Nutrition And Diet Therapy 6th Edition by Carroll A. Lutz and Erin E. Mazur – Test Bank

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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

Nutrition And Diet Therapy  6th Edition by Carroll A. Lutz and Erin E. Mazur – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

Chapter 6: Vitamins

 

 

  1. Fatalities have been associated with toxicity from:
  2. Vitamins B12 and E
  3. Vitamin B6 and folic acid
  4. Vitamin C and niacin
  5. Vitamins A and D

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. Vitamins B12 and E are not associated with toxicity that can be fatal.
2. Vitamins B6 and folic acid are not associated with toxicity that can be fatal.
3. Vitamins C and niacin are not associated with toxicity that can be fatal.
4. Toxicity from vitamins A and D can be fatal.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. The deficiency disease associated with vitamin C is:
  2. Osteomalacia
  3. Night blindness
  4. Xerophthalmia
  5. Scurvy

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. Night blindness is due to a deficiency of vitamin A.
2. Osteomalacia is due to a deficiency of vitamin D.
3. Xerophthalmia is due to a deficiency of vitamin A.
4. A deficiency of vitamin C leads to scurvy.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. The nurse who is caring for a client with alcoholism anticipates that the physician will order injections of which of the following due to the frequent occurrence of deficient states associated with this disease?
  2. Thiamin
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Folic acid
  5. Vitamin B12

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Individuals with alcoholism commonly develop a thiamin deficiency due to inadequate food intake, increased requirements, and decreased absorption. Thiamin given by injection is used to raise plasma levels sufficiently to cross the blood–brain barrier
2. Although individuals with alcoholism may have numerous vitamin deficiencies, a thiamin deficiency is most common and often requires injections of the vitamin.
3. Although individuals with alcoholism may have numerous vitamin deficiencies, a thiamin deficiency is most common and often requires injections of the vitamin.
4. Although individuals with alcoholism may have numerous vitamin deficiencies, a thiamin deficiency is most common and often requires injections of the vitamin.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. Ms. H is reluctant to take vitamin supplements and states that acidic foods upset her stomach. Which of the following foods could the nurse suggest as good sources of vitamin C?
  2. Wheat germ, asparagus, and spinach
  3. Milk, eggs, and liver
  4. Broccoli, peppers, and kiwi
  5. Pork, salmon, and black beans

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Wheat germ, asparagus and spinach are good sources of folic acid.
2. Milk, eggs, and liver are good sources of riboflavin.
3. Good sources of vitamin C include broccoli, peppers, and kiwi.
4. Pork, salmon, and black beans are good sources of thiamin.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. Beta-carotene is provitamin ______.
  2. A
  3. B12
  4. C
  5. D

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Beta-carotene is provitamin A.
2. Beta-carotene is provitamin A.
3. Beta-carotene is provitamin A.
4. Beta-carotene is provitamin A.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
  2. Vitamin D
  3. Thiamin
  4. Folate
  5. Riboflavin

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin.
2. Thiamin is a water-soluble vitamin.
3. Folate is a water-soluble vitamin.
4. Riboflavin is a water-soluble vitamin.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following are the best sources of preformed vitamin A?
  2. Pork and fortified cereals
  3. Carrots and sweet potatoes
  4. Egg yolk and fortified milk
  5. Salmon and cod liver oil

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Pork and fortified cereals are good sources of thiamin.
2. Carrots and sweet potatoes are good sources of provitamin A.
3. Good sources of preformed vitamin A include egg yolk and fortified milk.
4. Salmon and cod liver oil are good sources of vitamin D.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. A person at high risk of vitamin D deficiency does not drink milk and:
  2. Takes cod liver oil daily
  3. Does not go outside
  4. Is fair-skinned
  5. Has lactose intolerance

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Risk for vitamin D deficiency is not related to the intake of cod liver oil.
2. Sunlight is a good source of vitamin D. Lack of sunlight can lead to a vitamin D deficiency.
3. Being fair-skinned does not place a person at risk for vitamin D deficiency.
4. Lactose intolerance does not increase a person’s risk for vitamin D deficiency.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Milk is fortified with vitamin D. Which of the following statements is true?
  2. Milk normally does not contain the vitamin.
  3. The vitamin has been destroyed by pasteurization and therefore has been replaced.
  4. The body readily destroys vitamin D, so an ample supply is essential.
  5. Skim milk will maximize the availability of the vitamins to the body.

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Vitamin D is added to milk because it normally does not contain vitamin D.
2. Milk does not contain vitamin D; therefore, it cannot be destroyed by pasteurization.
3. The body does not regularly destroy vitamin D.
4. Milk, in any form does not contain vitamin D.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. A dose 10 times the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for a vitamin is called a:
  2. Megadose
  3. Prophylactic dose
  4. Toxic dose
  5. Tolerable upper intake level

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. A dose 10 times the RDA is called a megadose.
2. A dose 10 times the RDA is called a megadose.
3. A dose 10 times the RDA is called a megadose.
4. A dose 10 times the RDA is called a megadose.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is associated with vitamin D deficiency?
  2. Pernicious anemia
  3. Beriberi
  4. Xerophthalmia
  5. Osteomalacia

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. Pernicious anemia is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency and lack of the intrinsic factor.
2. Beriberi is associated with a thiamin deficiency.
3. Xerophthalmia is associated with a vitamin A deficiency.
4. Osteomalacia is associated with a vitamin D deficiency.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following vitamins provides an important pulmonary barrier against air pollution?
  2. A
  3. C
  4. E
  5. Folic acid

