Modern Dental Assisting 10th Ed By Doni L. Bird – Test Bank

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Modern Dental Assisting 10th Ed By Doni L. Bird – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

Bird & Robinson: Modern Dental Assisting, 10th Edition

 

Chapter 06: General Anatomy

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The scientific study of the shape and structure of the body is:
a. biology. c. anatomy.
b. physiology. d. pathology.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Biology is the scientific study of plants and animals.
B Physiology is the study of the functions of the body.
C Anatomy is the scientific study of the shape and structure of the human body.
D Pathology is the study of disease.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 46              TOP:   Key Terms and Introduction

 

  1. The scientific study of how the body functions is:
a. physiology. c. functionality.
b. anatomy. d. biology.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Physiology is the scientific study of how the human body functions.
B Anatomy is the study of the shape and structure of the human body.
C Functionality is the ability of something to function, not necessarily the body.
D Biology is the scientific study of plants and animals.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 46              TOP:   Key Terms and Introduction

 

  1. The body standing erect with the feet together and arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward is in:
a. a resting position. c. position for an autopsy.
b. anatomic position. d. proper posture.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Resting position is an incorrect term for this description.
B In general descriptions of the human body, it is assumed that the body is in “anatomic position.” Anatomic position is the body standing erect with the feet together and arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward.
C Autopsy position is an incorrect term for this description.
D Proper position is an incorrect term for this description.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 47              TOP:   Planes and Body Directions

 

  1. The three imaginary lines used to divide the body into sections are called:
a. division lines. c. planes.
b. section lines. d. structural units.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Division lines is incorrect.
B Section lines is incorrect.
C The body is divided into sections by three imaginary lines, called planes. This helps in visualizing the relationship of internal body parts.
D Structural units is incorrect; it refers to the body broken down into smaller units.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 47              TOP:   Planes and Body Directions

 

  1. The vertical plane that divides the body into equal left and right halves is the _____ plane.
a. coronal c. sagittal
b. transverse d. midsagittal

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A A coronal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
B A transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower portions.
C A sagittal plane is a vertical plane that runs parallel to the midsagittal plane.
D The midsagittal plane, also known as the median or midline plane, is the vertical plane that divides the body into equal left and right halves.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 47              TOP:   Planes and Body Directions

 

  1. A horizontal plane divides the body into _____ portions.
a. superior and inferior c. anterior and posterior
b. dorsal and ventral d. medial and lateral

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A A horizontal or transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower portions known as superior and inferior.
B Dorsal and ventral are terms that refer to the front and back of the body.
C Anterior and posterior are terms that refer to the front and back of the body.
D Medial and lateral are terms that refer to the center and sides of the body.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 47              TOP:   Planes and Body Directions

 

  1. The basic units of structure of the human body are:
a. body systems. c. cells.
b. tissues. d. organs.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Body systems are composed of groups of organs.
B Tissues are formed by the joining of cells.
C The study of the human body begins with the smallest units and builds systematically to larger units that result in the complete body. The basic or simplest unit of structure of the human body is the cell.
D Organs are formed when several types of tissues are grouped together.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 49              TOP:   Cells

 

  1. The four levels of organization in the human body arranged from smallest to largest are:
a. cell, tissue, organ, and body system. c. cell, organ, tissue, and body system.
b. tissue, organ, cell, and body system. d. body system, organ, tissue, and cell.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The structure of the human body is organized at four levels, starting at the simplest or smallest and working up to the largest or most complex. The cell is the most basic structure, a group of like cells is a tissue, groups of tissues form organs, groups of organs and tissues form body systems.
B This list is not arranged from simplest to most complex.
C This list is not arranged from simplest to most complex.
D This list is not arranged from simplest to most complex.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 47              TOP:   Structural Units

 

  1. The nucleus of the cell contains the:
a. protein. c. organelles.
b. cytoplasm. d. DNA.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Protein is manufactured, modified, stored, and transported in the organelles, which are other, more specialized parts of a cell.
B Cytoplasm is a gel-like fluid inside the cell, which surrounds the nucleus.
C Organelles are specialized parts of a cell that perform specific functions.
D The control center of the cell is the nucleus, which contains a complete set of the body’s chromosomes, made of DNA. DNA and RNA are the two chemicals that carry all genetic information.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 51              TOP:   Nucleus

 

  1. The four main types of tissue found in the human body are:
a. nerve, connective, epithelial, and muscle. c. brain, epithelial, nerve, and connective.
b. lung, nerve, brain, and muscle. d. bone, muscle, epithelial, and nerve.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Tissues are formed when many millions of the same type of cells join together to perform a specific function in the body. The four main types of tissue in the human body are nerve, connective, epithelial, and muscle tissues.
B Lung and brain tissue are not two of the four main types of tissues in the human body.
C Brain tissue is not one of the four main types of tissues in the human body.
D Bone is a form of connective tissue; however, there are many types of connective tissues other than bone.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 51              TOP:   Tissues

 

  1. The two major body cavities are the _____ cavities.
a. parietal and dorsal c. dorsal and ventral
b. thoracic and ventral d. cranial and spinal

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Parietal is an incorrect term because it refers to the lining of a cavity.
B Thoracic is an incorrect term because it refers to a subdivision of the ventral cavity.
C The organs of the body are located in areas called body cavities. The two major body cavities are the dorsal cavity, located at the back of the body, and the ventral cavity, located in the front of the body.
D The cranial and spinal cavities are the subdivisions of the dorsal cavity.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 55              TOP:   Body Cavities

 

  1. The two reference regions of the body are the _____ regions.
a. dorsal and ventral c. anterior and posterior
b. thoracic and abdominopelvic d. axial and appendicular

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Dorsal and ventral refer to the two major body cavities.
B These are two subdivisions of the ventral cavity.
C These terms refer to the front and back surfaces of the body.
D The body is divided into two reference regions: the axial region, which includes the head, neck, and trunk; and the appendicular region, which includes the arms and legs.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 55              TOP:   Body Regions

 

  1. Stem cells can differentiate into_____ cells.
a. nerve c. brain
b. red blood d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Stem cells are immature, unspecialized cells and can be induced to become specific types of cells.
B Stem cells are immature, unspecialized cells and can be induced to become specific types of cells.
C Stem cells are immature, unspecialized cells and can be induced to become specific types of cells.
D Stem cells are immature, unspecialized cells and can be induced to become specific types of cells.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 49              TOP:   Stem Cells

 

  1. The purpose of connective tissue is to:
a. provide protection for body surfaces.
b. coordinate and control body activities.
c. provide support and connect body organs and tissues.
d. provide movement of the body parts.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Epithelial tissue covers the external and internal body surfaces, providing protection.
B Nerve tissue coordinates and controls most body activities.
C Specific types of connective tissue can store fat, destroy bacteria, produce blood cells, and develop antibodies against infection and disease.
D Muscle tissue lengthens and shortens, allowing the body to move.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 51              TOP:   Tissues

 

  1. The part of the cell that helps the cell hold its shape is the:
a. nucleus. c. membrane.
b. organelles. d. cytoplasm.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The nucleus is inside the cell and directs the metabolic activities of the cell.
B Organelles are located within the cytoplasm of the cell and control the disposal of cellular wastes.
C Each cell is surrounded by a thin membrane that serves to help the cell maintain its form and separate it from the surrounding environment.
D Cytoplasm is located within the membrane of the cell.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 50              TOP:   Cell Membrane

 

  1. The lining of the mouth is made of _____ tissue.
a. epithelial c. muscle
b. connective d. nerve

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Epithelial tissue forms a covering for internal body systems, including the oral cavity and intestines.
B Connective tissue comprises such tissues as fat, tendons, and bone.
C Muscle tissue forms the muscular system of the body.
D Nerve tissue is found in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 51              TOP:   Tissues

 

  1. The body tissue that can control emotions, memory, and sensations is the ______ tissue.
a. epithelial c. muscle
b. connective d. nerve

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Epithelial tissue covers the external and internal body surfaces, providing protection.
B Connective tissue provides support for the body systems.
C Muscle tissue lengthens and shortens, allowing the body to move.
D The nerve tissue is found in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves that control body activities such as emotions and can respond to environmental changes.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 51              TOP:   Tissues

 

  1. Visceral muscle tissue is also known as:
a. nonstriated. c. smooth.
b. involuntary. d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Nonstriated is also known as visceral muscle tissue.
B Involuntary muscle is also known as visceral muscle tissue.
C Smooth muscle tissue is also known as visceral muscle tissue.
D Visceral muscle tissue is also known as smooth, nonstriated, and involuntary muscle tissue.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 53

TOP:   Table 6-2: Types of Tissues and Functions in the Body

 

  1. The brain and spinal cord are located in the _____ cavity.
a. dorsal c. spinal
b. cranial d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The dorsal is the larger cavity where the smaller cranial and spinal cavities are located.
B The cranial cavity is a smaller cavity within the dorsal cavity.
C The spinal cavity is a smaller cavity within the dorsal cavity.
D The brain and spinal cord are located in the cranial and spinal cavities, which are located in the larger dorsal cavity.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 55              TOP:   Body Cavities

 

  1. The stomach is located in the ______ cavity.
a. thoracic cavity c. pelvic
b. abdominal d. dorsal

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The lungs, heart, and esophagus are located in the thoracic cavity.
B The stomach is located in the abdominal cavity.
C Portions of the small and large intestines, the rectum, and the bladder are located in the lower pelvic cavity.
D The dorsal cavity is located at the back of the body.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 55              TOP:   Body Cavities

 

  1. The connective tissue that protects and supports other body organs is ______ tissue.
a. adipose c. osseous
b. dense fibrous d. vascular

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Adipose (fat) tissue stores fat, provides energy, and insulates the body.
B Dense fibrous tissue forms the ligaments and tendons.
C Osseous tissue is bone tissue that makes up the spinal column and ribs.
D Vascular tissue is comprised of blood and lymph tissues.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 54

TOP:   Table 6-2: Types of Tissues and Functions in the Body

 

  1. The opposite of proximal is:
a. superior. c. distal.
b. inferior. d. frontal.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Superior refers to being above or closer to the head.
B Inferior refers to being lower or under.
C Distal refers to being farther away from the trunk of the body, whereas proximal refers to being closer to the trunk of the body.
D Frontal refers to the vertical plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 46              TOP:   Key Terms

 

  1. Which of the following types of connective tissue provides an energy source for the body when needed?
a. Adipose c. Dense fibrous
b. Supportive d. Vascular

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Adipose tissue stores fat to provide an energy source when needed and to cushion, support, and insulate the body.
B Supportive tissue protects and supports other organs and provides flexible support, also serving as a shock absorber. It is not a source of energy.
C Dense fibrous tissue helps hold bones together at the joint and to attach skeletal muscles to bones. It is not a source of energy.
D Vascular tissue transports materials in the body. It is not a source of energy.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 53-54

TOP:   Table 6-2: Types of Tissue and Functions in the Body

 

  1. Anatomic reference systems include body planes, body directions, body cavities, and:
a. body cells. c. structural organs.
b. body tissues. d. structural units.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Cells are not an anatomic reference system.
B Tissues are not an anatomic reference system.
C Organs are not an anatomic reference system.
D The basic anatomic reference systems include body planes, body directions, structural units, and body cavities.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 47              TOP:   Introduction

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The eyes are lateral to the nose.
b. The mouth is on the dorsal side of the body.
c. The nose is posterior to the ears.
d. The chin is medial to the mouth.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The eyes are superior and to the side (lateral) of the nose.
B The mouth is on the ventral side of the body.
C The nose is anterior to the ears.
D The chin is anterior to the ears.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 49

TOP:   Table 6-1: Directional Terms for the Human Body

 

  1. Opposite terms for the directional terms for the body are:
a. medial and dorsal. c. anterior and inferior.
b. medial and distal. d. proximal and lateral.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Medial refers to nearer the midline; dorsal refers to being on the back.
B Medial refers to toward or nearer the midline, while distal refers to farther from the midline.
C The opposite of anterior is posterior.
D Proximal refers to closer to the trunk of the body; lateral refers to the side or away from the midline.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 49

