Nutrition Essentials for Nursing Practice 6th Edition by Susan G. Dudek – Test Bank

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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

Nutrition Essentials for Nursing Practice 6th Edition by Susan G. Dudek – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

1. Protein is different from carbohydrates and fat because it contains what?
A) Hydrogen
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Calcium

 

 

2. One classification of amino acids is essential amino acids. Essential amino acids are what?
A) The only amino acids necessary for growth and tissue maintenance
B) Amino acids that must be consumed in the diet
C) Amino acids that are found only in animal products and soy
D) Amino acids that are more important than nonessential amino acids

 

 

3. Proteins are considered either complete proteins or incomplete proteins. What is one source of complete protein?
A) Gelatin
B) Soy
C) Kidney beans
D) Peanut butter

 

 

4. You are admitting a healthy adult woman to the outpatient surgery department for the removal of a plantar wart. She weighs 70 kg. What is her recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for protein?
A) 35 g
B) 42 g
C) 56 g
D) 70 g

 

 

5. You are the clinic nurse teaching newly diagnosed type II diabetics about nutritional diets. One of the subjects you will cover is how to figure out the recommended daily allowance for protein in a healthy adult. An exercise you give your class is to calculate your RDA for protein based on the weight of 75 kg. What would your RDA for protein be?
A) 30 g
B) 45 g
C) 60 g
D) 75 g

 

 

6. Your nutrition class is learning about the relationship between protein and nitrogen. The assignment you give the class is to calculate how many grams of nitrogen are provided by 80 grams of protein. The answer is to be expressed in whole grams. What is the correct answer?
A) 13 g
B) 20 g
C) 26 g
D) 40 g

 

 

7. The body needs an adequate supply of energy to prevent its protein being burned for energy. To prevent the burning of protein, termed protein sparing, what does the body need an adequate supply of?
A) Glucose
B) Fat
C) Carbohydrate
D) Carbohydrate and fat

 

 

8. Which of the “MyPyramid” food groups contains only small amounts of protein?
A) Bread, Cereal, Rice, and Pasta group
B) Fruit group
C) Milk, Yogurt, and Cheese group
D) Meat, Poultry, Fish, Dry Beans, Eggs, and Nuts group

 

 

9. Protein digestion is a complex process. The principal site of protein digestion is where?
A) Mouth
B) Stomach
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine

 

 

10. Protein must be broken down into smaller substances before the body can fully use it. For the body to absorb protein, it must first be broken down into what?
A) Polypeptides
B) Proteases
C) Amino acids
D) Glucose

 

 

11. Each of us has a specific energy need for our body to function optimally. Once this energy need is met what will our body do with any excess protein consumed?
A) Store it unchanged as protein
B) Convert it to fat and store it
C) Excrete it unchanged in the urine
D) Convert it to urea and excrete it in the feces

 

 

12. Many people throughout the world are practicing vegetarians. Those who are pure vegans are at risk for nutritional deficiencies because they do not eat natural food sources of specific nutrients. One problem with a pure vegan diet is that it does not include any natural food sources of what?
A) Iron
B) Zinc
C) Vitamin B12
D) Calcium

 

 

13. Nitrogen balance in specific groups of people can be of concern. What is the state of nitrogen balance in infants, children, adolescents, and pregnant and lactating women?
A) Neutral nitrogen balance
B) Positive nitrogen balance
C) Negative nitrogen balance
D) Metabolic turnover

 

 

14. There are several types of vegetarian diets including a lacto-vegetarian diet. What is it that lacto-vegetarians do not eat?
A) Cheese
B) Margarine
C) Eggs
D) Nuts

 

 

15. Determining nitrogen balance in the clinical setting can be very valuable. To determine a patient’s state of nitrogen balance, a 24-hour urinary urea nitrogen collection is done. What do you also need to do?
A) Calculate the patient’s total calorie intake for that same day
B) Add a coefficient of 4 to that number to account for nitrogen lost in feces, hair, nails, and skin
C) Collect a 24-hour stool specimen on that same day to determine fecal nitrogen losses
D) Be sure that patient takes nothing by mouth on the day of the urine collection

 

 

16. Complementary proteins are made by combining two protein sources to make a complete protein. What is an example of a complementary protein?
A) Black beans and kidney beans
B) Strawberry milkshake
C) Butterscotch pudding
D) Macaroni and cheese

 

 

17. You are teaching a nutrition class at the local high school. Your subject for today is “Dietary Supplements and Caloric Intake.” One of the class activities you assign is to answer the following question: “An amino acid supplement that provides 15 g of protein and no other nutrients provides how many calories?” What is the correct answer?
A) 0 calories, because the amino acids are in pill form
B) 30 cal.
C) 60 cal.
D) 90 cal.

 

 

18. It is necessary to restrict protein intake in clients diagnosed with certain disease processes, such as clients in renal failure who are unable to excrete nitrogenous wastes. What other disease process necessitates a protein-restricted diet?
A) Pancreatitis
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Severe liver disease
D) Diabetes mellitus

 

 

19. Vegetarians do not always have adequate diets. Clinicians need to encourage vegetarians to do what?
A) Eat meat
B) Eat adequate calories
C) Take amino acid supplements
D) Eat complementary proteins at every meal

 

 

20. Protein can be used by the body for fuel when what occurs?
A) Complete proteins are consistently ingested
B) When there are inadequate stores of iron in the body
C) When the RDA for B vitamins is met
D) When there is inadequate intake of calories

 

 

21. Proteins have many different functions in the body. What determines a protein’s function?
A) The quality of the protein
B) The amino acids contained in the protein
C) The completeness of the protein
D) The shape of a protein

 

 

22. Amino acids, the building blocks of proteins, have the ability to act as buffers in the body. This means that proteins can maintain normal blood pH. By maintaining normal blood pH, the body’s proteins are protected from being what?
A) Neutralized
B) Naturalized
C) Deneutralized
D) Denatured

 

 

23. The ability of the body to digest protein occurs at different levels depending on the source of the protein. What is the approximate protein digestibility for soy and legumes?
A) 85%
B) 90%
C) 95%
D) 100%