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Vitamin A does not provide a pulmonary barrier against air pollution.
2. Vitamin C does not provide a pulmonary barrier against air pollution.
3. Vitamin E in lung cell membranes provides an important barrier against air pollution.
4. Folic acid does not provide a pulmonary barrier against air pollution.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would a nurse suggest as the best sources of thiamin?
  2. Brussels sprouts and spinach
  3. Eggs and milk
  4. Tuna and liver
  5. Pork and fortified cereals

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. Brussels sprouts and spinach are good sources of folate.
2. Eggs and milk are good sources of riboflavin.
3. Although liver is a good source of thiamin, it is also a good source of niacin and folate. Tuna is a good source of niacin.
4. Pork and fortified cereals are good sources of thiamin.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. Persons who consume ethnic foods emphasizing corn but containing limited protein should be assessed carefully for adequacy of ______ intake.
  2. Folic acid
  3. Niacin
  4. Riboflavin
  5. Thiamin

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Corn as a staple food can lead to a niacin, not folic acid, deficiency. Therefore, it would be important to assess for the adequacy of foods containing niacin.
2. Corn as a staple food can lead to a niacin deficiency. Therefore, it would be important to assess for the adequacy of foods containing niacin.
3. Corn as a staple food can lead to a niacin, not riboflavin, deficiency. Therefore, it would be important to assess for the adequacy of foods containing niacin.
4. Corn as a staple food can lead to a niacin, not thiamin, deficiency. Therefore, it would be important to assess for the adequacy of foods containing niacin.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Pyridoxine is ordered for a client. The nurse understands that which of the following will be given?
  2. Niacin
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Thiamin
  5. Vitamin B6

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. The pharmaceutical preparation of vitamin B6 is pyridoxine.
2. The pharmaceutical preparation of vitamin B6 is pyridoxine.
3. The pharmaceutical preparation of vitamin B6 is pyridoxine.
4. The pharmaceutical preparation of vitamin B6 is pyridoxine.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. The need for which of the following vitamins increases whenever the need for protein increases?
  2. Riboflavin
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin C
  5. Vitamin K

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Riboflavin is a coenzyme in protein metabolism. The need increases as protein needs increase.
2. Riboflavin is a coenzyme in protein metabolism. The need increases as protein needs increase.
3. Riboflavin is a coenzyme in protein metabolism. The need increases as protein needs increase.
4. Riboflavin is a coenzyme in protein metabolism. The need increases as protein needs increase.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. A review of a client’s diet history reveals that the client consumes no dairy products. The nurse would identify this client at risk for a deficiency of which of the following?
  2. Folic acid
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Vitamin E
  5. Vitamin A

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Avoidance of dairy product intake would not place a person at risk for folic acid deficiency.
2. A person who avoids all dairy intake is at risk for riboflavin deficiency.
3. Avoidance of dairy product intake would not place a person at risk for Vitamin E deficiency.
4. Avoidance of dairy product intake would not place a person at risk for Vitamin A deficiency.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following B vitamins is stored to the greatest extent in the body?
  2. Thiamin
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Vitamin B12
  5. Folic acid

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Vitamin B12 is stored to a greater extent than the other B vitamins.
2. Vitamin B12 is stored to a greater extent than the other B vitamins.
3. Vitamin B12 is stored to a greater extent than the other B vitamins.
4. Vitamin B12 is stored to a greater extent than the other B vitamins.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. When counseling a client about food preparation, which of the following food-preparation practices would the nurse identify as least likely to destroy the vitamin C content of food?
  2. Adding baking soda to peas to maintain their bright green color
  3. Boiling water for 1 minute before adding vegetables
  4. Cooking a citrus fruit compote
  5. Storing orange juice in a plastic container

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Adding baking soda to peas would not help prevent the destruction of vitamin C.
2. Boiling the cooking water for 1 minute before adding the food allows for the elimination of dissolved oxygen that would otherwise oxidize the vitamin C.
3. Crisp-cooked is better than limp-cooked for retaining vitamin C content.
4. Storing orange juice in a metal or glass opaque container that holds no more than an amount that can be consumed in a short time would help minimize the loss of vitamin C.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. Lack of vitamin B12 or impairment of its metabolism can lead to which of the following?
  2. Osteomalacia
  3. Tetany
  4. Pernicious anemia
  5. Wernicke’s encephalopathy

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Osteomalacia results from a deficiency of vitamin D.
2. Tetany is a sign of a vitamin D deficiency in infants.
3. Pernicious anemia is the result of a vitamin B12 deficiency.
4. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is associated with a thiamin deficiency, usually in individuals who abuse alcohol.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. The World Health Organization recommends that in developing countries, clients with measles should receive supplemental vitamin:
  2. A
  3. D
  4. E
  5. K

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Supplemental vitamin A is recommended for clients with measles in developing countries.
2. Supplemental vitamin A is recommended for clients with measles in developing countries.
3. Supplemental vitamin A is recommended for clients with measles in developing countries.
4. Supplemental vitamin A is recommended for clients with measles in developing countries.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. The amino acid tryptophan serves as a provitamin for:
  2. Folic acid
  3. Niacin
  4. Riboflavin
  5. Vitamin K

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Not all of the body’s niacin has to come from preformed niacin in food. The liver can convert the essential amino acid tryptophan to niacin.
2. Not all of the body’s niacin has to come from preformed niacin in food. The liver can convert the essential amino acid tryptophan to niacin.
3. Not all of the body’s niacin has to come from preformed niacin in food. The liver can convert the essential amino acid tryptophan to niacin.
4. Not all of the body’s niacin has to come from preformed niacin in food. The liver can convert the essential amino acid tryptophan to niacin.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following organs provides the final step in the activation of vitamin D?
  2. Adrenal gland
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver
  5. Skin