TOP:   Table 6-1: Directional Terms for the Human Body

 

  1. The body plane that divides the body into unequal right and left halves is the _____ plane.
a. medial c. sagittal
b. frontal d. midsagittal

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The median plane is the same as the midsagittal plane that divides the body into equal left and right planes.
B The frontal plane is any vertical plane that divides the body into front and back portions.
C The sagittal plane is a vertical plane parallel to the midline that divides the body, from top to bottom, into unequal left and right portions.
D The midsagittal plane divides the body into equal left and right planes.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 47              TOP:   Planes and Body Directions

 

  1. The body plane that is a vertical plane that is at right angles to the midsagittal plane and divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is the _______ plane.
a. medial c. sagittal
b. frontal d. midline

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The medial plane, also known as the midsagittal plane, divides the body into equal left and right halves.
B The frontal plane is any vertical plane at right angles to the midsagittal plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
C The sagittal plane is a vertical plane parallel to the midline that divides the body, from top to bottom, into unequal left and right portions.
D The midline plane is the same as the medial plane.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 47              TOP:   Planes and Body Directions

 

  1. Human cells:
a. have the capability to grow and reproduce.
b. are all saucer-shaped.
c. have a life span of between 100 to 120 days.
d. have the same function, which is to transform nutrients into energy.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Each cell has the capability to grow, reproduce, and react to stimuli and transform nutrients into energy.
B Human cells have various shapes and sizes.
C The life span of cells varies depending on the type.
D Different types of cells have different functions; each has a specific purpose.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 49              TOP:   Cells

 

  1. Adult stem cells:
a. are also referred to as blastocysts.
b. are the same as embryonic stem cells.
c. can be found in the pulp of the teeth.
d. are grown from fertilized eggs in a test tube used for research purposes.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A A blastocyst is an embryo that is 4 or 5 days old.
B The term adult stem cells is used to make a distinction from the embryonic stem cells.
C Adult stem cells can be found in blood, skin, skeletal muscle, and the pulp of the teeth.
D Embryonic stem cells are grown from fertilized eggs in a test tube used for research purposes.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 50              TOP:   Stem Cells

 

  1. The gel-like fluid that forms the major portion of a cell is the:
a. membrane. c. organelles.
b. cytoplasm. d. nucleus.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The membrane is the thin wall that surrounds the cell.
B Cytoplasm is the gel-like fluid inside the cell that forms the major portion of the cell.
C Organelles are the tiny structures inside the cytoplasm.
D The nucleus is the “control center” of the cell.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 50              TOP:   Cytoplasm

 

  1. The part of the cell that makes, stores, and transports cell proteins is the:
a. membrane. c. organelles.
b. cytoplasm. d. nucleus.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The membrane is the outer portion of the cell that gives it its shape.
B Cytoplasm is the gel-like fluid that forms the major portion of the cell; the organelles are found in the cytoplasm.
C Organelles manufacture, modify, store, and transport proteins and dispose of cellular waste.
D The nucleus is the “control center” of the cell.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   pp. 50-51       TOP:   Cytoplasm

 

  1. Which type of tissue provides protection, produces secretions, and regulates the passage of materials across it?
a. Epithelial c. Muscle
b. Connective d. Nerve

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Epithelial tissue provides protection, produces secretions, and regulates the passage of materials across it.
B Connective tissue provides support for the body and connects its organs and tissues.
C Muscle tissue allows the body to have motion.
D Nerve tissue coordinates and controls body activities.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 51              TOP:   Tissues

 

  1. The tissue that transports nutrients and oxygen to body cells and carries away waste products is the ______ tissue.
a. neuronal c. cardiac
b. vascular d. dense fibrous

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Neuronal tissue is nerve tissue that reacts to environmental stimuli.
B Vascular tissue includes the blood that transports nutrients and oxygen to body cells and carries away waste products.
C Cardiac tissue is muscle tissue that makes up the walls of the heart and helps pump the blood.
D Dense fibrous tissue is connective tissue that forms the ligaments and tendons.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 54

TOP:   Table 6-2: Types of Tissues and Functions in the Body

 

  1. Organs:
a. are made up of many types of tissue groups.
b. perform a single function.
c. form body systems.
d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A All answers are correct.
B All answers are correct.
C All answers are correct.
D Organs are formed when several types of tissues group together to form a single function. Body systems are composed of a group of organs that work together to perform a major function.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 51              TOP:   Organs

 

  1. The brain is located in the ______ cavity.
a. ventral c. parietal
b. dorsal d. thoracic

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The ventral cavity is the front of the body.
B The dorsal cavity is divided into the cranial cavity, which contains the brain, and the spinal cavity, which contains the spinal cord.
C Parietal refers to the walls of a body cavity.
D The thoracic cavity is located in the ventral cavity and contains the heart and lungs.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 55              TOP:   Body Cavities

Bird & Robinson: Modern Dental Assisting, 10th Edition

 

Chapter 07: General Physiology

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. How many systems does the human body have?
a. 5 c. 10
b. 8 d. 12

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The body has more than 5 systems.
B The body has more than 8 systems.
C The human body is made up of 10 systems, with each system having specific organs and performing a specific function.
D The body does not have 12 systems.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 57              TOP:   Introduction

 

  1. The appendicular skeleton:
a. includes the skull.
b. functions to protect the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems.
c. protects the organs of digestion and reproduction.
d. weighs about 60 pounds.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The skull is part of the axial skeleton rather than the appendicular skeleton. The function of the axial skeleton is to protect the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems.
B The appendicular skeleton protects the organs of digestion and reproduction. The axial skeleton protects the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems.
C The appendicular skeleton protects the organs of digestion and reproduction. The shoulders, arms, hands, hips, legs, and feet form the appendicular skeleton. The axial skeleton consists of the skull, spinal column, ribs, and sternum. The function of the axial skeleton is to protect the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems. All the bones of the human body together weigh about 20 pounds.
D All of the bones of the human body together weigh about 20 pounds.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 57              TOP:   Skeletal System

 

  1. Periosteum:
a. does not contain nerves and blood vessels.
b. is necessary for bone growth and repair.
c. contains an inner layer of dense fibrous connective tissue, containing osteoclasts associated with bone formation.
d. is found adjacent to spongy, trabecular, cancellous bone.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Periosteum contains nerves and blood vessels. It supplies the cells from which the hard bone below the periosteum is built up.
B Periosteum is necessary for bone growth and repair. It contains nerves and blood vessels and also contains an inner layer of loose connective tissue containing osteoblasts associated with bone formation. Beneath the periosteum is dense, rigid, compact cortical bone.
C Periosteum contains an inner layer of loose connective tissue containing osteoblasts, which are cells associated with bone formation.
D Beneath periosteum is dense, rigid, compact bone.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 58              TOP:   Bone

 

  1. The cells associated with bone formation are known as:
a. osteoclasts. c. cortical.
b. cancellous. d. osteoblasts.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Osteoclasts relate to the breakdown and resorption of bone.
B Cancellous refers to a type of bone found on the inside of a bone.
C Cortical refers to a type of bone that forms the outer layer of a bone.
D Osteoblasts are the cells necessary for bone formation; they are found in the inner layer of the periosteum.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 58              TOP:   Bone

 

  1. The outer layer of hard, dense, and very strong bone is known as:
a. cancellous bone. c. compact bone.
b. bone marrow. d. periosteum.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Cancellous bone is a spongy type of bone found on the inside of a bone.
B Bone marrow is a gelatinous type of material found in the cancellous bone.
C Compact bone, or cortical bone, is hard, dense, and strong and forms a bone’s outer layer.
D Periosteum is a specialized type of connective tissue covering the bones.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 58              TOP:   Bone

 

  1. A gomphosis is a:
a. fibrous joint that moves. c. synovial joint that does not move.
b. cartilaginous joint that does not move. d. synovial joint that moves.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A A gomphosis is a synovial joint that moves. Fibrous joints do not move. The sutures of the skull are examples of fibrous joints.
B A gomphosis is a synovial joint that moves. Cartilaginous joints are made of connective tissue and cartilage. They only move very slightly. An example is the joint between bones of the vertebrae.
C A gomphosis is a synovial joint that moves.
D A gomphosis is a synovial joint that moves. It forms the attachment of the tooth to the socket.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 60              TOP:   Joints

 

  1. The three types of muscles that make up the muscular system are:
a. striated, involuntary, and cardiac. c. unstriated, involuntary, and visceral.
b. striated, smooth, and cardiac. d. voluntary, involuntary, and smooth.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A This combination is incorrect; involuntary is not one of the major muscle types.
B Muscles are necessary to make the body move. There are only three types of muscles in the human body: striated, smooth, and cardiac.
C Unstriated, involuntary, and visceral are all terms that describe smooth muscle.
D Voluntary describes striated muscle, and involuntary describes smooth muscle, but neither term is the name of a muscle type.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 60              TOP:   Muscular System

 

  1. The more fixed attachment of the muscle that is toward the midline is referred to as the:
a. origin. c. contraction.
b. insertion.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Muscles are arranged in opposing pairs so that one can contract and the other can relax. This action makes motion possible. The place where the muscle is more fixed or nearer the midline of the body is called the origin.
B The insertion is a movable attachment that is away from the midline.
C Contraction is the tightening of a muscle.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 64              TOP:   Muscle Function

 

  1. Which body system has the job of transporting nutrients and oxygen throughout the body?
a. Respiratory c. Circulatory
b. Digestive d. Endocrine

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The respiratory system delivers oxygen to cells, but does not transport nutrients.
B The digestive system takes in whole food and breaks it down to be used by the body.
C The two main functions of the circulatory system are transportation (of nutrients and oxygen to the body cells, waste and carbon dioxide from the body cells, and hormones and antibodies throughout the body) and regulation of body temperature and maintenance of chemical stability.
D The endocrine system produces the hormones that help maintain a constant environment in the body.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 64              TOP:   Circulatory System

 

  1. Arteries, veins, and capillaries are major types of:
a. blood vessels. c. nerve tissue.
b. muscle tissue. d. blood cells.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A There are three major types of blood vessels in the body: arteries, veins, and capillaries.
B Arteries, veins, and capillaries are not types of muscle tissue.
C Arteries, veins, and capillaries are not types of nerve tissue.
D Arteries, veins, and capillaries are not types of blood cells.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 66              TOP:   Blood Vessels

 

  1. Lymphocytes fight disease by producing:
a. leukocytes. c. monocytes.
b. antibodies. d. macrophages.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Antibodies are the products of lymphocytes. Leukocytes are white blood cells. There are three types of granular leukocytes: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.
B Lymphocytes fight disease by producing antibodies.
C Antibodies are the products of lymphocytes. Monocytes are granular white blood cells. They are called monocytes in the bloodstream and macrophages in tissue.
D Antibodies are the products of lymphocytes. Macrophages are granular white blood cells. They are called monocytes in the bloodstream and macrophages in tissue.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 67              TOP:   Lymph Nodes

 

  1. The tonsils and spleen are parts of which body system?
a. Endocrine c. Digestive
b. Circulatory d. Lymphatic

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The endocrine system includes the thyroid, parathyroid, ovaries, testes, pancreas, pituitary, and adrenal medulla.
B The circulatory system is part of the cardiovascular system.
C The tonsils and spleen are not parts of the digestive system.
D The tonsils and the spleen are both parts of the lymphatic system, which fights disease.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 67-68       TOP:   Lymphoid Organs

 

  1. What is the body’s communication system?
a. Circulatory system c. Respiratory system
b. Nervous system d. Endocrine system

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The circulatory system is a transportation system for oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and antibodies.
B Instructions and directions are sent out from the nervous system to various organs of the body. The nervous system is the communication system of the body.
C The respiratory system provides for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
D The endocrine system produces hormones.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 68-69       TOP:   Nervous System

