flushed detergent and glutaraldehyde through the endoscopes, followed by a tap water rinse. P. aeruginosa serotype 10 was not isolated from the detergent, glutaraldehyde, or tap water. What was the source of the infections?

  1. A) bacterial cell walls in the water
  2. B) a biofilm in the reprocessor
  3. C) contaminated disinfectant
  4. D) fecal contamination of the bile ducts
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  B

Section:  6.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global Outcome:  2

 

Table 6.1

 

Three different culture media are shown below.

 

Medium A Medium B Medium C
Na2HPO4 Tide detergent Glucose
KH2PO4 Na2HPO4 Peptone
MgSO4 KH2PO4 (NH4)2SO4
CaCl2 MgSO4 KH2PO2
NaHCO3 (NH4)2SO4 Na2HPO4

 

37) For the three types of media in Table 6.1, which medium (or media) is/are chemically defined?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) A and B
  5. E) A and C

Answer:  A

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global Outcome:  3

 

 

38) In Table, 6.1, in which medium (or media) would an autotroph grow?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) A and B
  5. E) A and C

Answer:  A

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global Outcome:  3

39) Assume you inoculated 100 cells, with a generation time of 20 minutes, into 100 ml of nutrient broth. You then inoculated 100 cells of the same species into 200 ml of nutrient broth. After incubation for 4 hours, you can reasonably expect to have

  1. A) more cells in the 100 ml.
  2. B) more cells in the 200 ml.
  3. C) the same number of cells in both.
  4. D) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer:  C

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global Outcome:  2

 

40) The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is

  1. A) agar.
  2. B) gelatin.
  3. C) peptone and beef extract.
  4. D) peptone and NaCl.
  5. E) agar and NaCl.

Answer:  C

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global Outcome:  2

 

41) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction:  O2- + O2- + 2H+ → H2O2 + O2?

  1. A) catalase
  2. B) oxidase
  3. C) peroxidase
  4. D) superoxide dismutase

Answer:  D

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  6.6

 

42) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction:  2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2?

  1. A) catalase
  2. B) oxidase
  3. C) peroxidase
  4. D) superoxide dismutase

Answer:  A

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  6.6

43) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction:  H2O2 + 2H+ → 2H2O?

  1. A) catalase
  2. B) oxidase
  3. C) peroxidase
  4. D) superoxide dismutase

Answer:  C

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  6.6

 

44) Table 6.2

 

The following data show growth of two bacteria on different media.

 

 

The data in Table 6.2 indicate that S. aureus is a(n)

  1. A) mesophile.
  2. B) facultative anaerobe.
  3. C) facultative halophile.
  4. D) aerobe.
  5. E) halophile.

Answer:  C

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.3

Global Outcome:  3

 

 

45) Patients with indwelling catheters (long-term tubes inserted into body orifices for drainage, such as through the urethra and into the urinary bladder) are susceptible to infections because

  1. A) injected solutions are contaminated.
  2. B) their immune systems are weakened.
  3. C) infections can be transmitted from other people.
  4. D) biofilms develop on catheters.
  5. E) bacteria cause infections.

Answer:  D

Section:  6.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  5.2

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global Outcome:  2

6.2   True/False Questions

 

1) An isolated colony on a streak plate contains millions (or even billions) of identical cells all arising from one initial cell.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.2

Learning Outcome:  6.11

 

2) Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the numbers of cells in a bacterial culture.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  6.14

 

3) Pure cultures can easily be obtained on streak plates, even if the desired bacteria are present in very low concentrations in the initial culture broth.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  8.2

Learning Outcome:  6.12

Global Outcome:  2

 

4) Agar is used as a solidifying agent in microbiological media since few bacteria can degrade it.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  6.8

 

 

5) Laboratory cultivation of obligate anaerobes requires reducing media or special growth chambers filled with inert gases.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.9

 

6) Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  6.1

Global Outcome:  2

7) In performing a ten-fold dilutions series from a sample containing 10,000 bacteria per milliliter, the fourth tube in the dilution series will have 10 cells per milliliter.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  6.16

Global Outcome:  4

 

8) Turbidity is an indirect measurement of bacterial growth that can be measured using a spectrophotometer.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.4

Learning Outcome:  6.18

 

9) Filtration methods, followed by growth of the bacteria trapped on the filters in growth media, are used to count bacteria present in very low concentrations, such as in lakes and streams.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.4

Learning Outcome:  6.16

 

 

10) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, such as cyanobacteria, can use atmospheric nitrogen (N2) for their nitrogen source.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  6.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  6.4

 

6.3   Essay Questions

 

1) A patient with a heart pacemaker received antibiotic therapy for streptococcal bacteremia (bacteria in the blood). One month later, he was treated for recurrence of the bacteremia. When he returned six weeks later, again with bacteremia, the physician recommended replacing the pacemaker. Why did this cure his condition?