 

 

24. The body does not truly store protein. It does, however, maintain recycled amino acids from broken-down body proteins. What is this called?
A) Metabolic store
B) Protein turnover
C) Amino acid store
D) Metabolic pool

 

 

25. You are admitting a client onto your unit with a diagnosis of marasmus, or protein-energy malnutrion (PEM). This diagnosis is most likely secondary to what?
A) A chronic disease
B) A recent trauma
C) The influence of affluence
D) The quality of the protein in their diet

 

 

26. An 18-month-old victim of a car accident is being admitted to the pediatric ICU. In reviewing the orders for this client, you expect to see diet orders that provide what kind of nutritional therapy?
A) Aggressive
B) Slow and sure
C) Protein restrictive
D) Protein delayed

 

 

27. What is the term used for practicing vegetarians who choose to occasionally eat meat, fish, or poultry products?
A) Vegans
B) Flexitarians
C) Semi-vegetarians
D) Lacto-ovovegetarian

 

 

28. The range for protein for adults as recommended by The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range for protein is what percentage of total calories?
A) 25% to 50%
B) 20% to 45%
C) 15% to 40%
D) 10% to 35%

 

 

29. You are caring for a client status 1 day post-colon resection with anastomosis. Your client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place, putting him on NPO status. You know that this places your client in what state?
A) Protein-energy malnutrition
B) Negative nitrogen balance
C) Marasmus
D) Neutral nitrogen balance

 

 

30. Using protein for energy is not an efficient use of the protein ingested. When 30% of the protein of the body is lost through catabolism what occurs? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Organ function is altered.
B) Body weight is lost.
C) A fluid and electrolyte balance is maintained.
D) Immune function is altered.
E) Breathing becomes impaired due to a loss of muscle strength.

 

 

1. Vitamins are organic compounds that differ in function and availability. What statement best describes vitamins?
A) Vitamins are composed of long chains of molecules linked together.
B) Vitamins provide energy.
C) Vitamins are susceptible to destruction by factors such as heat, air, and light.
D) Vitamins exist in only one active form.

 

 

2. Vitamin deficiency in the United States is not common. However, inadequate gastric acid secretion secondary to gastric resection, use of medications that suppress gastric acid, or gastric infection with Helicobacter pylori is the most common cause of:
A) Thiamine deficiency
B) Riboflavin deficiency
C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
D) Folic acid deficiency

 

 

3. Consistently high doses of many vitamins have no adverse effects. However, consistently high doses of folate do what?
A) Mask a deficiency of vitamin B12
B) Can cause a temporary sensory neuropathy
C) May increase the risk of heart disease
D) Increase the need for other B vitamins

 

 

4. It is not always necessary for people to take a vitamin supplement. Who is least likely to need a vitamin supplement?
A) A moderately active adult
B) A pregnant teenager
C) An elderly woman living alone
D) A housewife on a low-calorie diet

 

 

5. One difference between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins is that fat-soluble vitamins:
A) Must be consumed daily
B) Are absorbed directly into the bloodstream
C) Are excreted in the urine when consumed in excess of need
D) Are stored primarily in the liver and adipose tissue

 

 

6. There are differences between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins. What is one of these differences?
A) Water-soluble vitamins are more essential to life than fat-soluble vitamins.
B) Water-soluble vitamins attach to protein carriers to be transported through the blood.
C) Water-soluble vitamins should be consumed daily.
D) Water-soluble vitamins are stored primarily in the liver and adipose tissue.

 

 

7. Vitamin D synthesis can be impaired by all of the following except what?
A) Low calcium intake
B) Sunscreens
C) Aging
D) Dense clouds

 

 

8. You are the clinic nurse doing patient education for a patient who is taking anticoagulants. What is one thing you should stress to this patient?
A) They should avoid all sources of vitamin D.
B) They should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin D.
C) They should avoid all sources of vitamin K.
D) They should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K.

 

 

9. If you were told to eat more vitamin E, what would you want to eat more of?
A) Fortified milk
B) Egg yolks
C) Vegetable oils
D) Red meat

 

 

10. Patients who need to be on antibiotics for a prolonged period of time may be at an increased risk of vitamin K deficiency. Why is this?
A) Antibiotics impair vitamin K absorption from foods.
B) Antibiotics kill intestinal bacteria that produce vitamin K.
C) Antibiotics cause loss of appetite, which lowers vitamin K intake.
D) Antibiotics inactivate vitamin K in the liver.

 

 

11. Beta-carotene is found in what food?
A) Citrus juice
B) Egg yolks
C) Vegetable oils
D) Winter squash

 

 

12. It is recommended that people over the age of 50 take vitamin supplements. But it is important they take the proper type of supplement, namely “50+” or “Mature” multivitamin supplement formulas because they usually contain what?
A) Less iron
B) More zinc
C) Less vitamin B12
D) More calcium

 

 

13. Which of the following statements about vitamins is true?
A) Most Americans do not consume adequate amounts of thiamine, riboflavin, and niacin.
B) Most Americans do not consume adequate amounts of vitamin C.
C) Taking large doses of vitamin A is potentially harmful.
D) Because of the potential health benefits, beta-carotene supplements are routinely recommended.

 

 

14. Particular populations are prone to vitamin deficiencies for various reasons. Why are older adults are prone to vitamin D deficiency?
A) Aging reduces the kidneys’ ability to produce vitamin D.
B) They are more likely to take prescription medicines that interfere with vitamin D absorption.
C) Their fixed incomes interfere with buying foods rich in vitamin D.
D) They excrete more vitamin D than younger adults do.

 

 

15. Your physician has recommended that you take a vitamin supplement. What would you look for when choosing a vitamin supplement?
A) Look for USP on the label.
B) Look for the nutrient’s recommended daily allowance (RDA).
C) Choose the highest price supplement.
D) Choose a supplement that is “natural.”