 

  1. The primary center for regulating and coordinating the body’s activities and functions is the:
a. heart. c. brain.
b. spinal cord. d. neuron.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The heart works as a double pump to pump blood to the lungs and to the rest of the body.
B The spinal cord is the pathway going to and from the brain.
C The function of the brain, as a component of the nervous system, is to regulate and coordinate the functions and activities of the body.
D A neuron directs communication or nerve impulses.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 70              TOP:   Brain

 

  1. The body system that delivers oxygen to the blood and transports waste carbon dioxide out of the body is the _____ system.
a. respiratory c. endocrine
b. digestive d. nervous

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The function of the respiratory system is to deliver oxygen to the blood and transport waste carbon dioxide out of the body.
B The digestive system takes in whole food and breaks it down to be used by the body.
C The endocrine system relays chemical messages through the body.
D The nervous system serves as the communication system for the body.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 71              TOP:   Respiratory System

 

  1. The digestive process begins in the:
a. mouth. c. small intestine.
b. stomach. d. large intestine.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The digestive process begins in the mouth where food is masticated, mixed with saliva, and swallowed.
B The digestive process begins in the mouth. The stomach is a saclike organ that lies in the abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm. Glands within the stomach produce the gastric juices that aid in digestion, as well as the mucus that forms the protective coating of the stomach lining.
C The digestive process begins in the mouth. The small intestine extends from the stomach to the first part of the large intestine. It consists of three parts: the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum.
D The digestive process begins in the mouth. The large intestine extends from the end of the small intestine to the anus. It is divided into four parts: the cecum, the colon, the sigmoid colon, and the rectum and anal canal.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 73              TOP:   Digestive Process

 

  1. The stomach is part of what body system?
a. Respiratory c. Digestive
b. Endocrine d. Urinary

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The respiratory system includes the nose, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, trachea, epiglottis, larynx, alveoli, and lungs.
B The endocrine system includes the thyroid, parathyroid, pancreas, pituitary, ovaries, testes, and adrenal medulla.
C The stomach is a component of the digestive system.
D The urinary system includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   pp. 73-74       TOP:   Stomach

 

  1. The endocrine system uses chemical messengers called _____, which move through the bloodstream.
a. hormones c. leukocytes
b. erythrocytes d. thrombocytes

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The chemical messengers called hormones are components of the endocrine system, which move through the bloodstream and help maintain the environment inside the body.
B Erythrocytes are red blood cells.
C Leukocytes are white blood cells.
D Thrombocytes are platelets.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 74              TOP:   Endocrine System

 

  1. The integumentary system:
a. manufactures bile.
b. helps to regulate body temperature.
c. removes excess glucose from the bloodstream and stores it as glycogen.
d. transports food from the pharynx to the stomach.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The integumentary system helps to regulate body temperature. The liver manufactures bile.
B The integumentary system helps to regulate body temperature. The liver manufactures bile. The liver also removes excess glucose from the bloodstream and stores it as glycogen. The esophagus transports food from the pharynx to the stomach.
C The integumentary system helps to regulate body temperature. The liver removes excess glucose from the bloodstream and stores it as glycogen.
D The integumentary system helps to regulate body temperature. The esophagus transports food from the pharynx to the stomach.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 76              TOP:   Integumentary System

 

  1. Osteoporosis is an age-related disease of which body system?
a. Reproductive c. Urinary
b. Endocrine d. Skeletal

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Osteoporosis is not a disease of the reproductive system.
B Osteoporosis is not a disease of the endocrine system.
C Osteoporosis is not a disease of the urinary system.
D Osteoporosis is an age-related disease of the skeletal system that causes demineralization of the bones.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 58

TOP:   Table 7-2: Disorders of Skeletal System

 

  1. Epilepsy is a disorder of which body system?
a. Nervous c. Endocrine
b. Skeletal d. Circulatory

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Epilepsy is a disease of the nervous system that is characterized by seizures.
B Epilepsy is not a disease of the skeletal system.
C Epilepsy is not a disease of the endocrine system.
D Epilepsy is not a disease of the circulatory system.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 69

TOP:   Table 7-6: Disorders of the Nervous System

 

  1. Tuberculosis is a disease usually associated with which body system?
a. Circulatory c. Nervous
b. Respiratory d. Skeletal

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Tuberculosis is usually associated with the respiratory system, although it can affect other systems as well.
B Tuberculosis is a bacterial disease transmitted by infectious droplets; it most commonly infects the respiratory system, but may affect other systems as well.
C Tuberculosis is usually associated with the respiratory system, although it can affect other systems as well.
D Tuberculosis is usually associated with the respiratory system, although it can affect other systems as well.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 71

TOP:   Table 7-7: Disorders of the Respiratory System

 

  1. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of which body system?
a. Lymphatic c. Endocrine
b. Digestive d. Circulatory

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Diabetes mellitus is not a disease of the lymphatic system.
B Diabetes mellitus is not a disease of the digestive system.
C Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of the endocrine system, in which glucose uptake by the cells is impaired.
D Diabetes mellitus is not a disease of the circulatory system.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 75

TOP:   Table 7-9: Disorders of the Endocrine System

 

  1. _____ is a disorder associated with the integumentary system.
a. Renal failure c. Migraine headaches
b. Heart attack d. Acne

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Renal failure is a disease associated with the urinary system.
B Heart attack is associated with the cardiovascular system.
C Migraine headaches are associated with the nervous system.
D One of the most common diseases of the skin or integumentary system is acne, an inflammation of the sebaceous glands that can cause pimples and blackheads.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 76

TOP:   Table 7-11: Disorders of the Integumentary System

 

  1. Toxic shock syndrome is a disorder of which body system?
a. Female reproductive c. Lymphatic
b. Urinary

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Toxic shock syndrome is a disorder usually associated with the female reproductive system.
B Toxic shock syndrome is not a disorder of the urinary system.
C Toxic shock syndrome is not a disorder of the lymphatic system.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 78

TOP:   Table 7-12: Disorders of the Female Reproductive System

 

  1. Bone:
a. is living connective tissue. c. consists of calcium and phosphate.
b. is able to repair itself. d. is all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A All answers are correct.
B All answers are correct.
C All answers are correct.
D Bone is living tissue that is capable of repairing itself. It consists of organic material and inorganic minerals, primarily calcium and phosphate.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 57              TOP:   Bone

 

  1. The bone tissue that makes it capable of repair is:
a. calcium. c. Sharpey’s fibers.
b. periosteum. d. bone marrow.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Calcium is a mineral that gives rigidity to the bone.
B Periosteum is the bone layer responsible for the life of the bone and its ability to repair itself.
C Sharpey’s fibers anchor the periosteum to the bone.
D Bone marrow is gelatinous material in the bone that produces white and red blood cells.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 58              TOP:   Bone

 

  1. The strongest, dense layer of bone is the:
a. periosteum. c. cancellous bone.
b. compact bone. d. bone marrow.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Periosteum is the covering of the bone containing nerves and blood vessels.
B Compact bone is the hard, dense inner layer of bone and is the strongest of all bone layers.
C Cancellous bone is inside the bone, is lighter in weight, and houses the bone marrow.
D Bone marrow is a gelatinous material containing red and white blood cells.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 58              TOP:   Bone

 

  1. Trabeculae:
a. are found inside compact bone.
b. contain blood vessels and nerves.
c. are very dense and hard.
d. are made of spicules that are filled with bone marrow.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A They are found in cancellous bone, not compact bone.
B The blood vessels and nerves are found in the periosteum layer.
C Compact bone is very dense and hard; cancellous bone is lighter in weight and not as strong.
D Trabeculae are bony spicules in the cancellous bone. These spicules are filled with bone marrow.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 59              TOP:   Bone

 

  1. A jagged line where bones come together and that forms a joint that does not move is a(n):
a. gomphosis. c. suture.
b. bursa. d. articulation.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A A gomphosis is a type of fibrous joint.
B A bursa is a fibrous sac in synovial joints that is filled with synovial fluid that acts as a cushion during movement.
C A suture is the jagged line where bones articulate and form a joint that does not move, such as where the bones of the skull meet.
D Articulation is another term for joint.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 60              TOP:   Joints

 

  1. The temporal-mandibular joint that allows you to open and close your mouth is considered to be what type of joint?
a. Fibrous c. Synovial
b. Cartilaginous d. None of the above

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Fibrous joints are where bones meet but the joint does not move.
B Cartilaginous joints are made of connective tissue and cartilage with only minimal movement.
C The temporal-mandibular joint is considered to be a synovial joint because its actions are both hinging and gliding joint motions.
D The answer is synovial joint.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 60              TOP:   Joints

 

  1. Which type of muscle do we have conscious control over at any given time?
a. Cardiac c. Striated
b. Smooth d. Unstriated

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Cardiac muscle is striated, but acts as a smooth muscle.
B Smooth muscles are controlled by the autonomic nervous system and are not controlled voluntarily.
C Striated muscles, also known as voluntary muscles, attach to the bones of the skeleton, making voluntary body motion possible.
D Unstriated muscles are the same as smooth muscles.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   pp. 60-62       TOP:   Striated Muscle

 

  1. Visceral muscles are found in the:
a. heart, stomach, and liver. c. stomach, liver, and digestive tract.
b. heart, liver, and digestive tract. d. stomach and liver.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Visceral muscles are not found in the heart.
B Visceral muscles are not found in the heart.
C Visceral muscles are found in all internal organs except the heart. They are also found in the digestive and urinary tracts.
D Visceral muscles are found in all internal organs and the digestive tract.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 62              TOP:   Smooth Muscle

 

  1. The term that refers to a muscle returning to its original shape is:
a. contraction. c. origin.
b. relaxation. d. insertion.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Contraction is when the muscles are tightened, becoming shorter and thicker.
B Relaxation is the muscle returning to its original shape or form.
C The origin is the point where the muscle begins.
D The insertion is the point where the muscle ends.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 63              TOP:   Muscle Function

 

  1. The heart:
a. pumps about 40,000 gallons of blood. c. is made of smooth muscle.
b. is about the size of a baseball. d. is a hollow muscle.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The heart pumps about 4000 gallons of blood.
B The heart is about the size of a closed fist, but can vary in size from person to person.
C The heart is actually made of cardiac muscle, resembles striated muscle in appearance, and is smooth in action.
D The heart is a hollow muscle that is made of chambers.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 64              TOP:   Heart

 

  1. The function of the atria of the heart is to:
a. receive the blood. c. supply blood to the heart muscle.
b. pump the blood. d. send the blood to the lungs.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The function of the atria of the heart is to receive the blood.
B The ventricles pump the blood.
C The coronary vessels supply the blood to the heart muscle.
D The right side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 65              TOP:   Heart Chambers

 

  1. The apparatus that allows the blood to flow through the heart by opening and closing with each heartbeat is known as a(n):
a. atrium. c. heart valve.
b. ventricle. d. pericardium.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The atrium is the upper chamber of the heart.
B The ventricle is the lower chamber of the heart.
C Heart valves allow blood to flow by opening and closing with each heartbeat.
D The pericardium is a membranous sac that encases the heart.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 65              TOP:   Heart Valves

 

  1. The smallest elements of blood that play an important role in the clotting of the blood are the:
a. plasma. c. basophils.
b. red blood cells. d. platelets.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Plasma is straw-colored fluid that transports nutrients, hormones, and waste products.
B Red blood cells play an essential role in transporting oxygen in the blood.
C Basophils are leukocytes, also known as white blood cells. Their function is not understood.
D Platelets, or thrombocytes, are manufactured in bone marrow and are the smallest elements found in blood. Platelets are essential to the clotting of the blood.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 67              TOP:   Blood and Blood Cells

 