Section:  6.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Synthesis

Learning Outcome:  6.7

Global Outcome:  8

2) Table 6.3

 

 

Bacterial generation times for four different bacterial species were calculated in the media listed in Table 6.3. All media were prepared with pure distilled water and incubated aerobically in the light. Compare and contrast the growth requirements of the four bacteria listed above. Which of the media, if any, are chemically defined?

Section:  6.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Synthesis

Learning Outcome:  6.8

Global Outcome:  3

Microbiology: An Introduction, 12e, (Tortora)

Chapter 7   The Control of Microbial Growth

 

7.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions?

  1. A) dry heat
  2. B) autoclave
  3. C) membrane filtration
  4. D) pasteurization
  5. E) freezing

Answer:  C

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.5

 

2) Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?

  1. A) The cells in a population die at a constant rate.
  2. B) All the cells in a culture die at once.
  3. C) Not all of the cells in a culture are killed.
  4. D) The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent.
  5. E) The pattern varies depending on the species.

Answer:  A

Section:  7.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.2

 

3) Which of the following chemical agents is used for sterilization?

  1. A) alcohol
  2. B) phenolics
  3. C) ethylene oxide
  4. D) chlorine
  5. E) soap

Answer:  C

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

 

 

4) Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs?

  1. A) phenol
  2. B) chlorine bleach
  3. C) chlorhexidine
  4. D) soap
  5. E) glutaraldehyde

Answer:  C

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

5) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?

  1. A) bacteriostatic — kills vegetative bacterial cells
  2. B) germicide — kills microbes
  3. C) virucide — inactivates viruses
  4. D) sterilant — destroys all living microorganisms
  5. E) fungicide — kills yeasts and molds

Answer:  A

Section:  7.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.1

 

6) The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following?

  1. A) the formation of hypochlorous acid
  2. B) the formation of hydrochloric acid
  3. C) the formation of ozone
  4. D) the formation of a hypochlorite ion
  5. E) disruption of the plasma membrane

Answer:  A

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.10

 

7) Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE?

  1. A) Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum decrease effectiveness.
  2. B) Some agents kill by denaturing microbial cell proteins.
  3. C) Some agents affect microbial cell membranes by dissolving lipids.
  4. D) Silver is used for treating antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
  5. E) Alcohols effectively inactivate nonenveloped viruses by attacking lipids.

Answer:  E

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

 

8) Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?

  1. A) dry heat
  2. B) pasteurization
  3. C) autoclave
  4. D) supercritical fluids
  5. E) ethylene oxide

Answer:  B

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.4

9) Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave?

  1. A) It requires an excessively long time to achieve sterilization.
  2. B) It cannot inactivate viruses.
  3. C) It cannot kill endospores.
  4. D) It cannot be used with heat-labile materials.
  5. E) It cannot be used with glassware.

Answer:  D

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.4

 

10) An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n)

  1. A) disinfectant.
  2. B) antiseptic.
  3. C) aseptic.
  4. D) fungicide.
  5. E) virucide.

Answer:  A

Section:  7.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.1

 

 

11) Application of heat to living cells can result in all of the following EXCEPT

  1. A) breaking of hydrogen bonds.
  2. B) alteration of membrane permeability.
  3. C) denaturation of enzymes.
  4. D) decreased thermal death time.
  5. E) damage to nucleic acids.

Answer:  D

Section:  7.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.2

 

12) Which of the following disinfectants acts by disrupting the plasma membrane?

  1. A) soaps
  2. B) aldehydes
  3. C) bisphenols
  4. D) halogens
  5. E) heavy metals

Answer:  C

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

13) Oxidizing agents include all of the following EXCEPT

  1. A) chlorine.
  2. B) glutaraldehyde.
  3. C) hydrogen peroxide.
  4. D) iodine.
  5. E) ozone.

Answer:  B

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

 

 

14) Disinfection of water is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT

  1. A) ozone.
  2. B) UV radiation.
  3. C) chlorine.
  4. D) copper sulfate.
  5. E) peracetic acid.

Answer:  E

Section:  7.4; 7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.7

Global Outcome:  5

 

15) All of the following substances are effective against nonenveloped viruses EXCEPT

  1. A) alcohol.
  2. B) chlorine.
  3. C) ethylene oxide.
  4. D) ozone.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are equally effective against nonenveloped viruses.