 

 

16. There is one vitamin that is used in megadoses to lower serum cholesterol. Which vitamin is it?
A) Thiamine
B) Riboflavin
C) Niacin
D) Folic acid

 

 

17. Smoking interferes with the body’s use of a specific vitamin, so the RDA for this vitamin has been raised for smokers. Which vitamin is this?
A) Vitamin C
B) Folate
C) Beta-carotene
D) Vitamin E

 

 

18. It has been proven that folate, when consumed in an adequate amount, may help prevent neural tube defects. When is it necessary to consume the folate to have this effect?
A) Before conception and early in pregnancy
B) During the second trimester of pregnancy
C) During the third trimester of pregnancy
D) Throughout pregnancy

 

 

19. You are teaching a nutrition class to a group of pregnant women in the community. What would you recommend to your students as a good source of vitamin B12?
A) Milk
B) Green leafy vegetables
C) Vegetable oils
D) Peanut butter

 

 

20. What is the approximate percentage of American adults who take vitamin supplements based on their beliefs about health?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%

 

 

21. Vitamins can exist in more than one form and have more than one function. Which of the following vitamins exist in more than one form?
A) Vitamin B12
B) Thiamine
C) Riboflavin
D) Vitamin A

 

 

22. There are many enzymes in our body that cannot function without a coenzyme. Which vitamins act as coenzymes?
A) B vitamins
B) Vitamin C
C) No vitamins act as coenzymes
D) All vitamins act as coenzymes

 

 

23. When do vitamins act as drugs in the body?
A) When they are prescribed by a physician
B) When they are taken in megadoses
C) When they are taken in combination with other vitamins
D) When they are taken in minidoses

 

 

24. Free radicals destroy cells in our body. Some vitamins act as antioxidants to prevent the destruction of cells by free radicals. Which vitamin is a major antioxidant?
A) Vitamin B6
B) Thiamine
C) Folate
D) Vitamin C

 

 

25. What substance is a coenzyme and is considered a non-B vitamin?
A) Choline
B) Isoniazid
C) Beta-carotene
D) Niacin

 

 

26. Vitamins are often used as food additives for specific purposes. Which vitamin is added to frozen fish to help prevent rancidity?
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin E
C) Vitamin A
D) Vitamin B12

 

 

27. Vitamins can be either fat-soluble or water-soluble. Their solubility determines many of their characteristics. What is one characteristic that is determined by a vitamin’s solubility?
A) Availability
B) Storage
C) Strength
D) Function

 

 

28. Thiamin acts as a coenzyme when the body metabolizes carbohydrates. It also has another important function. What is that other function?
A) Thiamin is important in the metabolism of fats.
B) Thiamin is important in the digestive process.
C) Thiamin is important in liver functioning.
D) Thiamin is important in nervous system functioning.

 

 

29. Riboflavin is said to be unique among the water-soluble vitamins. What makes riboflavin unique?
A) Meats and beans contribute the most riboflavin to the diet.
B) Milk and dairy products contribute the most riboflavin to the diet.
C) Meats and beans contribute the least riboflavin to the diet.
D) Milk and dairy products contribute the least riboflavin to the diet.

 

 

30. Which vitamins work together to inactivate bacteria and viruses?
A) Water-soluble vitamins
B) B vitamins
C) Phytochemicals
D) Fat-soluble vitamins

 

 

1. A person who takes in too many calories on a consistent basis is in what?
A) A negative caloric balance
B) A positive energy balance
C) A negative energy balance
D) A positive caloric balance

 

 

2. If there is insufficient intake for the energy needs of the body, then the body is in what?
A) A negative energy balance
B) A positive energy balance
C) A negative calorie balance
D) A positive caloric balance

 

 

3. Calories come from the foods we eat and the liquids we drink. How many calories/gram are there in carbohydrates?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10

 

 

4. Stephanie, a 14-year-old, is in the clinic for a routine check-up. Her mother mentions that she cannot get Stephanie to eat. Records indicate that Stephanie has lost 15 pounds in the last 3 months. While doing a history you elicit data showing that Stephanie has put herself on a starvation diet in an effort to lose weight and “look cool.” You decide to do a skin-fold measurement on Stephanie. What would you expect to find?
A) Stephanie has lost more lean muscle than body fat.
B) Stephanie’s body is storing lean muscle mass.
C) Stephanie’s body is conserving protein.
D) Stephanie’s basal energy expenditure has increased.

 

 

5. You are teaching a high-school health class on diet and exercise. Which of the following statements could you truthfully make?
A) As the intensity of activity increases, the proportion of energy used increases.
B) As the duration of activity increases, the proportion of fat used decreases.
C) Physically fit people use more energy and store more fat.
D) During the first 1 to 2 minutes of exercise, stored fat is the primary fuel.

 

 

6. You are admitting a new client to your unit. She is 17 years old and weighs 120 pounds. What is her basal metabolic rate (BMR) using the rule-of-thumb guideline?
A) 600
B) 900
C) 1,200
D) 1,800

 

 

7. You are admitting a healthy, 25-year-old male to your unit for outpatient knee surgery. During your nutrition assessment, you determine that he weighs 78.2 kg. Using the rule-of-thumb guideline for calculating BMR, what is the approximate BMR of a 78.2-kg man?
A) 860
B) 1,720
C) 1,892
D) 2,580

 

 

8. When the body breaks down adipose tissue to use as energy, how many calories does the body get from 1 gram of fat?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 9
D) 11

 

 

9. During ketosis the body is breaking down stored energy for fuel. This puts the body in what?
A) A positive energy balance
B) A positive calorie balance
C) A negative energy balance
D) A negative calorie balance

 

 

10. You are teaching a nutrition class and your subject for today is the basal metabolic rate (BMR). What percentage range would you tell your students the BMR accounts for in the total energy requirements for most people?
A) 10% to 20%
B) 25% to 50%
C) 60% to 70%
D) 75% to 80%

 

 

11. Our bodies are very adaptable. Once the body perceives that starvation is occurring what does it use as its primary energy source?
A) Adipose tissue
B) Lean muscle mass
C) Organ tissue
D) It no longer produces energy

 

 