  1. The component of the lymphatic system that is responsible for fighting diseases by producing antibodies is the:
a. lymph vessels. c. lymph fluid.
b. lymph nodes. d. lymphoid organs.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Lymph vessels transport lymph fluid.
B The lymph nodes are located in the lymph vessels and fight diseases by producing antibodies.
C Lymph fluid carries substances from the lymph tissues back into the blood.
D Lymphoid organs are the organs that comprise the lymphatic system, such as tonsils and the spleen.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 67              TOP:   Lymph Nodes

 

  1. The tonsils that are visible in the mouth are the:
a. nasopharyngeal tonsils. c. palatine tonsils.
b. adenoids. d. lingual tonsils.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Nasopharyngeal tonsils are located in the nasopharynx.
B Adenoids are also known as nasopharyngeal tonsils.
C The palatine tonsils are located in the oropharynx between the anterior and posterior pillars of the throat and are visible through the mouth.
D Lingual tonsils are located on the back of the tongue.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   pp. 67-68       TOP:   Tonsils

 

  1. Which neuron is responsible for allowing you to taste?
a. Associative c. Sensory
b. Motor d. None of the above

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Associative neurons carry impulses from one neuron to another.
B Motor neurons carry impulses from the brain and spinal cord, involving the muscles and glands.
C Sensory neurons are located in the skin and sense organs, such as the tongue.
D Sensory neurons are located in the skin and sense organs, such as the tongue.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 70              TOP:   Neurons

 

  1. Cranial nerves are part of what component of the nervous system?
a. Brain c. Central nervous system
b. Spinal cord d. Peripheral nervous system

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The brain is the primary center for body activity and is part of the central nervous system.
B The spinal cord is part of the central nervous system.
C The central nervous system is made up of the brain and spinal cord.
D The cranial nerves and the spinal nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 69              TOP:   Nervous System

 

  1. The part of the respiratory system that is visible through the mouth is the:
a. laryngopharynx. c. nasopharynx.
b. oropharynx. d. larynx.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The laryngopharynx is located from the epiglottis to the larynx.
B The oropharynx extends from the soft palate above to the epiglottis below in the posterior section of the mouth.
C The nasopharynx is located behind the nose and above the soft palate.
D The larynx is located below the epiglottis; it is also known as the “voice box.”

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 72              TOP:   Pharynx

 

  1. The term for “chewing” is:
a. ingestion. c. mastication.
b. digestion. d. peristalsis.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Ingestion is the act of putting food in the mouth.
B Digestion is when the food starts to break down.
C Mastication is the term for chewing.
D Peristalsis consists of wavelike contractions that move food through the digestive tract.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 73              TOP:   Digestive Process

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of hormones?
a. Hormones produce long-term changes in humans, such as growth.
b. Hormones have nothing to do with emotions.
c. Hormones help maintain the amount of sugar in the blood.
d. Hormones can reach every cell in the body.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Hormones have a lot to do with emotions such as fear, anger, joy, and despair.
B Hormones produce long-term changes in humans, such as growth. They also help maintain a constant environment inside the body, such as sugar in the blood. Hormones move through the bloodstream and can reach every cell in the body.
C Hormones have a lot to do with emotions such as fear, anger, joy, and despair.
D Hormones have a lot to do with emotions such as fear, anger, joy, and despair.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 74              TOP:   Endocrine System

 

  1. If a patient comes into the dental office with symptoms of facial paralysis, where the corner of the mouth sags and he cannot open an eye or close his mouth, he may have:
a. Parkinson’s disease. c. tic douloureux.
b. Bell’s palsy. d. multiple sclerosis.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A When a person has Parkinson’s disease, he exhibits uncontrollable tremors in the hands or body, a shuffling gait, and stooped appearance.
B Bell’s palsy causes paralysis of the facial nerve, resulting in possible distortion of one side of the face. Signs include not being able to open the eye, blink, or close the mouth.
C Tic douloureux, trigeminal neuralgia, is extremely painful. It usually causes pain around the eyes, over the forehead, and in the upper lip, nose, and cheek.
D Persons with multiple sclerosis exhibit visual, sensory, and motor problems.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 69

TOP:   Table 7-6: Disorders of the Nervous System

 

  1. If a patient in the dental chair complains of chest pain and shortness of breath and is ashen in color, the patient may be suffering from:
a. pericarditis. c. heart failure.
b. endocarditis. d. coronary artery disease.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Pericarditis is an infection around the heart. The patient has high fever, joint pain, fatigue, and heart murmur.
B The symptoms of endocarditis include high fever, joint pain, fatigue, and heart murmur.
C Heart failure exhibits breathlessness, weakness, fatigue, dizziness, and sometimes death.
D The symptoms of coronary artery disease include chest pain and shortness of breath, and the patient may be ashen or gray in color.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 64

TOP:   Table 7-4: Disorders of the Heart

 

  1. An infectious disease that is often spread through coughing of sputum that contains blood and is of concern to the dental staff is:
a. tonsillitis. c. tuberculosis.
b. pharyngitis. d. pneumonia.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Tonsillitis is an infection of the tonsils, usually not an airborne transmission.
B Pharyngitis is inflammation of the throat, usually not an airborne transmission.
C Tuberculosis is an infectious disease caused by infected droplets. Symptoms include a low-grade fever, chills, and night sweats. A persistent cough develops that contains blood and causes chest pain. It can be passed from patient to dental staff.
D Pneumonia is an acute inflammation of the lungs, usually not an airborne transmission.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 71

TOP:   Table 7-7: Disorders of the Respiratory System

 

  1. The “skin” system is also known as the ____ system and is the body’s first line of defense against disease.
a. cardiovascular c. integumentary
b. endocrine d. urinary

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The cardiovascular system is comprised of the circulatory, heart, and lymphatic systems.
B The endocrine system produces hormones that help maintain a constant environment inside the body.
C The integumentary system is also known as the “skin” system and is the body’s first line of defense against disease.
D The urinary system is also known as the “excretory” system. It is primarily concerned with maintaining fluid volume and composition of body fluids.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 76              TOP:   Integumentary System

 

  1. The layer of skin that provides the sense of touch, temperature, and pain is the:
a. epidermis. c. subcutaneous fat.
b. dermis. d. skin appendages.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The epidermis is the outer layer of skin and has no blood supply of its own.
B The dermis is thick connective tissue that contains free nerve endings and receptors that allow for detection of touch, temperature, and pain.
C The subcutaneous fat layer is loose connective tissue that anchors the skin to underlying organs. It insulates the body against heat loss and cushions underlying organs.
D The skin appendages include hair, nails, and glands.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 76              TOP:   Skin Structures

 

  1. Which type of joints are the fingers?
a. Fibrous c. Synovial
b. Cartilaginous d. Ball-and-socket

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Fibrous joints are where bones meet and do not move.
B Cartilaginous joints have very limited movement.
C The fingers move similar to the knees and elbows; thus they are considered to be synovial joints.
D Ball-and-socket joints are also synovial joints, but they have a different range of motions than the fingers.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 60              TOP:   Joints

 

  1. Why would a patient with multiple sclerosis be of concern to the dental staff?
a. The dental staff may contract the disease from the patient.
b. The patient may not be able to adequately take care of his mouth and any type of restorations that may be placed because of motor problems.
c. The patient may have uncontrollable seizures, which could cause him to hurt himself during treatment.
d. The patient may not have any memory of the dental appointments.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Multiple sclerosis is not a communicable disease; the dental staff cannot contract it from a patient.
B Multiple sclerosis can cause visual, motor, and/or sensory problems, which could affect how he can take care of himself.
C Epilepsy is commonly related to having seizures.
D Usually multiple sclerosis does not cause memory loss.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 69

TOP:   Table 7-6: Disorders of the Nervous System

Bird & Robinson: Modern Dental Assisting, 10th Edition

 

Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. There are _____ teeth in the primary dentition.
a. 24 c. 20
b. 32 d. 28

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The number of teeth in the primary dentition is not 24.
B The number of teeth in the primary dentition is not 32.
C The first set of 20 teeth is called the primary dentition or deciduous dentition.
D The number of teeth in the primary dentition is not 28.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 141            TOP:   Dentition Periods

 

  1. The mixed dentition period begins with:
a. eruption of the first permanent tooth.
b. eruption of the first permanent maxillary central incisor.
c. loss of the first primary central incisor.
d. loss of the first primary molar.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The mixed dentition period begins with eruption of the first permanent tooth.
B The mixed dentition period begins with eruption of the first permanent tooth (more general), rather than eruption of the first permanent central incisor (more specific). Usually permanent first molars and mandibular central incisors erupt before permanent maxillary central incisors.
C The mixed dentition period begins with eruption of the first permanent tooth, rather than loss of the first primary central incisor.
D The mixed dentition period begins with eruption of the first permanent tooth, rather than loss of the first primary molar.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 141            TOP:   Mixed Dentition

 

  1. There are _____ succedaneous teeth.
a. 32 c. 12
b. 24 d. 20

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The number of succedaneous teeth is not 32.
B The number of succedaneous teeth is not 24.
C The number of succedaneous teeth is not 12.
D There are 20 succedaneous teeth (permanent teeth that replace the primary teeth), the same as the number of teeth in the primary dentition.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 141            TOP:   Dentition Periods

 

  1. The permanent dentition period begins at about 12 years of age when the:
a. last primary tooth is lost. c. third molars come in.
b. 12-year molars erupt. d. jaws stop growing.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The mixed dentition stage ends, and the permanent dentition period begins, when the last primary tooth is lost. This usually happens at about 12 years of age.
B Primary teeth may still be present in the mouth when the 12-year molars erupt.
C The third molars may erupt several years after the loss of the last primary tooth.
D The growth of the jaw is not a contributing factor in differentiating the dentition periods.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 142            TOP:   Permanent Dentition

 

  1. The human mouth is divided into two sections, or arches, called the:
a. quadrants. c. mandibular arch.
b. maxillary arch. d. b and c.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The quadrants include four parts: the two halves of the maxillary arch and the two halves of the mandibular arch.
B The maxillary arch is one of the two sections.
C The mandibular arch is one of the two sections.
D The maxillary arch and mandibular arch are the two sections of the mouth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 142            TOP:   Dental Arches

 

  1. The mouth can be divided into four sections called:
a. arches. c. quadrants.
b. sextants. d. dentitions.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The arches consist of two sections: the maxillary and the mandibular.
B A sextant refers to one sixth of the dentition.
C The maxillary and mandibular arches are each divided into halves; the resulting four sections are called quadrants.
D The mouth will have two dentitions: the primary and the permanent.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   pp. 142-143   TOP:   Quadrants

 

  1. The anterior teeth include the:
a. premolars. c. canines.
b. incisors. d. b and c.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The premolars are posterior teeth.
B The central incisors and lateral incisors are two of the three types of anterior teeth.
C The canines are one of the three types of anterior teeth.
D The incisors and canines make up the anterior teeth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 143            TOP:   Anterior and Posterior Teeth

 

  1. The four types of teeth are _________, and molars.
a. incisors, canines, premolars c. centrals, laterals, premolars
b. incisors, cuspids, canines d. centrals, canines, bicuspids

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The four types of teeth found in the adult dentition are incisors, canines, premolars, and molars.
B Cuspids and canines are two names for the same type of tooth. Premolars are the fourth type of tooth.
C Centrals and laterals are the two types of incisors. Canines are the fourth type of tooth.
D Centrals are a type of incisor. Premolars (not bicuspids) are the fourth type of tooth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 143

TOP:   Types and Functions of Teeth

 

  1. _____ are the longest teeth in the human dentition and are used for cutting and tearing.
a. Incisors c. Molars
b. Canines d. Premolars

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Incisors have a shorter crown-root length than the canines.
B The canines are used for cutting and tearing and are the longest teeth in the human dentition. They are sometimes known as the cornerstone of the dental arch.
C Molars have a shorter crown-root length than the canines.
D Premolars have a shorter crown-root length than the canines.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 143            TOP:   Canines

 

  1. _____ are used for chewing and grinding food.
a. Molars c. Premolars
b. Canines d. Both a and c