Answer:  A

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

 

16) Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes?

  1. A) lyophilization
  2. B) nonionizing radiation
  3. C) freezing
  4. D) ionizing radiation
  5. E) pasteurization

Answer:  C

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.5

Global Outcome:  5

 

17) Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide?

  1. A) 100 percent
  2. B) 70 percent
  3. C) 50 percent
  4. D) 40 percent
  5. E) 30 percent

Answer:  B

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

 

18) All of the following factors contribute to hospital-acquired infections EXCEPT

  1. A) some bacteria metabolize disinfectants.
  2. B) gram-negative bacteria are often resistant to disinfectants.
  3. C) invasive procedures can provide a portal of entry for bacteria.
  4. D) bacteria may be present in commercial products such as mouthwash.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct; all of these factors may contribute to hospital-acquired infection.

Answer:  E

Section:  7.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  5.4

Learning Outcome:  7.14

Global Outcome:  7

 

19) Which of the following treatments is the most effective for controlling microbial growth?

  1. A) 63°C for 30 minutes
  2. B) 72°C for 15 seconds
  3. C) 140°C for 4 seconds
  4. D) They are equivalent treatments.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  D

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.4

 

 

20) Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper?

  1. A) autoclave
  2. B) gamma radiation
  3. C) microwaves
  4. D) sunlight
  5. E) ultraviolet radiation

Answer:  B

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.6

21) Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE?

  1. A) Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum will decrease effectiveness.
  2. B) Some agents kill by denaturing microbial cell proteins.
  3. C) Some agents affect microbial cell membranes by dissolving lipids.
  4. D) Some agents are utilized as both an antiseptic and a disinfectant.
  5. E) A true antimicrobial control agent is equally effective against both bacteria and viruses.

Answer:  E

Section:  7.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.3

 

 

Figure 7.1

 

 

A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown.

 

22) In Figure 7.1, what is the thermal death time?

  1. A) 150°C
  2. B) 60 minutes
  3. C) 120 minutes
  4. D) 100°C
  5. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer:  B

Section:  7.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2a

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global Outcome:  3

23) In Figure 7.1, the thermal death point for this culture is

  1. A) 15 minutes.
  2. B) 50°C.
  3. C) 30 minutes.
  4. D) 170°C.
  5. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided

Answer:  E

Section:  7.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2a

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global Outcome:  3

 

 

24) In Figure 7.1, the decimal reduction time (D value) for the culture, which is defined as the time to reduce a population by one log, is approximately

  1. A) 0 minutes.
  2. B) 10 minutes.
  3. C) 30 minutes.
  4. D) 40 minutes.
  5. E) 60 minutes.

Answer:  B

Section:  7.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2a

Learning Outcome:  7.2

Global Outcome:  3

 

25) Which of the following results in lethal damage to nucleic acids?

  1. A) heat
  2. B) radiation
  3. C) certain chemicals
  4. D) heat and radiation
  5. E) heat, radiation, and some chemicals

Answer:  E

Section:  7.4; 7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.6, 7.9

 

26) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

  1. A) Ag — wound dressings
  2. B) alcohols — open wounds
  3. C) CuSO4— algicide
  4. D) H2O2— open wounds
  5. E) organic acids — food preservation

Answer:  B

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

 

Figure 7.2

 

Assume 109 E. coli cells/ml are in a flask.

 

 

27) Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture in an autoclave for 15 minutes at time x?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  B

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4; 7.2a

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global Outcome:  3

 

28) Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture at 7°C at time x?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  D

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4, 7.2a

Learning Outcome:  7.5

Global Outcome:  3

 

Table 7.1

 

A disk-diffusion test using Staphylococcus gave the following results:

 

Disinfectant         Zone of inhibition (mm)

A                                    0

B                                    2.5

C                                    10

D                                    5

 

29) In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against Staphylococcus?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer:  C

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.1b

Learning Outcome:  7.8

Global Outcome:  3

 

30) In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against E. coli?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer:  E

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.1b

Learning Outcome:  7.8

Global Outcome:  3

 

 

31) In Table 7.1, which compound was bactericidal?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer:  E

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.1b

Learning Outcome:  7.8

Global Outcome:  3

32) Table 7.2

 

The fate of E. coli O157:H7 in apple cider held at 8°C for 2 weeks,

with and without preservatives, is shown below:

 

Bacteria/ml

Cider only                                                      2.2

Cider with potassium sorbate                        2.0

Sodium benzoate                                             0

Potassium sorbate + sodium benzoate             0

 

In Table 7.2, which preservative is most effective?