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. The liver alters the vitamin to calcidiol, an inactive form of vitamin D. By enzyme action, the kidney converts the calcidiol to calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D.
2. The liver alters the vitamin to calcidiol, an inactive form of vitamin D. By enzyme action, the kidney converts the calcidiol to calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D.
3. The liver alters the vitamin to calcidiol, an inactive form of vitamin D. By enzyme action, the kidney converts the calcidiol to calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D.
4. The liver alters the vitamin to calcidiol, an inactive form of vitamin D. By enzyme action, the kidney converts the calcidiol to calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following foods would a nurse recommend as the best sources of vitamin K?
  2. Spinach, broccoli, and Brussels sprouts
  3. Grapefruit, oranges, and tomatoes
  4. Black beans, salmon, and beef liver
  5. Sweet potatoes, cantaloupe, and apricots

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Spinach, broccoli, and Brussels sprouts are excellent sources for vitamin K.
2. Grapefruit, oranges, and tomatoes would be good sources of vitamin C.
3. Black beans, salmon, and beef liver would be good sources of thiamin.
4. Sweet potatoes, cantaloupe, and apricots are good sources of vitamin A.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. After teaching a client about nutrition and vitamins, the nurse determines that the teaching was effective when the client identifies which of the following as antioxidants?
  2. Provitamin A, C, and E
  3. Thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin
  4. Vitamin B6, folic acid, and vitamin B12
  5. Vitamins C, D, and K

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Provitamin A, vitamin C, and vitamin E are antioxidants.
2. Thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin are not antioxidants.
3. Vitamin B6, folic acid, and vitamin B12 are not antioxidants.
4. Vitamins C, D, and K are not antioxidants.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Analysis

Chapter 7: Minerals

 

 

 

  1. Minerals are similar to vitamins in that both:
  2. Provide no energy
  3. Are organic substances
  4. Become part of the structure of the body
  5. Enter into chemical reactions in the body

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Minerals, like vitamins, help to regulate bodily functions without providing energy.
2. Minerals are inorganic substances; vitamins are not.
3. Minerals become part of the body’s composition; vitamins do not.
4. Unlike vitamins, minerals pay a role in chemical reactions in the body.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. A client tells the nurse that she doesn’t want to change her diet to combat her iron deficiency anemia. “Just let me take the pills,” she says. Which of the following replies by the nurse has the best scientific support?
  2. “Just be sure to take the pills with food to minimize any diarrhea.”
  3. “Adding iron rich foods to your diet will provide other nutrients in addition to iron.”
  4. “Whatever is easiest for you is fine.”
  5. “Be sure to include two cups of milk in your diet every day.”

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Oral iron is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach.
2. The intake of iron-rich foods provides not only iron but other nutrients as well, promoting a healthier diet.
3. Although it may be easiest for the client to take oral iron, it would not necessarily provide the client with the best nutritional status. The client may falsely believe that the oral iron will provide an overall healthy nutritional state.
4. Adding milk to the diet would interfere with the absorption of the oral iron.

KEY: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. Iron is best absorbed from which of the following sources?
  2. Dark green vegetables and legumes
  3. Red meat and oysters
  4. Whole-grain products
  5. Pharmaceutical supplements

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Although dark green leafy cooked vegetables are good sources of iron, legumes are good sources of copper.
2. Red meat and oysters are excellent sources of iron.
3. Whole grain products are good sources of chromium and manganese.
4. Foods, not pharmaceutical supplements, provide better nutritional intake of iron because they provide additional nutrients.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would a nurse identify as a trace mineral?
  2. Calcium
  3. Potassium
  4. Sulfur
  5. Fluoride

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. Calcium is a major mineral.
2. Potassium is a major mineral.
3. Sulfur is a major mineral.
4. Fluoride is a trace mineral.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following minerals is part of the hemoglobin molecule?
  2. Calcium
  3. Iron
  4. Iodine
  5. Phosphorus

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Calcium is not a part of the hemoglobin molecule.
2. Hemoglobin is composed of heme, the nonprotein portion that contains iron and globin, a simple protein.
3. Iodine is not a part of the hemoglobin molecule.
4. Phosphorus is not a part of the hemoglobin molecule.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Iodine is added to salt in the United States to prevent which deficiency?
  2. Pancreatic
  3. Adrenal
  4. Thyroid
  5. Pituitary

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Iodine plays no role in pancreatic function.
2. Iodine plays no role in adrenal function.
3. Iodine plays a major role in the synthesis of thyroid hormones and is added to salt to prevent a thyroid deficiency.
4. Iodine plays no role in pituitary function.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Calcitriol stimulates the active absorption of phosphorus in the:
  2. Stomach and duodenum
  3. Duodenum and jejunum
  4. Cecum and ascending colon
  5. Jejunum and ileum

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Calcitriol is the chief enhancer of absorption of phosphorus, which occurs primarily in the duodenum and jejunum.
2. Calcitriol is the chief enhancer of absorption of phosphorus, which occurs primarily in the duodenum and jejunum.
3. Calcitriol is the chief enhancer of absorption of phosphorus, which occurs primarily in the duodenum and jejunum.
4. Calcitriol is the chief enhancer of absorption of phosphorus, which occurs primarily in the duodenum and jejunum.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. The body needs a daily supply of major minerals in amounts of at least ______ mg or more.
  2. 50
  3. 100
  4. 150
  5. 200

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. For major minerals, a person requires an intake of 100 mg or more each day.
2. For major minerals, a person requires an intake of 100 mg or more each day.
3. For major minerals, a person requires an intake of 100 mg or more each day.
4. For major minerals, a person requires an intake of 100 mg or more each day.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Alkalosis causes increased protein binding of ionized ______, which results in tetany.
  2. Calcium
  3. Iodine
  4. Iron
  5. Phosphorus