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Molars are one of two types of teeth used for chewing and grinding food.
B Canines are used for cutting and tearing.
C Premolars are one of two types of teeth used for chewing and grinding food.
D The molars and premolars are used for chewing and grinding food.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 143

TOP:   Types and Functions of Teeth

 

  1. Every tooth in the mouth has five surfaces, the:.
a. mesial, distal, lingual, labial, and facial.
b. mesial, distal, facial, lingual, and masticatory (occlusal or incisal).
c. buccal, labial, lingual, masticatory (occlusal or incisal), and distal.
d. facial, lingual, buccal, labial, and mesial.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Each tooth has a masticatory (incisal or occlusal) surface.
B The five surfaces of the teeth are the mesial, distal, facial, lingual, and masticatory. The surface of mastication on the posterior teeth is the occlusal; on the anterior teeth, it is the incisal.
C Each tooth has a mesial surface.
D Each tooth has a distal surface.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 145            TOP:   Tooth Surfaces

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true of the contours of teeth?
a. With overcontouring, the gingiva may be traumatized by food pushing against it.
b. With undercontouring, the gingiva will lack adequate stimulation and be difficult to clean.
c. The crown of the tooth narrows toward the cervical line.
d. A convex surface is curved inward.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The crown of the tooth narrows toward the cervical line. With overcontouring, the gingiva will lack adequate stimulation and be difficult to clean.
B The crown of the tooth narrows toward the cervical line. With undercontouring, the gingiva may be traumatized by food pushing against it.
C The crown of the tooth narrows toward the cervical line.
D The crown of the tooth narrows toward the cervical line. A convex surface is curved outward and a concave surface is curved inward.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 146            TOP:   Contours

 

  1. The area where the mesial or distal surfaces of the tooth touch the adjacent tooth in the arch is the:
a. embrasure c. contact area.
b. contact point. d. point angle.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A An embrasure is a triangular space near the gingiva, between the proximal surfaces of two adjoining teeth.
B The contact point is the exact spot at which the teeth actually touch.
C The area where the mesial and distal surfaces of the tooth touch the adjacent tooth in the arch is the contact area. The exact spot where the teeth actually touch is the contact point.
D A point angle is the junction of three tooth surfaces.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 147            TOP:   Contacts

 

  1. The relationship between the maxillary and mandibular teeth when the jaws are in a fully closed position is:
a. occlusion. c. interproximal.
b. closure. d. functional closure.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Occlusion is defined as the relationship between the maxillary and mandibular teeth when the upper and lower jaws are in a fully closed position.
B Closure is the action of the two arches coming together into occlusion.
C Interproximal describes the space between two proximal surfaces.
D The correct term is functional occlusion, which describes the contact of the teeth during biting and chewing movements.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 149            TOP:   Occlusion and Malocclusion

 

  1. The jaw position that produces maximal stable contact between the occluding surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth is:
a. functional occlusion. c. basic occlusion.
b. malocclusion. d. centric occlusion.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Functional occlusion describes the contact of the teeth during chewing and biting movements.
B Malocclusion refers to malpositioned or abnormal relationships of the arches in centric occlusion.
C Basic occlusion is not a term used to describe occlusion.
D Centric occlusion occurs when the jaws are closed in a position that produces maximal stable contact between the occluding surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 149            TOP:   Occlusion and Malocclusion

 

  1. The key to Angle’s classification system for occlusion and malocclusion is:
a. the premolars. c. the permanent maxillary first molars.
b. TMJ alignment. d. the primary dentition.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Angle’s classification does not use the premolar as the key to occlusion.
B The teeth, not the TMJ, are used to describe an occlusal classification.
C The permanent maxillary first molars are used as the key to occlusion and malocclusion in Angle’s classification system.
D Angle’s classification is based on the relationship of the permanent teeth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 149            TOP:   Angle’s Classification

 

  1. Which tooth-numbering system is used most often in the United States?
a. Palmer Notation System
b. Universal/National System
c. International Standards Organization System
d. Fédération Dentaire Internationale System

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The Palmer Notation System is not the most commonly used numbering system in the United States.
B The Universal/National System, approved by the ADA in 1968, is the tooth-numbering system used most often in the United States.
C The International Standards Organization System is one of the numbering systems accepted for international use by the World Health Organization.
D The Fédération Dentaire Internationale System is one of the numbering systems accepted for international use by the World Health Organization.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 153            TOP:   Universal/National System

 

  1. The permanent teeth are _____ in the Universal/National System.
a. numbered 1 to 32
b. lettered
c. numbered by quadrant
d. numbered with the maxillary central incisors as 18 and 28

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A In the Universal/National System, the permanent teeth are numbered from 1 to 32 starting at the upper right third molar.
B The primary teeth are lettered in the Universal/National System.
C The teeth are numbered by quadrant in the ISO/FDI numbering system.
D The maxillary central incisors are numbered as 8 and 9 in the Universal/National System.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 153            TOP:   Universal/National System

 

  1. According to the ISO/FDI numbering system, an adult mandibular left first molar would be tooth number:
a. 19. c. 36.
b. 23. d. 73.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A According to the ISO/FDI numbering system, an adult mandibular left first molar would be tooth 36. An adult mandibular left first molar would be tooth 19 when using the Universal/National System.
B According to the ISO/FDI numbering system, an adult mandibular left first molar would be tooth 36. Tooth 23 would be a maxillary left canine tooth.
C According to the ISO/FDI numbering system, an adult mandibular left first molar would be tooth 36. The first digit indicates the quadrant, and the second digit indicates the tooth within the quadrant, with numbering from the midline to the posterior. The mandibular left quadrant is given digit 3.
D According to the ISO/FDI numbering system, an adult mandibular left first molar would be tooth 36. A primary mandibular left canine would be tooth 73.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 153

TOP:   International Standards Organization System

 

  1. Which of the following is true of the Palmer Notation System (PNS)?
a. The permanent teeth are numbered from 1 to 32. Numbering begins with the upper-right third molar, works around to the upper-left third molar, drops to the lower-left third molar, and works around to the lower-right third molar.
b. The first digit indicates the quadrant, and the second digit indicates the tooth within the quadrant, with numbering from the midline to the posterior.
c. The first digit indicates the quadrant, and the second digit indicates the tooth within the quadrant, with numbering from the midline to the posterior.
d. Each of the four quadrants is given its own tooth bracket made up of a vertical and a horizontal line.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A In the Palmer Notation System (PNS), each of the four quadrants is given its own tooth bracket made up of a vertical and a horizontal line. The Universal/National System features numbering from tooth 1 to 32.
B In the Palmer Notation System (PNS), each of the four quadrants is given its own tooth bracket made up of a vertical and a horizontal line. In the ISO/FDI System, the first digit indicates the quadrant, and the second digit indicates the tooth within the quadrant, with numbering from the midline to the posterior.
C In the Palmer Notation System (PNS), each of the four quadrants is given its own tooth bracket made up of a vertical and a horizontal line. In the ISO/FDI System, the first digit indicates the quadrant, and the second digit indicates the tooth within the quadrant, with numbering from the midline to the posterior.
D In the Palmer Notation System (PNS), each of the four quadrants is given its own tooth bracket made up of a vertical and a horizontal line.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   pp. 153-154   TOP:   Palmer Notation System

 

  1. The natural teeth in the dental arch are the:
a. deciduous. c. embrasure.
b. dentition. d. succedaneous.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Deciduous is another name for the primary teeth.
B Dentition describes the natural teeth in the dental arch.
C An embrasure is a triangular space near the gingiva, between the proximal surfaces of two adjoining teeth.
D Succedaneous refers to permanent teeth that replace primary teeth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 140            TOP:   Dentition Periods

 

  1. The first set of primary teeth is also referred to as _____ teeth.
a. deciduous c. embrasure
b. dentition d. succedaneous

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Deciduous teeth are also known as the primary or “baby” teeth.
B Dentition describes the natural teeth in the dental arch.
C An embrasure is a triangular space near the gingiva, between the proximal surfaces of two adjoining teeth.
D Succedaneous refers to permanent teeth that replace primary teeth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 141            TOP:   Dentition Periods

 

  1. Which permanent teeth are nonsuccedaneous teeth?
a. Incisors c. Premolars
b. Cuspids d. Molars

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Incisors are succedaneous teeth because they replace the primary incisors.
B Cuspids are succedaneous teeth because they replace the primary cuspids.
C Premolars are succedaneous teeth because they replace the primary molars.
D The permanent molars are nonsuccedaneous teeth because they do not replace any primary teeth. All permanent molars erupt posterior to the primary molars.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 141            TOP:   Dentition Periods

 

  1. Which dentition takes place between 6 to 12 years of age and exhibits both primary teeth and permanent teeth in the oral cavity at the same time?
a. Primary c. Mixed
b. Permanent d. None of the above

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A In primary dentition there are only primary or “baby” teeth in the oral cavity.
B In permanent dentition there are only permanent teeth in the oral cavity.
C In mixed dentition there are both primary and permanent teeth in the oral cavity. This period takes place from 6 to 12 years of age.
D The correct answer is mixed dentition.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 141            TOP:   Dentition Periods

 

  1. The upper teeth are set in the:
a. zygomatic. c. mandible.
b. maxilla. d. mentalis.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The zygomatic bone forms the cheek bone.
B The upper teeth are set in the maxillary bone, commonly called the maxilla.
C The lower jaw bone is commonly called the mandible.
D The mentalis is commonly called the chin.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 142            TOP:   Dental Arches

 

  1. The mandibular arch is movable through the action of the:
a. temporomandibular joint. c. gomphosis.
b. maxilla. d. cartilaginous joint.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The temporomandibular joint allows the mandible to move, articulating with the maxilla.
B The maxilla is the upper arch or upper jaw.
C A gomphosis is a synovial joint that moves. It forms the attachment of the tooth to the socket.
D A cartilaginous joint is made of connective tissue and cartilage. These joints move very slightly. An example is the joint between vertebrae.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 142            TOP:   Dental Arches

 

  1. Each quadrant of the permanent dentition contains _____ teeth, whereas each quadrant of the primary dentition contains _____ teeth.
a. 32; 20 c. 8; 5
b. 16; 10 d. 10; 16

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A There are 32 total teeth in the permanent dentition and 20 total teeth in the primary dentition.
B There are 16 teeth in one arch of the permanent dentition and 10 teeth in one arch of the primary dentition.
C There are 8 teeth in a quadrant of the permanent dentition and 5 teeth in a quadrant of the primary dentition.
D There are 8 teeth in a quadrant of a permanent dentition and 5 teeth in a quadrant of a primary dentition.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 142-143   TOP:   Quadrants

 

  1. If the dentition is divided into sextants instead of quadrants, how many sextants are there in each arch?
a. 3 c. 9
b. 6 d. 12

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A A sextant is one-sixth of the dentition, so there are three sextants in each arch.
B A sextant is one-sixth of the dentition, so there are three sextants in each arch.
C A sextant is one-sixth of the dentition, so there are three sextants in each arch.
D A sextant is one-sixth of the dentition, so there are three sextants in each arch.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 143            TOP:   Sextants

 

  1. The posterior teeth include the _____ and the _____.
a. incisors; canines c. premolars; molars
b. canines; premolars d. incisors; molars

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The incisors and canines are anterior teeth.
B The canines are anterior teeth and the premolars are posterior teeth.
C The premolars and molars are the posterior teeth.
D The incisors are anterior teeth and the molars are posterior teeth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 143            TOP:   Anterior and Posterior Teeth

 

  1. Which type of tooth is not in the primary dentition but found only in the permanent dentition?
a. Incisor c. Premolar
b. Canine d. Molar

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The primary dentition does have eight incisors.
B The primary dentition does have four canines.
C The primary dentition consists of incisors, canines, and molars. There are no premolars in the primary dentition; they are only in the permanent dentition.
D The primary dentition does have eight molars.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 143