12. At rest, the body uses energy that is included in the basic metabolic rate (BMR). What is the BMR?
A) The caloric cost of day-to-day activities
B) The caloric cost of mild activity
C) The caloric cost of staying alive
D) The caloric cost of studying

 

 

13. When a person exercises 30 minutes or more a day at a moderate level they will:
A) Prevent acute disease episodes
B) Reduce the risk of chronic disease
C) Lose weight
D) Become more flexible

 

 

14. You are beginning an exercise program for health benefits and to aid in preventing weight gain. How many minutes per day would you plan on performing moderate-intensity physical activity to meet the recommended number of minutes?
A) 20 minutes a day
B) 30 minutes a day
C) 60 minutes a day
D) 120 minutes a day

 

 

15. You are teaching your nutrition class how to estimate the total number of calories expended by a person per day according to the rule-of-thumb formula. What is the estimated total calorie expenditure for a 160-pound man who does little activity?
A) 1,920
B) 2,112
C) 2,288
D) 3,220

 

 

16. Regular physical activity has many health benefits. What is one of these benefits?
A) Lowered blood pressure
B) Increased stiffness related to osteoarthritis
C) Raised metabolism
D) Reduced falls in the elderly

 

 

17. You are speaking to an exercise class when one of the participants asks, “Why should I do strength training?” What would you answer this participant?
A) In strength training, warm-up and cool-down periods are not required.
B) Strength training gives you a really good body.
C) Strength training improves bone density.
D) Strength training decreases the metabolic rate.

 

 

18. You are the school nurse who is counseling a 15-year-old who is mildly overweight. You answer questions about diet and exercise for this teen. You know that the teen understands what you are telling him when the teen states, “Moderate-intensity exercises performed for longer than 30 minutes/day are recommended to reduce my risk of”?
A) Breaking a bone
B) Pulling a muscle
C) Chronic disease
D) Acute disease

 

 

19. You are at the clinic for a routine check-up. You ask the nurse how much time you would have to devote to an exercise program to lose some weight. What is the best answer the nurse could give?
A) You just need to increase the intensity of the activity you are already doing.
B) You should exercise 60 or more minutes each day and adjust your diet to lose weight.
C) You need to increase energy expenditure by 2,500 or more calories per week.
D) You should reduce daily calorie intake by 350 calories per day to lose a pound a week.

 

 

20. What type of exercise is known to raise the metabolic rate?
A) Intense aerobic exercise
B) Low-impact aerobic exercise
C) Flexibility exercise
D) Resistance exercise

 

 

21. If you engage in moderate- to vigorous-intensity activity on most days, how many approximate calories will you burn in a week?
A) 1,500
B) 1,750
C) 2,100
D) 2,500

 

 

22. You are a public health nurse working with the activity coordinator at the local senior center. The two of you are planning an exercise class for the senior citizens in the community. What kind of exercises should you be sure to include in your program to improve the flexibility of the seniors?
A) Low-impact aerobic exercises
B) Resistance exercises
C) High-impact aerobic exercises
D) Stretching exercises

 

 

23. What type of exercise raises the metabolic rate?
A) Low-impact aerobic exercise
B) Resistance exercise
C) High-impact aerobic exercise
D) Flexibility exercise

 

 

24. You are counseling a young female adult who needs approximately 2,000 cal/day to maintain her weight. She would like to lose a few pounds and asks what she would need to limit her intake to if she wanted to lose a pound a week. What would you respond?
A) 1,000 cal/day
B) 1,500 cal/day
C) 1,600 cal/day
D) 1,800 cal/day

 

 

25. The caloric cost of digesting, absorbing, and metabolizing food is called what?
A) The thermic effect
B) The metabolic effect
C) The basal metabolic rate
D) The resting metabolic rate

 

 

26. Traditional height/weight calculations to determine “ideal” body weight have now been replaced by what?
A) Body mass index
B) Basal metabolic rate
C) Desirable weight chart
D) Kilogram/meter calculations

 

 

27. A man who weighs 75 kilograms and is 6′ 6″ tall would have a body mass index of approximately what?
A) 17
B) 19
C) 21
D) 25

 

 

28. A woman who weighs 130 pounds is 5′ 5″ tall. What is her body mass index (BMI)?
A) 15
B) 17
C) 19
D) 21

 

 

29. What is a drawback to using body mass index to determine obesity?
A) It is nonthreatening.
B) It does not take body composition into account.
C) It requires minimal equipment to obtain.
D) It doe not take diet into account.

 

 

30. What measurement can be used to assess body composition?
A) Skinfold measurements
B) Body mass index
C) Basal metabolic rate
D) Bioelectrical conductivity measurements

 

 

31. People who store a disproportionate amount of body fat in the abdomen are at increased risk for what?
A) Cardiopulmonary disease
B) Type I diabetes
C) Hypolipidemia
D) Hypertension

 

 

32. The placement of body fat may be a more reliable indicator of what than the degree of total body fatness?
A) Obesity
B) Disease risk
C) Chronic disease process
D) Body composition

 

 

33. Making the decision to lower calorie intake requires a 2-pronged approach. What is one of them?
A) Increasing activity level
B) Eating more carbohydrates
C) Eating less sweets
D) Eating more grains and breads

 

 

34. What is the term used to describe the American love affair with “super-sized” portions?
A) Portion distortion
B) Portion identity
C) Increased appetite
D) Increased hunger

 

 

35. People with the following comorbidity are at very high risk related to overweight and obesity:
A) Hypotension
B) Type I diabetes
C) Hypercholesterolemia
D) Sleep apnea

 

 

1. A student in your nutrition class is reporting on the availability of nutrition information. According to the student’s report where do most Americans get their information on nutrition?
A) Internet
B) Doctors
C) Friends and family
D) News media

 

 

2. You are teaching a nutrition class at the Bariatric Clinic. A client asks about the health claim of a specific diet pill she saw advertised. You discuss health claims and how to evaluate them. What is a sign that a health claim is credible?
A) Prepayment is not required
B) Claims to be “scientifically proven”
C) Uses words like “all-natural”
D) Claims of a quick fix and effective cure-all