  1. A) potassium sorbate
  2. B) sodium benzoate
  3. C) potassium sorbate + sodium benzoate
  4. D) no preservative

Answer:  B

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.1b

Learning Outcome:  7.9

Global Outcome:  3

 

33) An iodophor is a(n)

  1. A) phenol.
  2. B) agent that reduces oxygen.
  3. C) quaternary ammonium compound.
  4. D) form of formaldehyde.
  5. E) iodine mixed with a surfactant.

Answer:  E

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.10

 

34) Ethylene oxide

  1. A) is a good antiseptic.
  2. B) is not sporicidal.
  3. C) requires high heat to be effective.
  4. D) is a sterilizing agent.
  5. E) is the active chemical in household bleach.

Answer:  D

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.13

35) All of the following substances are used to preserve foods EXCEPT

  1. A) biguanides.
  2. B) nisin.
  3. C) potassium sorbate.
  4. D) sodium nitrite.
  5. E) calcium propionate.

Answer:  A

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

 

 

Table 7.3

 

The following data were obtained by incubating gram-positive bacteria in

nutrient medium + disinfectant for 24 hr, then transferring one loopful to

nutrient medium (subculturing). (+ = growth; – = no growth)

 

 

36) In Table 7.3, which disinfectant is the most effective at stopping bacterial growth?

  1. A) Doom
  2. B) K.O.
  3. C) Mortum
  4. D) Sterl
  5. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer:  A

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4; 7.1b

Learning Outcome:  7.8

Global Outcome:  3

37) In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was bactericidal?

  1. A) Doom
  2. B) K.O.
  3. C) Mortum
  4. D) Sterl
  5. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer:  C

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4; 7.1b

Learning Outcome:  7.8

Global Outcome:  3

 

 

38) In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was most effective against Salmonella?

  1. A) Doom
  2. B) K.O.
  3. C) Mortum
  4. D) Sterl
  5. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer:  E

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4; 7.1b

Learning Outcome:  7.8

Global Outcome:  3

 

39) All of the following are effective for destroying prions EXCEPT

  1. A) boiling.
  2. B) incineration.
  3. C) NaOH + autoclaving at 134°C.
  4. D) proteases.
  5. E) None of the answers are correct; each of these will destroy prions.

Answer:  A

Section:  7.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.14

 

40) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

  1. A) ionizing radiation — hydroxyl radicals
  2. B) ozone — takes electrons from substances
  3. C) plasma sterilization — free radicals
  4. D) supercritical fluids — CO2
  5. E) ultraviolet radiation — desiccation

Answer:  E

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.6

 

41) All of the following are methods of food preservation EXCEPT

  1. A) desiccation.
  2. B) high pressure.
  3. C) ionizing radiation.
  4. D) microwaves.
  5. E) osmotic pressure.

Answer:  D

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.5

 

42) The preservation of beef jerky from microbial growth relies on which method of microbial control?

  1. A) filtration
  2. B) lyophilization
  3. C) desiccation
  4. D) ionizing radiation
  5. E) supercritical CO2

Answer:  C

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.5

 

43) If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and did not have an autoclave, what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar?

  1. A) bleach
  2. B) boiling for one hour
  3. C) hydrogen peroxide
  4. D) oven at 121°C for one hour
  5. E) pressure cooker at 121°C for 15 minutes

Answer:  E

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.4

 

 

44) Bone and tendons for transplant are decontaminated by

  1. A) ethylene oxide.
  2. B) glutaraldehyde.
  3. C) peroxygens.
  4. D) plasma sterilization.
  5. E) supercritical fluids.

Answer:  E

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

45) Which one of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides?

  1. A) gram-negative bacteria
  2. B) gram-positive bacteria
  3. C) mycobacteria
  4. D) protozoan cysts
  5. E) viruses with lipid envelopes

Answer:  A

Section:  7.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.14

 

46) The following is true of quarternary ammonium compounds EXCEPT

  1. A) they are non-toxic at lower concentrations.
  2. B) they are tasteless.
  3. C) they are effective when combined with soaps.
  4. D) they are stable.
  5. E) they may be an ingredient in mouthwash.