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. In alkalosis, because of the excessive alkalinity of body fluids, a greater number of calcium ions than usual are bound to serum proteins, effectively inactivating calcium and impairing nerve and muscle function.
2. Iodine is not involved with alkalosis. In alkalosis, because of the excessive alkalinity of body fluids, a greater number of calcium ions than usual are bound to serum proteins, effectively inactivating calcium and impairing nerve and muscle function.
3. Iron is not involved with alkalosis. In alkalosis, because of the excessive alkalinity of body fluids, a greater number of calcium ions than usual are bound to serum proteins, effectively inactivating calcium and impairing nerve and muscle function.
4. Phosphorus is not involved with alkalosis. In alkalosis, because of the excessive alkalinity of body fluids, a greater number of calcium ions than usual are bound to serum proteins, effectively inactivating calcium and impairing nerve and muscle function.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following foods are the best sources of calcium?
  2. Spinach, broccoli, and winter squash
  3. Apples, bananas, and watermelon
  4. Whole-wheat, raisin, and rye breads
  5. Salmon, sardines, and clams

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. Spinach, broccoli, and winter squash are good sources of potassium.
2, Apples, bananas, and navy beans are not good sources of calcium. Bananas are good sources of potassium.
3. Whole-wheat, raisin, and rye breads are not good sources of calcium. They are good sources of the B vitamins.
4. Salmon sardines and clams are excellent sources of calcium.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. Calcium and ______ combine to give bones and teeth their hardness.
  2. Molybdenum
  3. Manganese
  4. Phosphorus
  5. Potassium

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Calcium and phosphorus combine to give bones and teeth their hardness.
2. Calcium and phosphorus combine to give bones and teeth their hardness.
3. Calcium and phosphorus combine to give bones and teeth their hardness.
4. Calcium and phosphorus combine to give bone s and teeth their hardness.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. A nurse is assessing a client’s hair, skin, and nails. The nurse understands that their shape is influenced by which mineral?
  2. Iron
  3. Chloride
  4. Selenium
  5. Sulfur

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. Sulfur functions to give shape to the hair, skin, and nails.
2. Sulfur functions to give shape to the hair, skin, and nails.
3. Sulfur functions to give shape to the hair, skin, and nails.
4. Sulfur functions to give shape to the hair, skin, and nails.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. Keshan disease, a cardiomyopathy frequently seen in China, is related to a deficiency or impaired metabolism of:
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Potassium
  4. Selenium
  5. Sodium

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. A deterioration of the heart due to selenium deficiency has occurred in residents of China’s Keshan province.
2. A deterioration of the heart due to selenium deficiency has occurred in residents of China’s Keshan province.
3. A deterioration of the heart due to selenium deficiency has occurred in residents of China’s Keshan province.
4. A deterioration of the heart due to selenium deficiency has occurred in residents of China’s Keshan province.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Assessment of a client reveals delayed sexual maturation. The nurse would be alert for a deficiency of which of the following?
  2. Chloride
  3. Cobalt
  4. Iron
  5. Zinc

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. Chloride does not play a role in sexual maturation
2. Cobalt does not play a role in sexual maturation.
3. Iron does not play a role in sexual maturation.
4. Zinc plays a role in sexual maturation; a deficiency of zinc can lead to delayed sexual maturation.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Review of a client’s serum potassium level is less 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse identifies this as which of the following?
  2. Diabetic acidosis
  3. Hypokalemia
  4. Hyponatremia
  5. Plumbism

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Potassium level would be elevated in diabetic acidosis.
2. A serum potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia.
3. A serum sodium level less than 135 mEq/L would indicate hyponatremia.
4. Plumbism refers to lead poisoning.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Analysis

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following laboratory values is in the normal range for a woman?
  2. Hemoglobin, 10 g/dL; hematocrit, 46%
  3. Hemoglobin, 12 g/dL; hematocrit, 36%
  4. Hemoglobin, 17 g/dL; hematocrit, 48%
  5. Hemoglobin, 19 g/dL; hematocrit, 58%

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. The normal hemoglobin level for women is 12 to 16 grams/dL; the normal hematocrit level for women is 36% to 46%.
2. The normal hemoglobin level for women is 12 to 16 grams/dL; the normal hematocrit level for women is 36% to 46%.
3. The normal hemoglobin level for women is 12 to 16 grams/dL; the normal hematocrit level for women is 36% to 46%.
4. The normal hemoglobin level for women is 12 to 16 grams/dL; the normal hematocrit level for women is 36% to 46%.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Analysis

 

 

 

  1. After teaching a client about good sources of potassium, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the client states that which of the following is a good source?
  2. Cantaloupe
  3. Bananas
  4. Salmon
  5. Winter squash

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Cantaloupe is a good source of potassium.
2. Bananas are a good source of potassium.
3. Salmon is a good source of calcium, not potassium.
4. Winter squash is a good source of potassium.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Analysis

 

 

  1. Enlargement of the thyroid gland through which the body attempts to increase production of thyroid hormone is referred to as which of the following:
  2. Goiter
  3. Hypercalcemia
  4. Hyperkalemia
  5. Plumbism

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Goiter refers to an enlargement of the thyroid gland due to a lack of sufficient iodine intake.
2. Hypercalcemia refers to an increase in the serum level of calcium.
3. Hyperkalemia refers to an increase in the serum level of potassium.
4. Plumbism refers to lead poisoning.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. A nurse assesses for a sign of low levels of ionized calcium in the blood by tapping in front of the ear. The nurse is assessing which of the following?
  2. Chvostek’s sign
  3. Patellar reflex
  4. Tinel’s sign
  5. Trousseau’s sign