 

 

3. While discussing the Nutrition Facts Label with a community Diet and Nutrition class, you talk about the percent daily value. What is the percent daily value (%DV) listed on the Nutrition Facts label based on?
A) Percentage of carbohydrate, protein, and fat
B) 2,000-calorie diet
C) 150-pound person
D) Serving size of 1 cup

 

 

4. Mrs. T is learning to read the Nutrition Facts Label when shopping for food. Information that appears on the Nutrition Label is specific for what?
A) Size eaten
B) Size listed
C) A person requiring 1,800 calories per day
D) A person requiring 2,500 calories per day

 

 

5. While learning about the Nutrition Facts Label Mrs. T sees the term “very low” on a food label. What does this mean?
A) The product contains virtually none of the specified nutrient.
B) The product has one-third fewer calories than a comparable product.
C) It refers to sodium only.
D) It refers to meat or poultry products with less than 10 g of fat.

 

 

6. Your nutrition class is learning about food supplements. You know that several people in the class need more instruction on how food supplements are regulated by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) when you hear them discussing what?
A) How the FDA regulates dietary supplements as herbs
B) How the FDA regulates dietary supplements as drugs
C) How the FDA regulates dietary supplements as foods
D) How the FDA regulates dietary supplements as over-the-counter medications

 

 

7. You are the clinic nurse doing patient teaching regarding dietary supplements with a high-school athlete. Your patient teaching would include what? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Read the dietary supplement label.
B) Do not give supplements to children younger than 6 years of age.
C) Discuss supplement use with your doctor.
D) Obtain a prescription from your doctor for the supplement.
E) Be sure and take the supplement with any prescribed medication.

 

 

8. During a discussion on diet and nutrition at a local Junior League meeting, you are asked for tips on retaining the nutrient value of foods. What would be your best answer?
A) Cut produce into small pieces.
B) Keep produce at room temperature.
C) Do not thaw frozen vegetables before cooking.
D) Peel and pare vegetables before cooking.

 

 

9. You have been asked to speak on “Nutrition in the Foods We Eat” at a local town meeting. During your presentation, you explain about functional foods. Which foods would you describe as natural functional foods? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Raspberry tea
B) Tomatoes
C) Yogurt
D) Garlic
E) Strawberry jelly

 

 

10. While discussing functional foods with a group of nursing students you are asked to describe what functional foods are. What would be your best response?
A) Functional foods are those that are nutritionally complete.
B) Functional foods are those that have components that appear to enhance health or prevent disease.
C) Functional foods are those that treat specific health concerns.
D) Functional foods are those that have been altered to produce medicinal benefits.

 

 

11. Since functional foods appear to enhance health or prevent disease, which natural functional food may help to support normal heart function?
A) Yogurt
B) Green tea
C) Garlic
D) Purple grape juice

 

 

12. You are teaching a class on nutrition in the local nursing program. While discussing organically grown foods, you mention that these foods are produced with what?
A) Little or no synthetic fertilizers
B) Antibiotic additives
C) Manufactured chemicals
D) Artificial hormones

 

 

13. To be awarded the USDA Organic seal a food must adhere to strict national standards. What criterion must organic labeling meet?
A) Criterion that define the 4 official organic categories
B) Criterion that define the 3 official organic categories
C) Criterion that define the 2 official organic categories
D) Criterion that define the 1 official organic category

 

 

14. Foodborne illnesses affect thousands of people every year. What is the major cause of foodborne illnesses?
A) Keeping foods at room temperature
B) Unsanitary food handling
C) Undercooking
D) Obtaining food from outdoor food vendors

 

 

15. You are the triage nurse at the local emergency department (ED). A client who arrives at the ED complaining of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain says he attended a clambake about 36 hours ago. What would you suspect?
A) Norwalk virus
B) Listeriosis
C) Botulism
D) Perfringens food poisoning

 

 

16. A client comes into the clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. In reviewing the chart, you notice that this client had been into the clinic 3 weeks ago. At that time, the client was treated for a foodborne illness. Which of the following foodborne illnesses may result in arthritic symptoms 3 to 4 weeks after the onset of the acute illness?
A) Shigellosis
B) Listeriosis
C) Salmonellosis
D) Botulism

 

 

17. You are writing a pamphlet for your local public health department. The topic of the pamphlet is preventing foodborne illnesses. What information would you want to include in your pamphlet about keeping foods safe? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Clean
B) Separate
C) Warm
D) Cook
E) Package

 

 

18. The genetic engineering of our food supply has produced positive and varied results. Which foods available in American supermarkets are most likely to have genetically engineered ingredients?
A) Soybean oil, cottonseed oil, and corn syrup
B) Fortified wheat and oats
C) Tomatoes and corn oil
D) Milk and dairy products

 

 

19. While explaining the irradiation of food to your nutrition class, you give your students a list of foods allowed to be irradiated in the United States. Which of the following foods would you expect to find on this list?
A) Wheat flour
B) Sweet potatoes
C) Canola oil
D) Jelly

 

 

20. The process of irradiating food enhances food safety. What statement is true about the process of irradiating food?
A) Irradiation does not use heat.
B) Irradiation decreases the shelf life of a product.
C) Irradiation hides spoilage.
D) Irradiation eliminates the need for safe food handling.

 

 

21. Nutrition information can be confusing because misinformation through the media is as prevalent as information. What do surveys show may be true for many people?
A) Eating behaviors may be at odds with nutrition knowledge and beliefs.
B) Eating behaviors are based on factual information.
C) Eating behaviors reflect the patient’s culture.
D) Eating behaviors support the patient’s beliefs.

 

 

22. You are the nurse admitting a 21-year-old athletic male to the day surgery unit where you work. While doing the admission assessment, you ask about diet and nutrition. The client tells you he takes a dietary supplement. What further questions should you ask? (Mark all that apply.)
A) What is the cost of the supplement?
B) What kind of supplement does he take?
C) What is the dosage of the supplement?
D) How often does he take the supplement?
E) Who is the manufacturer of the supplement?