TOP:   Types and Functions of Teeth

 

  1. Incisors:
a. are anterior teeth. c. are designed to cut food.
b. exist only in the primary dentition. d. both a and c.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Incisors are anterior teeth and they are also designed to cut food.
B Incisors are found in both the primary and permanent dentitions.
C Incisors are designed to cut food and they are also anterior teeth.
D Incisors are located in the front of the mouth, making them anterior teeth. They have sharp, thin edges that are used to cut food.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 143            TOP:   Incisors

 

  1. The canines are also known as:
a. laterals. c. cuspids.
b. bicuspids. d. none of the above.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The laterals are incisors that are located next to the central incisors.
B The bicuspids are also known as premolars.
C The canines are also known as cuspids.
D The canines are also known as cuspids.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 143            TOP:   Canines

 

  1. Which statement is not true of the premolars?
a. They are also referred to as bicuspids.
b. There are eight premolars in the permanent dentition.
c. There are four premolars in the primary dentition.
d. The premolars are used primarily for chewing and grinding food.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Premolars are referred to as bicuspids.
B There are eight premolars in the permanent dentition, two in each quadrant.
C There are no premolars in the primary dentition.
D The premolars are a cross between canines and molars. They are used primarily for grinding and chewing of food.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 143            TOP:   Premolars

 

  1. Which is the correct order of the teeth from anterior to posterior in the permanent dentition?
a. Molars, premolars, canines, incisors c. Canines, incisors, premolars, molars
b. Incisors, canines, premolars, molars d. Incisors, premolars, canines, molars

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Molars and premolars are posterior teeth; canines are between the premolars and incisors.
B In the permanent dentition, the teeth are from incisors to canines to premolars to molars.
C Incisors are the first anterior teeth, then canines, then premolars, and then molars.
D Incisors are the first anterior teeth, then canines, then premolars, and then molars.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 143

TOP:   Types and Functions of Teeth

 

  1. The facial surface closest to the lips is the _____ surface.
a. labial c. masticatory
b. lingual d. proximal

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The facial surface closest to the lips is the labial surface.
B The lingual surface is the surface on the tongue side of the tooth.
C The masticatory surface is the chewing surface of a tooth.
D The proximal surface is a surface adjacent to another tooth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 145            TOP:   Tooth Surfaces

 

  1. The terms labial and buccal can be substituted for:
a. incisal. c. distal.
b. facial. d. lingual.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The incisal surface is the biting surface of an anterior tooth.
B The terms labial and buccal can be substituted for facial.
C The distal surface is the tooth surface farthest from the midline.
D The lingual surface is the tooth surface on the tongue side of the tooth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 145            TOP:   Tooth Surfaces

 

  1. The tooth surface closest to the tongue on both the anterior and posterior teeth is the:
a. incisal. c. palatal.
b. buccal. d. lingual.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The incisal surface is the surface of an anterior tooth that is the incisal edge used for cutting and tearing food.
B The buccal surface is the surface of a posterior tooth that is next to the cheek.
C The palatal surface is the surface of an anterior tooth that is closest to the palate.
D The tooth surface closest to the tongue on both the anterior and posterior teeth is the lingual surface.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 145            TOP:   Tooth Surfaces

 

  1. The _____ surface is the chewing surface on both anterior and posterior teeth.
a. incisal c. masticatory
b. occlusal d. lingual

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The incisal surface is the biting or tearing surface of the anterior teeth.
B The occlusal surface is the broad chewing surface of the posterior teeth.
C The masticatory surface is the chewing surface of both anterior and posterior teeth. On anterior teeth, the surface is also known as the incisal surface (or edge). On posterior teeth, the surface is also known as the occlusal surface.
D The lingual surface is on both anterior and posterior teeth and is closest to the tongue.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 145            TOP:   Tooth Surfaces

 

  1. The two tooth surfaces that are proximal surfaces are the _____ and the _____.
a. mesial; distal c. incisal; occlusal
b. labial; lingual d. palatal; masticatory

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The proximal surfaces are surfaces that are adjacent to each other. For example, the mesial surface of the second premolar and the distal surface of the first premolar are proximal surfaces.
B The labial surface is toward the lips of anterior teeth and the lingual surface is the surface closest to the tongue on both anterior and posterior teeth.
C The incisal surface is the tearing and cutting surface of anterior teeth, whereas the occlusal surface is the chewing surface of posterior teeth.
D The palatal surface is the surface closest to the palate on maxillary teeth, also referred to as the lingual surface. The masticatory surface is also called the occlusal surface, and is used for chewing.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 145            TOP:   Tooth Surfaces

 

  1. The anatomic features of the teeth help:
a. maintain their position in the dental arch. c. do both a and b.
b. protect the tissues during chewing.. d. do neither a nor b.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The anatomic features help maintain the teeth in their position in the dental arch and also help protect the gingival tissues during chewing.
B The anatomic features help protect the gingival tissues during chewing and also help maintain the teeth in their position in the dental arch.
C The anatomic features, contours, contacts, and embrasures all help maintain the teeth in their position in the dental arch and help protect the gingival tissues during chewing.
D The anatomic features help maintain the teeth in their position in the dental arch and help protect the gingival tissues during chewing.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 145

TOP:   Anatomic Features of the Teeth

 

  1. The exact spot where adjacent teeth actually touch each other is the:
a. contour. c. height of contour.
b. contact area. d. contact point.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Contour is the curvature or shape of the tooth.
B Contact area is the area of the mesial or the distal surface of a tooth that touches the adjacent tooth in the same arch.
C The height of contour is the widest point on a specific surface of a tooth.
D The contact point is the exact spot where two adjacent teeth actually touch each other.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 147            TOP:   Contacts

 

  1. Correct contact between adjacent teeth is important because proper contact:
a. helps prevent food from being trapped between the teeth.
b. stabilizes the dental arch by holding teeth in positive contact with each other.
c. protects the interproximal gingival tissue from trauma during chewing.
d. does all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Helping to prevent food from being trapped between the teeth is one purpose. Proper contact also stabilizes the dental arch by holding teeth in positive contact with each other and protects the interproximal gingival tissue from trauma during chewing.
B Stabilizing the dental arch by holding teeth in positive contact with each other is one purpose. Proper contact also helps prevent food from being trapped between the teeth and protects the interproximal gingival tissue from trauma during chewing.
C Protecting the interproximal gingival tissue from trauma during chewing is one purpose. Proper contact also helps prevent food from being trapped between the teeth and stabilizes the dental arch by holding teeth in positive contact with each other.
D All of the answers listed are correct.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 147            TOP:   Contacts

 

  1. The crown of a tooth that is divided crosswise with the division being parallel to the occlusal or incisal surface of the tooth has which of the following divisions?
a. Mesial third, middle third, and distal third
b. Occlusal third, middle third, and cervical third
c. Facial third, middle third, and lingual third
d. Incisal third, middle third, and lingual third

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The mesial, middle, and distal thirds make up the mesiodistal division. This division is lengthwise in a mesial-to-distal (front-to-back) direction.
B The crosswise division parallel to the occlusal or incisal surface is the occlusocervical division. It consists of the occlusal, middle, and cervical thirds.
C The facial, middle, and lingual thirds make up the buccolingual division. This division is lengthwise in a labial- or buccal-to-lingual direction.
D There is no division that includes incisal, middle, and lingual thirds.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 148            TOP:   Divisions into Thirds

 

  1. _____ is the standard for normal occlusion.
a. Centric occlusion c. Physiologic occlusion
b. Functional occlusion d. Malocclusion

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Centric occlusion is the standard for normal occlusion. It occurs when the jaws are closed in a position that produces maximal stable contact between the arches.
B Functional occlusion is used to describe contact of the teeth during biting and chewing movement.
C Physiologic occlusion is another term for functional occlusion.
D Malocclusion refers to an abnormal relationship of the arches when in centric occlusion.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 149            TOP:   Occlusion and Malocclusion

 

  1. In the Universal/National System, the primary teeth are identified using _____ and the permanent teeth are identified using _____.
a. brackets with letters; brackets with numbers
b. letters A to T; numbers 1 to 32
c. numbers 1 to 32; letters A to T
d. letters A to E; numbers 1 to 8

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The Palmer Notation System uses brackets to identify the quadrants with letters for primary teeth and numbers for permanent teeth.
B In the Universal/National System the primary teeth are identified using letters A to T and the permanent teeth are identified using numbers 1 to 32.
C In the Universal/National System the primary teeth are identified using letters A to T and the permanent teeth are identified using numbers 1 to 32.
D The Palmer Notation System uses the letters A to E for the primary dentition, with all molars being “E,” and for the permanent dentition all the molars are “8.”

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 153            TOP:   Tooth-Numbering Systems

 

  1. If a dentist uses the ISO numbering system and charts #11, #12, #53, #54, and #18 teeth as being present in the patient’s mouth, approximately what is the age of the patient?
a. 5 to 6 years old c. 8 to 9 years old
b. 6 to 7 years old d. 12 to 13 years old

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Tooth #12 does not erupt until about 8 to 9 years of age, so the patient would be older than 5 to 6 years of age.
B Tooth #12 does not erupt until about 8 to 9 years of age, so the patient would be older than 6 to 7 years of age.
C Teeth #11 and #12 are the permanent central and lateral incisors that erupt between 7 to 9 years of age, whereas #18 is the permanent first molar that erupts around 6 to 7 years of age; the other teeth are all primary teeth. So the patient is approximately between 8 to 9 years old.
D If the patient were 12 to 13 years old, teeth #13 and #14 would be present.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 142

TOP:   Table 11-3: Permanent Dentition in Order of Eruption

Bird & Robinson: Modern Dental Assisting, 10th Edition

 

Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The goal of preventive dentistry is to:
a. provide the best esthetic dentistry possible.
b. provide the best patient experience through superior practice management.
c. balance office accounts payable and receivable.
d. help people of all ages to have the maximum oral health possible, throughout their lives.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The goal of preventive dentistry is to help people of all ages to have the maximum oral health possible, throughout their lives. Providing the best esthetic dentistry possible is a restorative rather than preventive goal.
B The goal of preventive dentistry is to help people of all ages to have the maximum oral health possible, throughout their lives. Superior practice management is a business goal.
C The goal of preventive dentistry is to help people of all ages to have the maximum oral health possible, throughout their lives. Balancing accounts payable and receivable is a business goal.
D The goal of preventive dentistry is to help people of all ages to have the maximum oral health possible, throughout their lives.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 199            TOP:   Introduction

 

  1. As a dental assistant, your first step as a partner in prevention with your patients is to:
a. motivate patients to change their behaviors.
b. help patients become partners in recognizing and preventing dental disease in themselves.
c. help patients become partners in recognizing and preventing dental disease in their families.
d. help patients understand what causes dental disease and how to prevent it.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A As a dental assistant, your first step as a partner in prevention with your patients is to help patients understand what causes dental disease and how to prevent it. The next step is to motivate patients to change their behaviors and to become active partners in recognizing and preventing dental disease in themselves and their families.
B As a dental assistant, your first step as a partner in prevention with your patients is to help patients understand what causes dental disease and how to prevent it. The next step is to motivate patients to change their behaviors and to become active partners in recognizing and preventing dental disease in themselves and their families.
C As a dental assistant, your first step as a partner in prevention with your patients is to help patients understand what causes dental disease and how to prevent it. The next step is to motivate patients to change their behaviors and to become active partners in recognizing and preventing dental disease in themselves and their families.
D As a dental assistant, your first step as a partner in prevention with your patients is to help patients understand what causes dental disease and how to prevent it.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 199            TOP:   Partners in Prevention

 

  1. A preventive care dental program is a partnership between the:
a. dentist and hygienist. c. patient and the dental healthcare team.
b. hygienist and the patient. d. dentist and dental assistant.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The dental assistant is also a member of the dental team, and the patient is the other half of the partnership.
B The dentist and dental assistant are the other members of the dental health team.
C A successful preventive dentistry program is a partnership between the patient and the dental healthcare team.
D The dental hygienist is also a member of the dental team, and the patient is the other half of the partnership.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 199            TOP:   Partners in Prevention