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. In Chvostek’s sign, a tap over the facial nerve in front of the ear causes a twitch of the facial muscles on that side. This indicates tetany.
2. The patellar or knee-jerk reflex is evaluated with a reflex hammer in the area below the kneecap.
3. Tinel’s sign evaluates for carpal tunnel syndrome.
4. In Trousseau’s sign, inflation of the blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for 3 minutes causes ischemia of the peripheral nerves, increasing their excitability. This indicates tetany.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. In the United States, ______ is the most common cause of accidental pediatric poisoning deaths in children under age 6 years.
  2. Calcium
  3. Fluoride
  4. Iron
  5. Zinc

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. In the United States, iron is the most common cause of accidental pediatric poisoning deaths in children younger than the age of 6 years.
2. In the United States, iron is the most common cause of accidental pediatric poisoning deaths in children younger than the age of 6 years.
3. In the United States, iron is the most common cause of accidental pediatric poisoning deaths in children younger than the age of 6 years.
4. In the United States, iron is the most common cause of accidental pediatric poisoning deaths in children younger than the age of 6 years.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. A client is diagnosed with hemosiderosis. The nurse understands that this is an accumulation of which of the following in the tissues, especially the liver and spleen?
  2. Cobalt
  3. Copper
  4. Iron
  5. Zinc

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Surplus iron is stored in the liver as hemosiderin. When large amounts of hemosiderin are deposited in the liver and spleen without tissue damage, a condition called hemosiderosis results.
2. Surplus iron is stored in the liver as hemosiderin. When large amounts of hemosiderin are deposited in the liver and spleen without tissue damage, a condition called hemosiderosis results.
3. Surplus iron is stored in the liver as hemosiderin. When large amounts of hemosiderin are deposited in the liver and spleen without tissue damage, a condition called hemosiderosis results.
4. Surplus iron is stored in the liver as hemosiderin. When large amounts of hemosiderin are deposited in the liver and spleen without tissue damage, a condition called hemosiderosis results.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. Associated with milk and cream treatments for gastric ulcers in the past, milk-alkali syndrome now has been reported in which of the following situations?
  2. Consuming large amounts of protein foods
  3. Overindulging in caffeine-containing soft drinks
  4. Ingesting calcium carbonate tablets to prevent osteoporosis
  5. Restricting fluid intake to 1000 mL/day

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. The recent resurgence in cases is attributed to the use of calcium carbonate to prevent or treat osteoporosis and hyperphosphatemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. It is not related to increased protein intake.
2. The recent resurgence in cases is attributed to the use of calcium carbonate to prevent or treat osteoporosis and hyperphosphatemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. It is not associated with overindulgence with caffeine-containing soft drinks.
3. The recent resurgence in cases is attributed to the use of calcium carbonate to prevent or treat osteoporosis and hyperphosphatemia in clients with chronic kidney disease.
4. The recent resurgence in cases is attributed to the use of calcium carbonate to prevent or treat osteoporosis and hyperphosphatemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. It is not associated with fluid restriction.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. To help a client increase absorption of iron, which of the following beverages should be encouraged?
  2. Coffee
  3. Cocoa
  4. Orange juice
  5. Peppermint tea

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Iron absorption is increased in an acid environment. Coffee does not provide an acid environment.
2. Iron absorption is increased in an acid environment. Cocoa does not provide an acid environment.
3. Iron absorption is increased in an acid environment. Orange juice provides such an environment.
4. Iron absorption is increased in an acid environment. Peppermint tea does not provide an acid environment.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. A nurse is assessing an individual with chromium toxicity. Which of the following would the nurse most likely assess?
  2. Nausea and vomiting
  3. Metallic taste sensation
  4. Weight gain
  5. Craving for sugar and sweet foods

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Nausea and vomiting are not associated with chromium toxicity.
2. A disagreeable metallic taste is characteristic of chromium toxicity.
3. Weight gain is not associated with chromium toxicity.
4. Craving for sugar and sweets is not associated with chromium toxicity.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. The nurse cautions a client about using supplemental zinc based on the understanding that this mineral can interfere with absorption of which of the following minerals?
  2. Copper and iron
  3. Sodium and potassium
  4. Calcium and phosphorus
  5. Iodine and fluoride

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. High intakes of zinc can interfere with iron and copper absorption.
2. High intakes of zinc can interfere with iron and copper absorption. It does not affect sodium or potassium.
3. High intakes of zinc can interfere with iron and copper absorption. It does not affect calcium and phosphorus.
4. High intakes of zinc can interfere with iron and copper absorption. It does not affect iodine and fluoride.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Application

Chapter 11: Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence

 

 

 

  1. Caution is urged in feeding infants the following foods because of the chance of provoking allergy:
  2. Broccoli, cabbage, and cauliflower
  3. Eggs, milk, and wheat
  4. Grapefruit, strawberries, and tomatoes
  5. Peanuts, tuna, and veal

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. The most common food allergies for children include eggs, milk, peanuts, soybeans, and wheat.
2. The most common food allergies for children include eggs, milk, peanuts, soybeans, and wheat.
3. The most common food allergies for children include eggs, milk, peanuts, soybeans, and wheat.
4. The most common food allergies for children include eggs, milk, peanuts, soybeans, and wheat.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following are not recommended for infants younger than 1 year old?
  2. Bananas, strained fruits, and strained turkey
  3. Egg white, honey, and nuts
  4. Egg yolk, oatmeal, and rice cereal
  5. Prune juice, sweet potatoes, and tomatoes