 

 

23. A supplement taken by many Americans to aid in lowering serum cholesterol levels is garlic. It has a potential herb–drug interaction with what?
A) Anticoagulants and nonsteroidal antiinflammatories
B) Oral contraceptives and digitalis
C) Vitamin E supplements
D) Antidepressants

 

 

24. You are providing patient education for a client going home on a cardiac diet. The client voices concern about the nutritional value of the foods they are supposed to eat. To help retain the nutritional value of vegetables, what would you teach the patient?
A) Thaw frozen vegetables before cooking
B) Deep-fry, steam, microwave, or bake vegetables
C) Cook to the mushy stage of doneness
D) Cook only as many vegetables as are needed

 

 

25. You have given your nutrition class an assignment to list and designate the most common foodborne illnesses and their symptoms. What symptoms would you expect to see designated by the students? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Diarrhea
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Fever
D) Stiff neck with headache
E) Dehydration

 

 

26. You are doing nutrition counseling for a 21-year-old woman in the clinic area and discussing the credibility of information reported in the media. What would be a red flag to a consumer when getting information from a media report?
A) Failure to identify how much or little of a food should be eaten
B) How often to eat the food
C) Failure to identify a broader population than was actually studied
D) Identifying the size of the effect

 

 

27. You are discussing nutrition labels with a high-school health class. What would be an important fact to discuss about the ingredient list?
A) Ingredients are listed in descending order by amount.
B) Ingredients are listed in descending order by weight.
C) Ingredients are listed alphabetically.
D) Ingredients are listed by percentage of calories.

 

 

28. The regulation of dietary supplements falls to the FDA. Because dietary supplements are regulated as food there is a vast difference between the regulation of supplements and the regulation of drugs. What is one major difference?
A) There is scientific proof of an optimum dosage.
B) There is scientific proof of the efficacy of the product.
C) Dosage is standardized among manufacturers.
D) There is no premarket testing to determine maximum safe dosage.

 

 

29. Your client is considering taking dietary supplements. What would be the best advice you could give this client?
A) Be sure to take supplements that complicate each other.
B) Check the FDA website for advisories on supplements to avoid.
C) Be sure to read the manufacturer’s information on the supplement as it is the most factual available.
D) Check any studies cited by the different manufacturers for results that tell you how to use the supplement.

 

 

30. When would an eating plan provide optimal amounts of all nutrients?
A) When the food is fried
B) When there is variety and large portion sizes
C) When the food has been properly stored and cooked
D) When all frozen foods are thawed before cooking

 

 

31. A student in your nutrition class asks why juice is considered a functional food. What would be your best response?
A) Juice has probiotics added.
B) Juice is not considered a functional food.
C) Juice has omega-3 fatty acids added.
D) Juice has plant sterols added.

 

 

32. You are discussing organic labeling with your nutrition class when you are asked about the criterion for labeling organic foods. What would be your best response?
A) The criterion for labeling organic foods is based on what natural pesticides are used in the growing of the foods.
B) The criterion for labeling organic foods is based on whether the farm that produces the food has been certified organic.
C) The criterion for labeling organic foods is based on the number of natural fertilizers used to produce the food.
D) The criterion for labeling organic foods is based on whether it defines one of the 4 official organic categories.

 

 

33. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is a slowly progressive, degenerative, fatal disease affecting the central nervous system of adult cattle. It can be transmitted to humans when the infected flesh of cattle is ingested. What is BSE thought to be caused by?
A) Protozoa
B) Prisms
C) Prions
D) Priori

 

 

34. You are debating whether genetically modified food is safe. What would be an argument for the safety of genetically modified food?
A) Genetically modified food has a longer shelf-life and increased freshness.
B) Genetically modified food has potential benefits to relieve world hunger.
C) Genetically modified food has been certified not to pose a health risk.
D) Genetically modified food is used in 70% of the foods eaten by Americans.

 

 

35. The irradiation of food is sometimes referred to as what?
A) Cold pasteurization
B) Heat irradiation
C) Beta-ray sterilization
D) Proton beam irradiation

 

 

1. Nutritional requirements generally go up during pregnancy. Which nutritional requirement proportionally increases the most during pregnancy?
A) Calories
B) Protein
C) Iron
D) Vitamin A

 

 

2. One vitamin has been identified as helping to prevent neural tube defects when consumed in adequate amounts before conception through the early weeks of pregnancy. Which vitamin is it?
A) Vitamin B6
B) Riboflavin
C) Niacin
D) Folic acid

 

 

3. The recommendation is that herbal supplements not be taken during pregnancy or while breastfeeding. Why is that recommendation made?
A) They have the potential of crossing the placental barrier.
B) They can create nutritional deficiencies in the mother and fetus.
C) They are known to cause teratogenic effects in the fetus.
D) They have been proven to cause early labor.

 

 

4. Mrs. M is a 32-year-old female whose prepregnancy weight is considered “normal.” She is carrying a single fetus. What is the recommended amount of total weight gain?
A) 15 to 20 pounds
B) 20 to 25 pounds
C) 25 to 35 pounds
D) 35 to 40 pounds

 

 

5. For a woman who is obese at conception, the recommended total weight gain should be a minimum of what?
A) 12 pounds
B) 15 pounds
C) 18 pounds
D) 20 pounds

 

 

6. Mrs. M is now 20 weeks’ gestation. At conception her weight was considered “normal.” Approximately how much weight should she have gained by this time?
A) 5 pounds
B) 8 pounds
C) 12 pounds
D) 15 pounds

 

 

7. The recommended weight gain during the first trimester for a woman who was in the normal weight range prepregnancy is 2 to 4 pounds. After the first trimester, what is the recommended weekly weight gain for a woman who was considered normal weight prepregnancy?
A) 0.5 pound
B) 0.66 pound
C) Approximately 1 pound
D) 1 to 2 pounds

 

 

8. During pregnancy most nutritional needs can be consumed in adequate amounts through the diet. What nutrient is the exception to this statement?
A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Sodium
D) Vitamin D

 

 

9. Since iron is one nutrient that needs supplementation during pregnancy, what is the recommended dosage for iron during pregnancy?
A) 27 mg/day
B) 35 mg/day
C) 42 mg/day
D) 50 mg/day

 

 

10. The use of what during pregnancy is potentially most harmful to the fetus?
A) Alcohol
B) Caffeine
C) Aspartame
D) Acesulfame-K

 

 

11. Mrs. M is 24 weeks’ pregnant. How much have her daily calorie needs increased over her first-trimester needs?
A) 200 cal.
B) 300 cal.
C) 500 cal.
D) 750 cal.