 

  1. Since the 1950s, _____ has been the primary weapon in combating dental caries.
a. toothbrushing c. sealants
b. fluoride d. flossing

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Toothbrushing, sealants, and flossing do not individually slow demineralization and enhance remineralization, two of the most important aspects of reducing dental caries.
B The use of fluoride has been the primary weapon used to combat dental caries since the 1950s.
C Toothbrushing, sealants, and flossing do not individually slow demineralization and enhance remineralization, two of the most important aspects of reducing dental caries.
D Toothbrushing, sealants, and flossing do not individually slow demineralization and enhance remineralization, two of the most important aspects of reducing dental caries.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 202            TOP:   Fluoride

 

  1. To avoid spreading bacteria that cause caries in a baby, a parent should not put anything into the baby’s mouth:
a. without sterilizing it first in an autoclave.
b. that has been in his or her own mouth.
c. except disposable “plasticware.”
d. without taking a bite or sip first to make sure it is not spoiled.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A To avoid spreading bacteria that cause caries in a baby, the parents should not put anything into the baby’s mouth that has been in their own mouths. It is unrealistic and unnecessary to autoclave everything.
B To avoid spreading bacteria that cause caries in a baby, parents should not put anything into the baby’s mouth that has been in their own mouths.
C  To avoid spreading bacteria that cause caries in a baby, the parents should not put anything into the baby’s mouth that has been in their own mouths. It doesn’t matter what the material is.
D To avoid spreading bacteria that cause caries in a baby, the parents should not put anything into the baby’s mouth that has been in their own mouths. Taking a bite or sip first does exactly the opposite.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 201            TOP:   Dental Care for 0 to 5 Years

 

  1. Fluoride that is ingested in water, food, beverages, or supplements is known as:
a. topical fluoride. c. systemic fluoride.
b. ingested fluoride. d. fluoride gel.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Topical fluoride is applied in direct contact with the tooth surface.
B Ingested fluoride is how fluoride is delivered systemically.
C Systemic fluoride is fluoride that is ingested in water, food, or beverages or by taking supplements. The fluoride that is needed is absorbed through the intestine into the bloodstream.
D Fluoride gel is one type of topical fluoride.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 202            TOP:   Fluoride

 

  1. A condition that results from chronic overexposure to fluoride is known as:
a. fluorosis. c. fluoride poisoning.
b. staining. d. a toxic reaction.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Fluorosis can affect children under the age of six, whose developing teeth receive chronic overexposure to fluoride.
B Staining is a symptom of fluorosis.
C Fluoride poisoning is another term for a toxic reaction.
D A toxic reaction can be an acute reaction caused by abuse of high concentration gels or solutions or by accidental ingestion of a concentrated fluoride preparation.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 202            TOP:   Safe and Toxic Levels

 

  1. Advantages of a fluoride needs assessment include:
a. “standardization” of patient fluoride therapies.
b. allowing the dentist to more accurately determine the appropriate fluoride therapy.
c. modification of community water fluoridation to meet individual patient needs.
d. elimination of dietary fluoride.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Advantages of fluoride needs assessment include helping to “individualize” rather than “standardize” patient fluoride therapies.
B Advantages of a fluoride needs assessment include allowing the dentist to more accurately determine the appropriate fluoride therapy.
C Advantages of a fluoride needs assessment include allowing the dentist to more accurately determine the appropriate fluoride therapy. It would be unrealistic to suggest modification of community water fluoridation to meet individual patient needs.
D Advantages of a fluoride needs assessment include allowing the dentist to more accurately determine the appropriate fluoride therapy. It does not suggest elimination of dietary fluoride.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 203            TOP:   Fluoride Needs Assessment

 

  1. The major effects of water fluoridation have been proven to be:
a. systemic. c. both a and b.
b. topical.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The major effects of water fluoridation are not achieved through systemic consumption.
B The effects of water fluoridation on the teeth have been proven to be topical rather than systemic, as was once believed.
C The major effects of water fluoridation are received topically, not systemically.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   pp. 203-204   TOP:   Fluoridated Water

 

  1. One part per million (ppm) of fluoride is approximately equivalent to one drop of fluoride in a _____ of water.
a. cup (8 ounces) c. bathtub
b. gallon d. swimming pool

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A One part per million (ppm) of fluoride is approximately equivalent to one drop of fluoride in a bathtub rather than a cup of water.
B One part per million (ppm) of fluoride is approximately equivalent to one drop of fluoride in a bathtub rather than a gallon of water.
C  One part per million (ppm) of fluoride is approximately equivalent to one drop of fluoride in a bathtub of water.
D One part per million (ppm) of fluoride is approximately equivalent to one drop of fluoride in a bathtub rather than a swimming pool of water.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 203-204   TOP:   Fluoridated Water

 

  1. The primary source of topical fluoride is:
a. fluoridated drinking water. c. fluoridated toothpaste.
b. fluoride mouth rinses. d. in-office fluoride treatments.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The tooth surface is exposed to fluoride in drinking water only briefly as it is consumed.
B A fluoride mouth rinse may be recommended for the high-risk caries patient.
C A patient’s main source of topical fluoride comes from fluoridated toothpaste.
D In-office fluoride treatments may be recommended for some children and for some high-risk caries patients.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   pp. 204-205   TOP:   Toothpastes

 

  1. Dental caries cannot occur without:
a. dietary proteins.
b. dietary sugars.
c. the presence of specific bacteria in the mouth.
d. both b and c.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Carbohydrates, not proteins, are the dietary source for dental caries.
B Dietary sugar is one of two elements that must be present for development of dental caries.
C The presence of specific bacteria in the mouth is one of two elements that must occur for development of dental caries.
D For the dental caries process to occur, specific bacteria and dietary sugars must both be present in the mouth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 207            TOP:   Nutrition and Dental Caries

 

  1. Foods that cause caries are known as:
a. cariogenic. c. xylitol.
b. anticariogenic. d. aspartame.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A A food that is capable of causing dental caries is known as cariogenic.
B Anticariogenic refers to a food that will not cause dental caries.
C Xylitol is an artificial sweetener that actually prevents dental caries.
D Aspartame is a sugar substitute that does not cause dental caries.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 207            TOP:   Nutrition and Dental Caries

 

  1. A dietary analysis using a food diary includes everything a patient consumes each day for:
a. a month. c. a week.
b. two weeks. d. six months.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The time frame used for a dietary analysis is not a month.
B The time frame used for a dietary analysis is not two months.
C The first step in a dietary analysis involves the patient keeping a food diary for one week. The diary should list everything the patient consumes and the time that it was consumed.
D The time frame used for a dietary analysis is not six months.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 211            TOP:   Dietary Analysis

 

  1. The goal of a plaque control program is to thoroughly remove plaque at least _____ a day.
a. once c. four times
b. twice d. five times

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The goal of a plaque control program is to thoroughly remove plaque at least once a day. After plaque has been thoroughly removed, it takes about 24 hours to form again.
B The goal of a plaque control program is to thoroughly remove plaque at least once, not twice, a day. It is important that patients are aware of this as plaque control becomes a quantity, rather than quality, issue for some of them.
C The goal of a plaque control program is to thoroughly remove plaque at least once, not four times, a day. It is important that patients are aware of this as plaque control becomes a quantity, rather than quality, issue for some of them.
D The goal of a plaque control program is to thoroughly remove plaque at least once, not five times, a day. It is important that patients are aware of this as plaque control becomes a quantity, rather than quality, issue for some of them.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 211            TOP:   Plaque Control Program

 

  1. Dental professionals generally recommend that patients use _____ toothbrushes.
a. soft-bristled c. only automatic
b. hard-bristled d. only manual

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Soft-bristled toothbrushes are gentler to the gingiva and to any exposed cementum or dentin. Dentists usually recommend toothbrushes with soft bristles for this reason and because they adapt to the contours of the teeth better than hard bristles.
B The hard-bristled toothbrush does not adapt as well to the contours of the teeth.
C When used properly, automatic toothbrushes are effective in the removal of dental plaque and may be recommended to a patient to meet specific needs.
D When used properly, manual toothbrushes are effective in the removal of dental plaque and may be recommended to a patient to meet specific needs.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 212-213   TOP:   Manual Toothbrushes

 

  1. Things to consider when you are teaching a patient how to brush most effectively include:
a. The patient’s age c. The patient’s personal preferences
b. The patient’s dexterity d. All of the above

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A A patient’s age is only one consideration with proper toothbrushing. Dexterity and personal preference should also play into the instruction.
B A patient’s dexterity is only one consideration with proper toothbrushing. Age and personal preference should also play into the instruction.
C A patient’s personal preference is only one consideration with proper toothbrushing. Age and dexterity should also play into the instruction.
D Age, dexterity, and personal preference are all factors to be considered in proper toothbrushing education and instruction.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 213            TOP:   Toothbrushing

 

  1. Patients should be cautioned about abnormal _____ of tooth structure over time, caused by vigorously scrubbing the teeth with any toothbrush.
a. attrition c. erosion
b. abrasion d. abfraction

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Attrition is tooth-to-tooth wear. Patients should be cautioned about abnormal abrasion of tooth structure over time, caused by vigorously scrubbing the teeth with any toothbrush.
B Patients should be cautioned about abnormal abrasion of tooth structure over time, caused by vigorously scrubbing the teeth with any toothbrush.
C Erosion is caused by acid. Patients should be cautioned about abnormal abrasion of tooth structure over time, caused by vigorously scrubbing the teeth with any toothbrush.
D Abfraction is caused by bruxing (grinding). Patients should be cautioned about abnormal abrasion of tooth structure over time, caused by vigorously scrubbing the teeth with any toothbrush.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 216            TOP:   Toothbrushing Precautions

 

  1. Dental floss should be used _____ brushing teeth.
a. before c. a or b
b. after

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The patient should be instructed to floss before brushing so that the fluoride in the dentifrice can reach the proximal surfaces of the teeth.
B For maximum plaque removal, flossing should be done before brushing.
C Flossing should be done before, not after, brushing.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 217            TOP:   When to Floss

 

  1. A toothpick is utilized as a component of which of the following interdental aids?
a. End-tuft brush c. Automatic flosser
b. Bridge threader d. Perio-aid

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A A toothpick is utilized as a component of the perio-aid. An end-tuft brush is made from soft nylon filaments.
B A toothpick is utilized as a component of the perio-aid. Bridge threaders are used with regular dental floss.
C A toothpick is utilized as a component of the perio-aid. Automatic flossers have one-use, replaceable, thin rubber filament tips.
D A toothpick is utilized as a component of the perio-aid. A perio-aid is a handle with holes in the end designed to hold toothpicks.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 219            TOP:   Perio-Aid

 

  1. An oral irrigation device is used:
a. instead of dental floss.
b. for all periodontal patients.
c. to reduce bacterial levels in subgingival areas.
d. to replace other oral hygiene techniques.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Oral irrigation can be used as a supplement with other oral hygiene techniques, such as brushing and flossing.
B Oral irrigation may be prescribed for selected patients.
C An oral irrigation device may be used to reduce bacterial levels in the subgingival areas of the mouth.
D Oral irrigation is not a replacement for, but a supplement to, regular oral hygiene care.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 221            TOP:   Oral Irrigation Devices

 

  1. The first step in patient education is to:
a. instruct the patient on how to remove plaque.
b. select home care aids.
c. listen carefully to the patient.
d. reinforce home care.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Plaque removal instruction is step two.
B Selection of home care aids is step four.
C The first step in a patient education program is to listen carefully to the patient, so that you can understand his or her dental healthcare needs, as well as his or her perceptions of those needs.
D Home care reinforcement is step six.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 200            TOP:   Patient Education Guidelines

 