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Bite-sized pieces of banana would be allowed around 10 months of age; strained fruits are given around 6 or 7 months of age; strained meats are given around 7 or 8 months of age.
2. Egg whites because of potential allergy, honey because of the risk for botulism, and nuts because of potential allergy should be given only after an infant is 1 year of age.
3. Egg yolk may be given at 10 months; oatmeal may be given after 4 months of age and the infant has been offered rice cereal first; rice cereal is the first cereal given to infants, at around 4 months of age.
4. Stained fruits and juices may be given to an infant before age 1 year.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. An infant is expected to ______ its birth weight by 1 year of age.
  2. Double
  3. Triple
  4. Quadruple
  5. Quintuple

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. An infant’s birth weight is expected to double by 4 to 6 months of age and triple by 1 year.
2. An infant’s birth weight is expected to double by 4 to 6 months of age and triple by 1 year.
3. An infant’s birth weight is expected to double by 4 to 6 months of age and triple by 1 year.
4. An infant’s birth weight is expected to double by 4 to 6 months of age and triple by 1 year.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Feeding an infant when he or she is hungry will help the infant achieve the developmental task of:
  2. Identity
  3. Integrity
  4. Intimacy
  5. Trust

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. The developmental task of infancy is trust.
2. The developmental task of infancy is trust.
3. The developmental task of infancy is trust.
4. The developmental task of infancy is trust.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a suggested order for introducing new foods to the infant’s diet?
  2. Infant cereal, formula, pureed fruits, strained vegetables, and strained meats
  3. Formula, infant cereal, strained vegetables, strained fruits, and strained meats
  4. Infant fruits, infant cereal, strained meats, strained vegetables, and cow’s milk
  5. Formula, infant cereal, strained fruits, strained meats, and strained vegetables

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. The typical progression of food introduction for an infant is formula, cereal, strained vegetables, strained fruits, and lastly, strained meats.
2. The typical progression of food introduction for an infant is formula, cereal, strained vegetables, strained fruits, and lastly, strained meats.
3. The typical progression of food introduction for an infant is formula, cereal, strained vegetables, strained fruits, and lastly, strained meats.
4. The typical progression of food introduction for an infant is formula, cereal, strained vegetables, strained fruits, and lastly, strained meats.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. The food that most often causes choking accidents in infants is:
  2. Celery
  3. Grapes
  4. Hot dogs
  5. Peanuts

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Celery may be a cause of choking in children, but hot dogs are most often the cause in infants.
2. Grapes are a common cause of choking in 2-year-olds.
3. Hot dogs are the food most often involved in choking incidents with infants
4. Peanuts are a common cause of choking in 2-year-olds.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. The nurse instructs the parents of an infant with diarrhea to see medical intervention for which of the following?
  2. Has more than five stools in 24 hours
  3. Develops a fever of 99°F
  4. Moist mucous membranes
  5. Exhibits decreased urine output.

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. The parents should seek medical intervention if the infant is experiencing high output, including frequent and substantial volumes of diarrhea.
2. The parents should seek medical care if the infant has a fever of 100.4° if less than 3 months of age or greater than 102.2° if the child is aged 3 to 36 months.
3. The parents should seek medical care if the infant shows signs of dehydration, such as dry mucous membranes. Moist mucous membranes suggest adequate hydration.
4. The parents should seek medical care if the infant has decreased urine output, which suggests dehydration.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. A toddler and his or her parents may have conflicts over eating habits, which is characteristic of the toddler’s developmental task of:
  2. Autonomy
  3. Generativity
  4. Intimacy
  5. Trust

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Autonomy or independence is the psychosocial developmental task of the toddler.
2. Autonomy or independence is the psychosocial developmental task of the toddler.
3. Autonomy or independence is the psychosocial developmental task of the toddler.
4. Autonomy or independence is the psychosocial developmental task of the toddler. Trust is the developmental task of infancy.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. By the time a child is 1 year old, his or her stomach capacity is about:
  2. 1 oz
  3. ½ cup
  4. 1 cup
  5. 1½ cups

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. A 1-year-old’s stomach holds just 1 cup, necessitating small servings.
2. A 1-year-old’s stomach holds just 1 cup, necessitating small servings.
3. A 1-year-old’s stomach holds just 1 cup, necessitating small servings.
4. A 1-year-old’s stomach holds just 1 cup, necessitating small servings.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

 

  1. Ms. M is being seen in the well-baby clinic with Tamara, who is 21 months old. Ms. M says Tamara is eating well, mainly pureed junior foods. The nurse will base her teaching on which of the following concepts?
  2. Attempting to feed herself is too difficult at this age for Tamara.
  3. Giving Tamara table foods would be much less expensive for Ms. M.
  4. Processing removes much of the iron in canned foods, so this meal pattern puts Tamara at risk of anemia.
  5. Varying textures is believed to aid speech development.

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. During toddler years, fine motor control improves, which allows toddlers to use eating utensils with more finesse.
2. By 12 months of age, the child should begin to consume table foods prepared according to the child’s ability.
3. Processed foods should be avoided because they are high in fat, sugar, and sodium, not because of the risk for anemia.
4. Varying textures is believed to aid in speech development.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following foods are appropriate for a 6-month-old infant?
  2. Raisin bran cereal, mandarin oranges, and strained veal
  3. Infant rice cereal, strained peaches, and strained carrots
  4. Ritz crackers, strained apricots, and smooth peanut butter
  5. French-fried potatoes, junior-style beets, and chopped hard-cooked eggs

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Raisin bran cereal and mandarin oranges would be inappropriate because of the risk for choking on the raisins or oranges. Strained meats should start around 7 to 8 months of age.
2. Rice cereal, strained fruits and vegetables are appropriate for a 6-month-old infant.
3. Ritz crackers are inappropriate because of the risk for choking; peanut butter should be avoided because of the risk for allergy as well as choking. Strained apricots would be appropriate.
4. French fries pose a choking hazard; junior style beets require teeth and chewing, which a 6-month-old would have difficulty doing; strained or mashed egg yolks should be given at 10 months of age, but egg whites should be delayed until after 1 age 1 year.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about breast milk is true?
  2. It contains white blood cells (WBCs).
  3. It contains no fatty acids.
  4. It contains less phosphorus than cow’s milk.
  5. It contains more sodium.