 

 

12. Mercury occurs naturally in the environment, including waterways. Bacteria in the water convert mercury to methylmercury, which is absorbed by fish low on the food chain and becomes concentrated in larger, longer-living predatory fish at the top of the food chain. What can mercury exposure during pregnancy cause?
A) Brain and neurologic abnormalities in the fetus
B) Stunted fetal growth
C) Fetal malformations
D) Abortion

 

 

13. Nausea and vomiting are common complaints during pregnancy. What nutritional action can be used to lessen nausea and vomiting?
A) Drinking liquids with meals
B) Limiting fat intake
C) Increasing fluid intake
D) Limiting carbohydrate intake

 

 

14. What are the nutritional recommendations for calcium during a normal pregnancy?
A) It should not be changed from prepregnancy intake.
B) It should be 1000 mg per day.
C) It should be higher in the second and third trimesters.
D) It should be higher in the second trimester and lower in the third trimester.

 

 

15. Which pregnant patients are at risk for poor nutritional status? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Teens and women older than 40 years of age.
B) Prepartum weight less than 85% or more than 120% of ideal weight.
C) Weight gain of 2 or more pounds per week.
D) Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
E) Exercise of 30 minutes per day.

 

 

16. Pica is a craving for nonfood items such as laundry starch, clay, or ice. What problem is associated with pica?
A) Excessive weight gain
B) Iron deficiency
C) Lead contamination
D) Diarrhea

 

 

17. Gestational diabetes occurs around the 24th week of gestation. When should every woman be screened for gestational diabetes?
A) Between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation
B) Between 20 and 24 weeks’ gestation
C) Between 24 and 28 weeks’ gestation
D) Between 28 and 32 weeks’ gestation

 

 

18. Most pregnant women are at low risk for nutritional deficiencies because they can meet their daily requirements through diet alone. Folic acid is an exception to this statement and requires what?
A) The ingestion of enhanced foods
B) The ingestion of fortified foods
C) The ingestion of biotech foods
D) The ingestion of reinforced foods

 

 

19. What is the basis to recommend a supplement during pregnancy?
A) A decrease in eye site
B) The stress of pregnancy
C) Individual circumstances
D) Increased nutrient needs during pregnancy

 

 

20. How long does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend exclusive breastfeeding for an infant?
A) The first 2 to 3 months of age
B) The first 3 to 4 months of age
C) The first 4 to 6 months of age
D) The first 6 to 12 months of age

 

 

21. During lactation many of the nutrient values go either up or down. Compared with those of pregnancy, what are the recommended daily allowances during lactation?
A) Lower for calories
B) Lower for protein
C) Higher for calcium
D) Lower for iron

 

 

22. Dietary needs change from pregnancy to lactation. What should breastfeeding mothers be advised?
A) That thirst is not a reliable indicator of need
B) That even if a mother has adequate fat stores, calorie intake should increase
C) That because caffeine does not enter breast milk, its intake does not need to be restricted
D) That if she does not consume enough calcium, her milk will be calcium deficient

 

 

23. Breastfeeding is generally encouraged except under certain conditions. Which conditions contraindicate breastfeeding? (Mark all that apply.)
A) When the mother takes certain medications, such as antineoplastics
B) When the mother uses street drugs
C) When the mother becomes pregnant with another child
D) For multiple births
E) When the mother is a breast cancer survivor

 

 

24. An inadequate maternal diet generally decreases what in the breast milk of a lactating mother?
A) Protein
B) Fat
C) Calcium
D) Vitamins

 

 

25. There are several benefits to breastfeeding for both the mother and the infant. Which of the following statements are true about these benefits? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Breastfeeding may decrease the risk of food allergies in the infant.
B) Breastfeeding may be protective against breast cancer in the mother.
C) Breastfeeding provides reliable contraception.
D) Breastfeeding can mobilize fat stores to help women lose weight, particularly in the lower body.
E) Breastfeeding decreases bone density.

 

 

26. You are doing nutrition counseling for a 21-year-old pregnant woman in the clinic area. What do you explain to the client about caloric intake during the second and third trimesters of her pregnancy?
A) You need approximately 450 calories per day increase during the third trimester.
B) You need approximately 450 calories per day increase during the second trimester.
C) You need approximately 500 calories per day increase during the third trimester.
D) You need approximately 500 calories per day increase during the second trimester.

 

 

27. You are discussing weight gain with a group of pregnant women at the clinic. One woman is very thin and her prepregnancy weight falls below the normal weight range for her height. What is her recommended weight gain during her pregnancy?
A) 40 to 50 pounds
B) 30 to 50 pounds
C) 28 to 40 pounds
D) 20 to 30 pounds

 

 

28. Which lunch menu demonstrates a recommended diet for a pregnant woman?
A) 2-oz prime rib; a medium baked potato with 2 tablespoons of sour cream, 2 tablespoons of butter and 2 oz of grated cheese; 1 cup of creamed corn; 6 oz of green tea;  cup of ice cream
B) 6 pieces of sushi; 2 cups of saki; 4 oz of steamed vegetables
C) 6 oz of swordfish;  cup of Tartar sauce; 2 slices of French bread with  teaspoons of butter each;  cup of sweet peas; 1 4″ slice of apple pie with 1 scoop of vanilla ice cream
D) 3 oz of a tuna-stuffed tomato; 1 small apple; 8 oz of sugar-free orange drink

 

 

29. You are doing client education with an obese woman who is trying to get pregnant. She confides in you that she is on a diet and trying to lose weight. Which of the following would you teach her?
A) Any diet that helps to lose weight should be continued during pregnancy.
B) Weight reduction should not be undertaken during pregnancy.
C) Pregnancy is a safe time to lose weight.
D) Obesity has no impact on pregnancy.