Answer:  C

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.11

 

 

7.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Any process that destroys the non-spore forming contaminants on inanimate objects is sterilization.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.1

 

2) Desiccation is a reliable form of sterilization.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.5

 

3) The thermal death time is the time needed to kill all the bacteria in a particular culture at a certain temperature.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.2

4) Pseudomonas has been found growing in quaternary ammonium compounds (quats).

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  7.7

 

5) Moist heat destroys organisms by denaturing proteins.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.4

 

6) Some antimicrobial chemicals are considered to be disinfectants and antiseptics.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.10

 

 

7) The pH of the medium has no effect on the activity of the disinfectant being applied.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.7

 

8) Ultraviolet light (UV) causes irreversible breaks in DNA strands.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.6

 

9) Autoclaving is the most effective method of moist heat sterilization.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.4

 

10) Microorganisms placed in high concentrations of salts and sugars undergo lysis.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.5

 

7.3   Essay Questions

 

1) Table 7.4

 

The results below were obtained from a use-dilution test of two disinfectants. Cultures were inoculated into tubes with varying concentrations of disinfectants and incubated for 24 hr at 20°C, then subcultured in nutrient media without disinfectants.

(+ = growth; – = no growth)

 

 

In Table 7.4, what is the minimal bacteriostatic concentration of each disinfectant? Which compound is bactericidal? At what concentration?

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.3a

Learning Outcome:  7.8

Global Outcome:  3

 

2) Assume that you are responsible for decontaminating materials in a large hospital. How would you sterilize each of the following? Briefly justify your answers.

  1. a mattress used by a patient with bubonic plague
  2. intravenous glucose-saline solutions
  3. used disposable syringes
  4. tissues taken from patients

Section:  7.4; 7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Synthesis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.3a

Learning Outcome:  7.7

Global Outcome:  8

 

3) Table 7.5

 

The following results were obtained from a use-dilution test of two disinfectants. Cultures were inoculated into tubes containing varying concentrations of the disinfectants, incubated for 10 min. at 20°C, and then transferred to growth media without disinfectant.

(+ = growth; – = no growth)

 

 

In Table 7.5, which disinfectant is most effective? Against which group of bacteria is Disinfectant A most effective?

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.3a

Learning Outcome:  7.8

Global Outcome:  3

 

4) How is hydrogen peroxide antimicrobial?

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.9

Global Outcome:  8

 

 

5) Why must most milk sold in the U.S. be refrigerated at all times while evaporated canned milk and milk in cardboard containers sold in Europe do not need to be refrigerated until they are opened?

Section:  7.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.4

Global Outcome:  8

6) What are the advantages of gluteraldehyde compared to formaldehyde?

Section:  7.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  7.12

Global Outcome:  8

 

7) List the microbial targets of disinfecting chemicals and provide one example of a chemical agent that affects that structure.

Section:  7.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4; 7.3a

Learning Outcome:  7.3

Global Outcome:  8

Microbiology: An Introduction, 12e, (Tortora)

Chapter 9   Biotechnology and DNA Technology

 

9.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step?

  1. A) Collect DNA.
  2. B) Digest with a restriction enzyme.
  3. C) Perform electrophoresis.
  4. D) Lyse cells.
  5. E) Add stain.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.3

Learning Outcome:  9.18

 

Figure 9.1

 

2) How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the plasmid shown in Figure 9.1?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

Answer:  B

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global Outcome:  2

3) In Figure 9.1, after digestion with the appropriate restriction enzyme, what is the smallest piece containing the entire ampicillin-resistance (amp) gene?

  1. A) 0.17 kbp
  2. B) 0.25 kbp
  3. C) 1.08 kbp
  4. D) 1.50 kbp
  5. E) 3.00 kbp

Answer:  D

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global Outcome:  2

 

 

Figure 9.2

 

 

4) In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is

  1. A) DNA polymerase.
  2. B) DNA ligase.
  3. C) RNA polymerase.
  4. D) reverse transcriptase.
  5. E) spliceosome.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.2

Learning Outcome:  9.10

 

 

5) In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 2 is

  1. A) DNA polymerase.
  2. B) DNA ligase.
  3. C) RNA polymerase.
  4. D) reverse transcriptase.
  5. E) spliceosome.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10

 

6) The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is

  1. A) DNA → mRNA.
  2. B) mRNA → cDNA.
  3. C) mRNA → protein.
  4. D) DNA → DNA.
  5. E) tRNA → mRNA.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10

 

7) Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product?