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Breast milk does contain white blood cells.
2. Breast milk contains arachidonic and docosahexaenoic fatty acids, which are important for central nervous system development.
3. Breast milk contains one-eighth the phosphorus of cow’s milk.
4. Breast milk contains one-third the sodium, potassium, and chloride of cow’s milk.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Knowledge

 

 

  1. Which of the following combinations of foods offers the best nutrition for a preschool child’s breakfast?
  2. Waffles, syrup, and sausage
  3. Fried eggs, bacon, and a sweet roll
  4. Grits, country ham, and biscuits
  5. Orange juice, oatmeal, and milk

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. This choice is not well balanced. Syrup is high in sugar; sausage is high in fat.
2. This choice is not well balanced. Bacon is high in fat; sweet roll is high in sugar. Although eggs are high in protein, frying the eggs adds additional fat.
3. This choice is not well balanced. Country ham is high in sodium; biscuits and grits are carbohydrates.
4. Orange juice provides vitamins and minerals; oatmeal provides carbohydrates; milk provides calcium and protein. This is a more well-balanced choice.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

  1. Whole milk is recommended for children under 2 years of age to ensure adequate nutrients for optimal:
  2. Deposition of fat stores
  3. Immune responses
  4. Neural development
  5. Skeletal growth and maturation

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. To support brain growth and development, 1- to 2-year-old children should continue to drink whole milk.
2. To support brain growth and development, 1- to 2-year-old children should continue to drink whole milk.
3. To support brain growth and development, 1- to 2-year-old children should continue to drink whole milk.
4. To support brain growth and development, 1- to 2-year-old children should continue to drink whole milk.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Infant foods that have been heated and offered to the infant but not eaten in its entirety should be discarded because they may have become:
  2. Contaminated with saliva and bacteria
  3. Rancid from the warming process
  4. Toxic from evaporation of the water contained in them
  5. Unpalatable from the increased concentration of salt that heating promotes

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Food that has been heated and not fully consumed should be discarded because of possible contamination with salivary enzymes and bacteria.
2. Food that has been heated and not fully consumed should be discarded because of possible contamination with salivary enzymes and bacteria.
3. Food that has been heated and not fully consumed should be discarded because of possible contamination with salivary enzymes and bacteria.
4. Food that has been heated and not fully consumed should be discarded because of possible contamination with salivary enzymes and bacteria.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. In contrast to salivary and pancreatic amylases, which are inadequate in the newborn, ______ is available in the saliva to begin digestion.
  2. Chymotrypsin
  3. Lipase
  4. Pepsin
  5. Rennin

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Newborns/infants have lingual lipase to digest fat, an enzyme lacking in adults.
2. Newborns/infants have lingual lipase to digest fat, an enzyme lacking in adults.
3. Newborns/infants have lingual lipase to digest fat, an enzyme lacking in adults.
4. Newborns/infants have lingual lipase to digest fat, an enzyme lacking in adults.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Special care must be taken if formula is warmed in a ______ because it will continue to increase in temperature after removal.
  2. Electric bottle warmer
  3. Conventional oven
  4. Microwave oven
  5. Water bath

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Using a microwave oven for infant foods is not recommended. Heat may be unevenly distributed and continues to build even after the food has been removed from the oven.
2. Using a microwave oven for infant foods is not recommended. Heat may be unevenly distributed and continues to build even after the food has been removed from the oven
3. Using a microwave oven for infant foods is not recommended. Heat may be unevenly distributed and continues to build even after the food has been removed from the oven
4. Using a microwave oven for infant foods is not recommended. Heat may be unevenly distributed and continues to build even after the food has been removed from the oven

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

  1. Breastfeeding infants should be weighed and observed while suckling by a knowledgeable health-care provider at ______ of age.
  2. 24 hours
  3. 2 to 4 days
  4. 1 week
  5. 2 weeks

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. Breastfeeding infants should be weighed and observed while suckling by a knowledgeable health-care provider at 2 to 4 days of age to evaluate for weight loss greater than 10%, which is associated with increased risk of hypernatremic dehydration and hyperbilirubinemia and may lead to the recommendation for formula supplementation.
2. Breastfeeding infants should be weighed and observed while suckling by a knowledgeable health-care provider at 2 to 4 days of age to evaluate for weight loss greater than 10%, which is associated with increased risk of hypernatremic dehydration and hyperbilirubinemia and may lead to the recommendation for formula supplementation.
3. Breastfeeding infants should be weighed and observed while suckling by a knowledgeable health-care provider at 2 to 4 days of age to evaluate for weight loss greater than 10%, which is associated with increased risk of hypernatremic dehydration and hyperbilirubinemia and may lead to the recommendation for formula supplementation.
4. Breastfeeding infants should be weighed and observed while suckling by a knowledgeable health-care provider at 2 to 4 days of age to evaluate for weight loss greater than 10%, which is associated with increased risk of hypernatremic dehydration and hyperbilirubinemia and may lead to the recommendation for formula supplementation.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Although it is not the only source of the organism, honey should not be given to an infant because it might transmit:
  2. Botulism
  3. Escherichia coli infection
  4. Staphylococcal food poisoning
  5. Streptococcal sore throat