  1. Untreated caries and periodontal disease can increase the risk of giving birth to a ____baby.
a. low-birth-weight c. healthy
b. preterm d. a and b

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Untreated caries and periodontal disease can increase the risk of giving birth to a low- birth-weight or preterm baby.
B Untreated caries and periodontal disease can increase the risk of giving birth to a low- birth-weight or preterm baby.
C Untreated caries and periodontal disease can increase the risk of giving birth to a low- birth-weight or preterm baby.
D Untreated caries and periodontal disease can increase the risk of giving birth to a low- birth-weight or preterm baby.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 201            TOP:   Pregnancy and Dental Care

 

  1. Xylitol has been shown to:
a. reduce oral bacteria in a new mother’s mouth.
b. increase oral bacteria in a new mother’s mouth.
c. reduce oral bacteria transferred to an infant.
d. both a and c.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Xylitol has been shown to reduce the number of oral bacteria that causes oral disease and therefore reduces the number of bacteria that is transmitted to the infant child.
B Xylitol has been shown to reduce the number of oral bacteria that causes oral disease and therefore reduces the number of bacteria that is transmitted to the infant child.
C Xylitol has been shown to reduce the number of oral bacteria that causes oral disease and therefore reduces the number of bacteria that is transmitted to the infant child.
D Xylitol has been shown to reduce the number of oral bacteria that causes oral disease and therefore reduces the number of bacteria that is transmitted to the infant child.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 201            TOP:   Pregnancy and Dental Care

 

  1. _______ is not a form of xylitol commonly used.
a. Mints c. Professional application
b. Gum d. Oral rinses

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Xylitol is supplied as mints, gum, and oral rinses.
B Xylitol is supplied as mints, gum, and oral rinses.
C Xylitol is not applied professionally.
D Xylitol is supplied as mints, gum, and oral rinses.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 201            TOP:   Pregnancy and Dental Care

 

  1. Oral hygiene should begin:
a. when the child gets their first tooth. c. when all teeth are present.
b. before the first tooth erupts. d. when the child can master the skill.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The parent should not wait until the first tooth erupts.
B Oral hygiene should begin before the infant has teeth. The parent should wipe the mouth after feeding.
C Oral hygiene should begin before the infant has teeth. The parent should wipe the mouth after feeding.
D Oral hygiene should begin before the infant has teeth. The parent should wipe the mouth after feeding.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 201            TOP:   Dental Care for 0 to 5 Years

 

  1. Which of the following is acceptable regarding bottles and sippy cups?
a. The baby may have one at bedtime or naptime with milk only.
b. The baby may have one at bedtime or naptime with water only.
c. The baby may use one frequently through the day with milk only.
d. Both a and c are acceptable.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Use of bottles and sippy cups with milk or any other sweetened beverage should be discouraged; if a bottle is required at bedtime or naptime, it should contain water only.
B Use of bottles and sippy cups with milk or any other sweetened beverage should be discouraged; if a bottle is required at bedtime or naptime, it should contain water only.
C Use of bottles and sippy cups with milk or any other sweetened beverage should be discouraged; if a bottle is required at bedtime or naptime, it should contain water only.
D Use of bottles and sippy cups with milk or any other sweetened beverage should be discouraged; if a bottle is required at bedtime or naptime, it should contain water only.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 201            TOP:   Dental Care for 0 to 5 Years

 

  1. A _______ is a plastic-like covering applied over pits and fissures to protect the tooth against decay.
a. fluoride varnish c. sealant
b. crown d. fluoride gel

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A A sealant is a plastic-like covering applied over pits and fissures to protect the tooth against decay.
B A sealant is a plastic-like covering applied over pits and fissures to protect the tooth against decay.
C A sealant is a plastic-like covering applied over pits and fissures to protect the tooth against decay.
D A sealant is a plastic-like covering applied over pits and fissures to protect the tooth against decay.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 201            TOP:   Dental Sealants

 

  1. When analyzing a patient’s food diary, the habit of least concern would be frequent use of:
a. diet soft drinks. c. oranges and apples.
b. raisins and fruit juices. d. soft drinks or beer.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Use of even diet soft drinks are acidic and can cause dental decay.
B Frequent use of raisins and fruit juices are highly concentrated and cause decay.
C Even though apples and oranges contain their own sugar, fresh fruits are not concentrated sweets because they contain high water content.
D Use of soft drinks and beer are acidic and can cause dental decay.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 212

TOP:   Steps for Analyzing a Food Diary

 

  1. Which is NOT a factor in regard to toothbrushes?
a. They should be replaced when they begin to show signs of wear.
b. They should be replaced after an illness.
c. They should be replaced once a year.
d. They should be replaced every 8-12 weeks.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Toothbrushes should be replaced as soon as they show signs of wear, about every 8-12 weeks, or after an illness.
B Toothbrushes should be replaced as soon as they show signs of wear, about every 8-12 weeks, or after an illness.
C Toothbrushes should be replaced as soon as they show signs of wear, about every 8-12 weeks, or after an illness.
D Toothbrushes should be replaced as soon as they show signs of wear, about every 8-12 weeks, or after an illness.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 212-213   TOP:   Manual Toothbrushes

 

  1. Automatic toothbrushes may be helpful for:
a. patients with physical disabilities. c. timing brushing.
b. motivating children. d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Automatic brushes may be helpful for the physically disabled, for motivating children, and because many have a timer that will assist the patient in brushing longer.
B Automatic brushes may be helpful for the physically disabled, for motivating children, and because many have a timer that will assist the patient in brushing longer.
C Automatic brushes may be helpful for the physically disabled, for motivating children, and because many have a timer that will assist the patient in brushing longer.
D Automatic brushes may be helpful for the physically disabled, for motivating children, and because many have a timer that will assist the patient in brushing longer.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 213            TOP:   Automatic Toothbrushes

 

  1. When reviewing toothbrushing with patients who have healthy gum tissue and very few plaque deposits, you should not:
a. encourage them to use an automatic brush.
b. coach them to continue their effective technique.
c. make minor modifications.
d. guide them in techniques to better reach missed areas.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Patients with few plaque deposits and healthy gum tissue should merely be coached to continue their technique and be given guidance on minor modifications and techniques to reach missed areas.
B Patients with few plaque deposits and healthy gum tissue should merely be coached to continue their technique and be given guidance on minor modifications and techniques to reach missed areas.
C Patients with few plaque deposits and healthy gum tissue should merely be coached to continue their technique and be given guidance on minor modifications and techniques to reach missed areas.
D Patients with few plaque deposits and healthy gum tissue should merely be coached to continue their technique and be given guidance on minor modifications and techniques to reach missed areas.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 213            TOP:   Toothbrushing

 

  1. Patients with acute oral inflammation should not be instructed to:
a. discontinue all brushing.
b. brush all areas of the mouth not affected.
c. resume normal brushing as soon as possible.
d. rinse with mild saline solution.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Patients with acute oral inflammation should be instructed to continue to brush those areas not affected, not to discontinue all brushing.
B Patients with acute oral inflammation should continue to brush those areas not affected, not discontinue all brushing.
C Patients with acute oral inflammation should resume normal brushing as soon as possible.
D Patients with acute oral inflammation should rinse with mild saline solution to encourage healing and remove debris.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 217

TOP:   Toothbrushing for Unusual Conditions

 

  1. A(n) _____is used to clean under fixed dental work.
a. end-tuft brush c. automatic flosser
b. bridge threader d. perio-aid

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A A bridge threader is used with floss looped through it to clean under fixed bridges and orthodontic retainers.
B A bridge threader is used with floss looped through it to clean under fixed bridges and orthodontic retainers.
C A bridge threader is used with floss looped through it to clean under fixed bridges and orthodontic retainers.
D A bridge threader is used with floss looped through it to clean under fixed bridges and orthodontic retainers.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 217-219   TOP:   Bridge Threaders

 

  1. _____ is not used to clean a denture.
a. Dish or other mild soap
b. Denture cleaner
c. A tooth whitening or smokers’ toothpaste
d. Mild toothpaste

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Dish or other mild soap, denture cleaner, or mild toothpaste should be used to clean a denture.
B Dish or other mild soap, denture cleaner, or mild toothpaste should be used to clean a denture.
C Abrasive toothpaste should not be used to clean a denture.
D Dish or other mild soap, denture cleaner, or mild toothpaste should be used to clean a denture.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 219            TOP:   Dentures

 

  1. For patient education to be effective, it should not be:
a. reinforced. c. done in a threatening manner.
b. repeated. d. done in a calm, reassuring manner.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A For patient education to be effective, it should be done in a nonthreatening, calm, and reassuring manner. It needs to be repeated and reinforced over time.
B For patient education to be effective, it should be done in a nonthreatening, calm, and reassuring manner. It needs to be repeated and reinforced over time.
C For patient education to be effective, it should be done in a nonthreatening, calm, and reassuring manner. It needs to be repeated and reinforced over time.
D For patient education to be effective, it should be done in a nonthreatening, calm, and reassuring manner. It needs to be repeated and reinforced over time.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 200            TOP:   Patient Education

 

  1. Before topical fluoride gel is applied, the teeth must be:
a. free of all plaque. c. isolated.
b. dry. d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The presence of plaque will not affect the update of fluoride.
B The teeth must be dry before topical fluoride gel is applied.
C The teeth are not isolated.
D The teeth must be dry before topical fluoride gel is applied; they do not need to be isolated or free of plaque.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 209

TOP:   Procedure 15-1 Applying Topical Fluoride Gel or Foam (Expanded Function)

 

  1. When applying a fluoride varnish, do not:
a. thoroughly dry the teeth.
b. dry the teeth with a gauze square.
c. use a cotton-tip applicator or brush.
d. use dental floss through contacts to draw the fluoride varnish interproximally.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A When applying a fluoride varnish, do not thoroughly dry the teeth; simply dry them with a gauze square.
B When applying a fluoride varnish, do not thoroughly dry the teeth; simply dry them with a gauze square.
C The fluoride varnish is placed using a cotton-tip applicator or brush.
D Using dental floss through contacts will draw the fluoride varnish interproximally.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 210

TOP:   Procedure 15-2 Applying Fluoride Varnish (Expanded Function)

 

  1. What instructions should a patient be given regarding the use of a whitening toothpaste?
a. They will see immediate results. c. Both a and b.
b. They may notice some tissue irritation. d. Neither a or b.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Whitening toothpastes will vary in degree of whitening; patients should not expect immediate results, and they may notice some tissue irritation.
B Whitening toothpastes will vary in degree of whitening; patients should not expect immediate results, and they may notice some tissue irritation.
C Whitening toothpastes will vary in degree of whitening; patients should not expect immediate results, and they may notice some tissue irritation.
D Whitening toothpastes will vary in degree of whitening; patients should not expect immediate results, and they may notice some tissue irritation.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 221

TOP:   Table 15-6 Types of Toothpastes

 

  1. The type of toothpaste that should be suggested that shows a major effect on reducing supragingival calculus is ______ toothpaste.
a. fluoride c. tartar control
b. antigingivitis d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Tartar control toothpastes inhibit the calcification of deposits of the teeth and show a major effect on reducing supragingival calculus.
B Tartar control toothpastes inhibit the calcification of deposits of the teeth and show a major effect on reducing supragingival calculus.
C Tartar control toothpastes inhibit the calcification of deposits of the teeth and show a major effect on reducing supragingival calculus.
D Tartar control toothpastes inhibit the calcification of deposits of the teeth and show a major effect on reducing supragingival calculus.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 221

TOP:   Table 15-6 Types of Toothpastes

 

  1. Every person should be treated the same in patient education for oral health needs.
a. True b. False

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Oral health education needs to be tailored to meet each individual’s healthcare needs. You need to listen to your patient’s perception of dental health care and tailor a program that meets their needs.
B Oral health education needs to be tailored to meet each individual’s healthcare needs. You need to listen to your patient’s perception of dental health care and tailor a program that meets their needs.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 200            TOP:   Patient Education Guidelines