  1. A) Endotoxin may be in the product.
  2. B) It does not secrete most proteins.
  3. C) Its genes are well known.
  4. D) It cannot process introns.
  5. E) Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.1

Global Outcome:  5

 

8) Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques?

  1. A) frost retardant
  2. B) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide
  3. C) nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation)
  4. D) glyphosate-resistant crops
  5. E) pectinase

Answer:  E

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.13

Global Outcome:  5

 

9) If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is

  1. A) transformation of coli with Ti plasmid.
  2. B) splicing T DNA into a plasmid.
  3. C) transformation of an animal cell.
  4. D) inserting the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium.
  5. E) inserting the Ti plasmid into a plant cell.

Answer:  D

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.19

 

10) Biotechnology involves the

  1. A) use of microorganisms to make desired products.
  2. B) use of animal cells to make vaccines.
  3. C) development of disease-resistant crop plants.
  4. D) use of microorganisms to make desired products and the use of animal cells to make vaccines.
  5. E) use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants.

Answer:  E

Section:  9.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.1

Global Outcome:  5

 

11) Figure 9.3

 

 

The figure at the left in Figure 9.3 shows a gene identified by Southern blotting. What will a Southern blot of the same gene look like after PCR?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  D

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

Learning Outcome:  9.17

Global Outcome:  3

 

12) Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures?

  1. A) self-replication
  2. B) large size
  3. C) has a selectable marker
  4. D) circular form of DNA or integrates into the host chromosome
  5. E) may replicate in several species

Answer:  B

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.5

 

13) Figure 9.4

 

 

In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and plated on media containing ampicillin and X-gal will

  1. A) form blue, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
  2. B) form blue, ampicillin-sensitive colonies.
  3. C) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
  4. D) form white, ampicillin-sensitive colonies.
  5. E) not grow.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.11

 

14) An advantage of synthetic DNA over genomic or cDNA is the ability to

  1. A) insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence.
  2. B) isolate unknown genes.
  3. C) make DNA from cellular RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
  4. D) obtain genes that lack introns.
  5. E) obtain genes that lack exons.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10

 

15) An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it

  1. A) lacks exons.
  2. B) lacks introns.
  3. C) contains selectable markers.
  4. D) can form very large DNA segments.
  5. E) is very easy to isolate.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10

 

16) The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognizes the sequence G↓AATTC. Which of the following is TRUE of DNA after it is treated with EcoRI?

  1. A) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in AA.
  2. B) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in G.
  3. C) Some of the DNA will have single-stranded regions ending in AA and others will end in G.
  4. D) All of the DNA will have blunt ends.
  5. E) All of the DNA will be circular.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.4

 

17) Which enzyme would cut this strand of DNA?

 

GCATGGATCCCAATGC

 

  1. A) Enzyme Recognition

     BamHI          G↓GATCC

CCCTAG↑G

  1. B) Enzyme Recognition

     EcoRI            G↓AATTC

CTTAA↑G

  1. C) Enzyme Recognition

     HaeIII           GG↓CC

CC↑GG

  1. D) Enzyme Recognition

     HindIII          A↓AGCTT

TTCGA↑A

  1. E) Enzyme Recognition

     Pst                 ICTGC↓G

G↑ACGTC

Answer:  A

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.4

Global Outcome:  3

 

18) Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a

  1. A) library.
  2. B) clone.
  3. C) vector.
  4. D) Southern blot.
  5. E) PCR.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.9

 

 

19) A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a

  1. A) library.
  2. B) clone.
  3. C) vector.
  4. D) Southern blot.
  5. E) PCR.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.2

20) Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a

  1. A) library.
  2. B) clone.
  3. C) vector.
  4. D) Southern blot.
  5. E) PCR.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.2

 

21) The Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003, was focused on

  1. A) identifying all of the genes in the human genome.
  2. B) determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.
  3. C) determining all of the proteins encoded by the human genome.
  4. D) finding a cure for all human genetic disorders.
  5. E) cloning all of the genes of the human genome.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  9.15

Global Outcome:  5

 

 

22) A colleague has used computer modeling to design an improved enzyme. To produce this enzyme, the next step is to

  1. A) look for a bacterium that makes the improved enzyme.
  2. B) mutate bacteria until one makes the improved enzyme.
  3. C) determine the nucleotide sequence for the improved enzyme.
  4. D) synthesize the gene for the improved enzyme.
  5. E) use siRNA to produce the enzyme.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

Learning Outcome:  9.16

Global Outcome:  2

 

23) You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 16
  5. E) thousands

Answer:  C

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  9.7

Global Outcome:  4

24) Which of the following places the steps in the PCR procedure in the correct order?