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Infants should not be given honey until after their first birthday because honey frequently contains botulism spores acquired from plants or the soil. Up to 25% of honey products have been found to contain spores. Processing the honey does not destroy these spores.
2. Infants should not be given honey until after their first birthday because honey frequently contains botulism spores acquired from plants or the soil. Up to 25% of honey products have been found to contain spores. Processing the honey does not destroy these spores.
3. Infants should not be given honey until after their first birthday because honey frequently contains botulism spores acquired from plants or the soil. Up to 25% of honey products have been found to contain spores. Processing the honey does not destroy these spores.
4. Infants should not be given honey until after their first birthday because honey frequently contains botulism spores acquired from plants or the soil. Up to 25% of honey products have been found to contain spores. Processing the honey does not destroy these spores.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. When teaching a new mother about feeding and her newborn, the nurse keeps in mind that the capacity of a newborn infant’s stomach is approximately how many ounces?
  2. 1/2
  3. 1
  4. 1 1/2
  5. 2

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. A newborn’s stomach has the capacity of approximately 1 ounce.
2. A newborn’s stomach has the capacity of approximately 1 ounce
3. A newborn’s stomach has the capacity of approximately 1 ounce
4. A newborn’s stomach has the capacity of approximately 1 ounce

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Breast milk supplies amylase that is 40 to 60 times more active than that in cow’s milk. This means the breast-fed infant can digest which of the following more easily than can the formula-fed infant?
  2. Fats
  3. Proteins
  4. Carbohydrates
  5. Vitamins

 

Ans: 3

Feedback
1. Breast milk contains amylase that is 40 to 60 times more active than that of cow’s milk, facilitating the digestion of carbohydrates.
2. Breast milk contains amylase that is 40 to 60 times more active than that of cow’s milk, facilitating the digestion of carbohydrates.
3. Breast milk contains amylase that is 40 to 60 times more active than that of cow’s milk, facilitating the digestion of carbohydrates.
4. Breast milk contains amylase that is 40 to 60 times more active than that of cow’s milk, facilitating the digestion of carbohydrates.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Comprehension

 

 

 

  1. Before the age of 4 months, an infant is likely to spit out semisolid foods because of:
  2. An acute sense of taste
  3. An inability to chew
  4. A lack of hand–eye coordination
  5. The up-and-down motion of the tongue when sucking

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. If semisolid food is offered at this time, the natural motion of the tongue tends to spit it out. It is not related to taste.
2. If semisolid food is offered at this time, the natural motion of the tongue tends to spit it out. It is not related to an inability to chew.
3. If semisolid food is offered at this time, the natural motion of the tongue tends to spit it out. It is not due to a lack of hand–eye coordination.
4. If semisolid food is offered at this time, the natural motion of the tongue tends to spit it out.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. New foods should be introduced to an infant:
  2. After breastfeeding or formula feeding
  3. At every feeding for 2 days to help the baby develop a liking for it
  4. In amounts of 1 oz (2 tbsp) per feeding
  5. One at a time and 5 days apart to identify untoward effects

 

Ans: 4

Feedback
1. New foods should be introduced one at a time and a week apart so that if a problem develops, the responsible food can be readily identified. A food should be tried for 3 to 5 days before the infant is permitted to reject it.
2. New foods should be introduced one at a time and a week apart so that if a problem develops, the responsible food can be readily identified. A food should be tried for 3 to 5 days before the infant is permitted to reject it.
3. New foods should be introduced one at a time and a week apart so that if a problem develops, the responsible food can be readily identified. A food should be tried for 3 to 5 days before the infant is permitted to reject it.
4. New foods should be introduced one at a time and a week apart so that if a problem develops, the responsible food can be readily identified. A food should be tried for 3 to 5 days before the infant is permitted to reject it.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | Cognitive Level: Application

Health Promotion and Maintenance

Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning

Cognitive Level: Application

 

 

 

  1. The recommended amount of daily fiber intake for an 8-year-old child is ______ grams.
  2. 8
  3. 13
  4. 16
  5. 20

 

Ans: 2

Feedback
1. The recommended amount of fiber is equal to the child’s age plus 5 beginning at age 2. Thus, an 8-year-old should have 13 grams of fiber.
2. The recommended amount of fiber is equal to the child’s age plus 5 beginning at age 2. Thus, an 8-year-old should have 13 grams of fiber.
3. The recommended amount of fiber is equal to the child’s age plus 5 beginning at age 2. Thus, an 8-year-old should have 13 grams of fiber.
4. The recommended amount of fiber is equal to the child’s age plus 5 beginning at age 2. Thus, an 8-year-old should have 13 grams of fiber.

KEY: Integrated Process: Nursing Process | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Analysis

 

 

 

  1. A nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of school-age children. The nurse emphasizes the need for breakfast based on an understanding that children who skip breakfast:
  2. Consume more high-fat snacks
  3. Have higher daily intakes of micronutrients
  4. Are more likely to meet dietary reference intake standards
  5. Come from higher socioeconomic backgrounds

 

Ans: 1

Feedback
1. Breakfast is essential and should contain one-fourth to one-third of the day’s nutrients. Skipping breakfast has been shown to lead to consumption of higher-fat snacks later in the day, resulting in higher body mass index.
2. Breakfast is essential and should contain one-fourth to one-third of the day’s nutrients. Skipping breakfast has been shown to lead to consumption of higher-fat snacks later in the day, resulting in higher body mass index.
3. Breakfast is essential and should contain one-fourth to one-third of the day’s nutrients. Skipping breakfast has been shown to lead to consumption of higher-fat snacks later in the day, resulting in higher body mass index.
4. Breakfast is essential and should contain one-fourth to one-third of the day’s nutrients. Skipping breakfast has been shown to lead to consumption of higher-fat snacks later in the day, resulting in higher body mass index.

KEY: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning | Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance | Cognitive Level: Comprehension