 

1) Incubate at 94°C to denature DNA strands;

2) Incubate at 72°C for DNA synthesis;

3) Incubate at 60°C for primer hybridization.

 

  1. A) 1, 2, 3
  2. B) 3, 2, 1
  3. C) 1, 3, 2
  4. D) 2; 1; 3
  5. E) 3; 1; 2

Answer:  C

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  9.7

 

 

25) Which of the following are used to silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or viral diseases, such as hepatitis B?

  1. A) RNA interference (RNAi)
  2. B) complementary DNA (cDNA)
  3. C) reverse transcriptase PCR (rtPCR)
  4. D) tumor-inducing plasmids (Ti plasmids)
  5. E) DNA fingerprinting

Answer:  A

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.3

Learning Outcome:  9.14

Global Outcome:  5

 

26) Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants?

  1. A) gene guns
  2. B) protoplast fusion
  3. C) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium
  4. D) microinjection
  5. E) electroporation

Answer:  D

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.8

Global Outcome:  5

 

Figure 9.5

 

27) In Figure 9.5, the marker genes used for selecting recombinant DNA are

  1. A) HindIII, BamHI, and Eco
  2. B) ampRand lacZ.
  3. C) ori.
  4. D) ampRand ori.
  5. E) lacZ and ori.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.5

 

28) In Figure 9.5, the gene that allows the plasmid to be self-replicating is

  1. A) Hind
  2. B) ampR.
  3. C) ori.
  4. D) Eco
  5. E) lacZ.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.5

 

 

29) Which of the following methods would be used to introduce the plasmid shown in Figure 9.5 into E. coli?

  1. A) microinjection
  2. B) transformation
  3. C) gene guns
  4. D) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium

Answer:  B

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.8

30) A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is

  1. A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
  2. B) Thermus aquaticus.
  3. C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
  4. D) Bacillus thuringiensis.
  5. E)

Answer:  B

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.3

Learning Outcome:  9.7

 

31) The Pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of cervical cells for cancerous cells. A new, rapid diagnostic test to detect human papilloma virus (HPV) DNA before cancer develops is done without microscopic exam. The steps involved in this FastHPV test are listed below. What is the second step?

  1. A) Add an RNA probe for HPV DNA.
  2. B) Lyse human cells.
  3. C) Add enzyme-linked antibodies against DNA-RNA.
  4. D) Add enzyme substrate.
  5. E) The order is unimportant.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  8.3

Learning Outcome:  9.13

Global Outcome:  5

 

 

32) Gene silencing involves all of the following EXCEPT

  1. A) small interfering RNAs.
  2. B) production of double stranded RNAs.
  3. C) small interfering RNA binding to a gene promoter.
  4. D) Dicer.
  5. E) RNA-induced silencing complex.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.3

Learning Outcome:  9.14

 

33) You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene. The process involves using a primer and a heat-stable DNA polymerase. This process is

  1. A) translation.
  2. B) restriction mapping.
  3. C) transformation.
  4. D) PCR.
  5. E) site-directed mutagenesis.

Answer:  D

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  9.7

Global Outcome:  5

34) Which of the following are used by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to track outbreaks of foodborne disease?

  1. A) DNA fingerprints
  2. B) restriction fragment length polymorphisms
  3. C) reverse-transcriptase PCR (rtPCR)
  4. D) DNA fingerprints and restriction fragment length polymorphisms
  5. E) DNA fingerprints, restriction fragment length polymorphisms, and reverse-transcriptase PCR(rtPCR)

Answer:  E

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  8.3

Learning Outcome:  9.13

Global Outcome:  5

 

 

35) Assume you have discovered a cell that produces a lipase that works in cold water for a laundry additive. You can increase the efficiency of this enzyme by changing one amino acid. This is done by

  1. A) irradiating the cells.
  2. B) site-directed mutagenesis.
  3. C) enrichment.
  4. D) selective breeding.
  5. E) selection.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.3

Global Outcome:  5

 

36) The use of an antibiotic-resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes

  1. A) replica plating possible.
  2. B) direct selection possible.
  3. C) the recombinant cell dangerous.
  4. D) the recombinant cell unable to survive.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.11

 

37) The following steps must be performed to make a bacterium produce human protein X.

 

1-Translation

2-Restriction enzyme

3-Prokaryotic transcription

4-DNA ligase

5-Transformation

6-Eukaryotic transcription

7-Reverse transcription

 

Which of the following places the steps in the correct order?

  1. A) 5, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6, 1
  2. B) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 7, 6
  3. C) 6, 7, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
  4. D) 6, 7, 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
  5. E) 6, 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 7

Answer:  D

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.8

Global Outcome:  5

 

38) The use of “suicide” genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to

  1. A) prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment.
  2. B) kill the modified organisms before they are released in the environment.
  3. C) delete genes necessary for modified organism’s growth.
  4. D) provide for resistance of the modified organisms to pesticides.
  5. E) provide a means to eliminate non-modified organisms.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.20

Global Outcome:  5

 

39) A restriction fragment is

  1. A) a gene.
  2. B) a segment of DNA.
  3. C) a segment of mRNA.
  4. D) a segment of tRNA.
  5. E) cDNA.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  9.4

40) In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required?

  1. A) transfer of DNA to nitrocellulose
  2. B) addition of a labeled probe to identify the gene of interest
  3. C) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA
  4. D) electrophoresis to separate fragments
  5. E) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA

Answer:  E

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  9.17

 

41) Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA?

  1. A) reverse transcription
  2. B) RNA processing to remove introns
  3. C) transcription
  4. D) translation

Answer:  D

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.10

 

42) PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because

  1. A) the RNA primer is specific.
  2. B) DNA polymerase will replicate DNA.
  3. C) DNA can be electrophoresed.
  4. D) all cells have DNA.
  5. E) all cells have RNA.

Answer:  A

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  8.3

Learning Outcome:  9.7

 

43) The random shotgun method is used in

  1. A) amplification of unknown DNA.
  2. B) transforming plant cells with recombinant DNA.
  3. C) genome sequencing.
  4. D) RFLP analysis.
  5. E) forensic microbiology.

Answer:  C

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.3

Learning Outcome:  9.16

 

44) Restriction enzymes are

  1. A) bacterial enzymes that splice DNA.
  2. B) bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA.
  3. C) animal enzymes that splice RNA.
  4. D) viral enzymes that destroy host DNA.

Answer:  B

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  9.4

 

45) The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is

  1. A) bioinformatics.
  2. B) proteomics.
  3. C) reverse genetics.
  4. D) forensic microbiology.
  5. E) metagenomics.

Answer:  E

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.3

Learning Outcome:  9.15

 

9.2   True/False Questions

 

1) The term biotechnology refers exclusively to the use of genetically engineered organisms for the production of desired products.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  9.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  9.1

 

2) In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self-replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid or viral genome.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  9.2

 

3) The practice of breeding plants and animals for desirable traits, such as high crop yield, is called natural selection.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  9.3

 

 

4) A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as bacterial, fungal, and plant cells.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  9.6

5) Nearly all cells, including E. coli and yeast, naturally take up DNA from their surroundings without chemical treatment.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.8

 

6) The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene introns.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  4.2

Learning Outcome:  9.9

 

7) One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.13

Global Outcome:  5

 

8) Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  7.1b

Learning Outcome:  9.16

 

9) The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA into any type of plant.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.19

 

 

10) The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  9.13

Global Outcome:  5

9.3   Essay Questions

 

1) The local public health agency has received reports of an outbreak of Salmonella gastroenteritis among attendees at a city-sponsored chili cook-off. What techniques from recombinant DNA technology would the agency likely use to investigate this outbreak? Describe the expected results from these techniques.

Section:  9.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Evaluation

ASMcue Outcome:  8.3

Learning Outcome:  9.13

Global Outcome:  8

 

2) Pseudomonas syringae is found naturally in the soil. Sold as Snomax, it is used to make snow at ski resorts. The same bacterium with a gene deletion (Ice-minus) is used to prevent ice formation on plants. Should Snomax and Ice-minus be considered modified organisms and subject to precautions of releasing genetically modified organisms? Explain why or why not.

Section:  9.4; 9.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Evaluation

ASMcue Outcome:  6.3

Learning Outcome:  9.20

Global Outcome:  8

 

3) Your research group is investigating the possible use of genetically-engineered cells to produce a vaccine for malaria. List the pros and cons of using E. coli, Saccharomyces, and animal cells to produce the vaccine.

Section:  9.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.12

Global Outcome:  8

 

 

4) The development of DNA technology is bringing profound changes to science, agriculture and healthcare.  Provide one example of a DNA technology and provide at least one advantage and one example of a concern or problem associated with its use.

Section:  9.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  4.5

Learning Outcome:  9.12

Global Outcome:  8