 

 

30. You are discussing with a nutrition class the health risks to infants of women who are overweight at the time of conception. What risks would you talk about with your class?
A) High Apgar score
B) Small-for-gestational age
C) Seizures
D) Hyperglycemia

 

 

31. A common complaint during pregnancy is heartburn. As the clinic nurse, what would you recommend to decrease the discomfort of heartburn?
A) Eat small, frequent meals
B) Drink warm liquids with your meals
C) Eat easily digested carbohydrates
D) Drink liquids immediately before meals

 

 

32. One of the students in your nutrition class is 8 months pregnant and asks you to give her a recommendation to decrease her pregnancy-related constipation. What would be your best response?
A) Drink prune juice with every meal.
B) Eat vitamin-enriched white bread 3 times a day.
C) Eat iron-fortified cereal.
D) Try drinking hot water with lemon juice upon waking.

 

 

33. A 32-year-old client at the clinic asks you why breastfeeding is so highly recommended. What benefit would you name that would affect this client later in life?
A) Breastfeeding is associated with a decreased bone density later in life.
B) Breastfeeding is associated with an increased risk for hip fracture later in life.
C) Breastfeeding is associated with a lower maternal BMI later in life.
D) Breastfeeding is associated with decreased iron stores later in life.

 

 

34. You are doing client teaching for a new breastfeeding mother before she leaves the hospital. The client asks about fluid intake. What would be your best answer?
A) The rule of thumb is to drink at least 10 glasses of fluid in 24 hours.
B) The rule of thumb is to drink a glass of fluid at every meal.
C) The rule of thumb is to drink a glass of fluid every time the baby nurses and at every meal.
D) The rule of thumb is to drink a glass of fluid every 2 hours around the clock.

 

 

35. A group of postpartum women has asked you to speak to them on “Managing Postpartum Weight.” What is one suggestion you can make to help them manage their weight during the postpartum period?
A) Assess your readiness to change.
B) Breastfeed your infants.
C) Do not to worry about your weight; it took 9 months to gain the weight and it will take 9 months to lose it.
D) Get a diet partner to support you.

 

1. The intake of adequate nutrients is a recommendation to reduce the risk of nutrition-related concerns across the lifespan. Obesity impacts quality of life in the elderly. Along with weight reduction, what vitamins are recommended to help with bone health?
A) Vitamin B12
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin B6
D) Vitamin E

 

 

2. Sarcopenia is the loss of muscle mass and strength. It is related to a sedentary lifestyle and less than optimal diet. It is a process that begins in the fourth and fifth decades of life. This loss of muscle mass can be halted or reversed with what?
A) Aerobic exercise
B) Strength-training exercises
C) A high-protein diet
D) A high-protein, high-calorie diet

 

 

3. You are the clinic nurse for an ophthalmologist. For the older adult at risk for cataract formation, what would you advise the patient?
A) Take a supplement with beta-carotene.
B) Take a supplement with vitamin E.
C) Eat more protein.
D) Eat more fruits and vegetables.

 

 

4. Arthritis is a leading cause of functional limitation among older adults. Osteoarthritis (OA) is the most common form of arthritis. What is the greatest known modifiable risk factor of OA of the knee?
A) Nutritional deficiency of folic acid
B) Overweight
C) Moderately inactive lifestyle
D) Inadequate intakes of calcium

 

 

5. It has been established that many people over 50 have low serum levels of vitamin B12. Where is it recommended that older adults get most of their vitamin B12 from?
A) Citrus fruits and juices
B) Red meats
C) Milk and dairy products
D) Fortified cereals or vitamin supplements

 

 

6. Quality-of-life issues are a priority in the elderly, especially in residents of long-term–care facilities. What are the key components in meeting quality-of-life standards among older adults who are residents of long-term–care facilities?
A) Prevention of depression and diabetes
B) Prevention of unintentional weight loss and pressure ulcers
C) Prevention of weight gain and hyperlipidemia
D) Prevention of low albumin and anorexia

 

 

7. Getting enough calcium is important to our elderly population. According to the modified MyPyramid for Older Adults, how many servings from the Milk, Yogurt, and Cheese group should the elderly eat daily?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Six
D) Eight

 

 

8. Nutrition therapy in the elderly has different goals than at other times across the lifespan. What is a primary goal of diet intervention for the elderly?
A) Maintain quality of life
B) Prolong life
C) Prevent the development of complications
D) Treat chronic disease

 

 

9. Dehydration can be a concern in the elderly population. The modified MyPyramid for older adults recommends 8 glasses of water/day. What is the AI for water for a 65-year-old male?
A) 1.7 L/day
B) 2.7 L/day
C) 3.7 L/day
D) 4.7 L/day

 

 

10. Magnesium is one of the nutrients that older adults often do not get enough of. What are recommended sources of magnesium for the elderly?
A) Fruit juice
B) Carrots
C) Yogurt
D) Potatoes

 

 

11. Older adults need adequate protein in their diet. What are the approximate protein needs per day for an older adult weighing 132 pounds (60 kg)?
A) 24 g/day
B) 36 g/day
C) 44 g/day
D) 48 g/day

 

 

12. Osteoarthritis is a disease that predominantly plagues the elderly. What can weight loss do for older people with OA?
A) It has no effect on arthritis symptoms.
B) It aggravates arthritis symptoms.
C) It relieves symptoms in the weight-bearing joints.
D) It relieves symptoms throughout the body.

 

 

13. Calorie needs generally decrease with age, partly due to a decline in physical activity. What are the approximate calorie needs per day for an older adult weighing 132 pounds (60 kg)?
A) 1,200 to 1,500 calories
B) 1,500 to 1,800 calories
C) 1,800 to 2,100 calories
D) 2,100 to 2,400 calories

 

 

14. You are meeting with the wife of a patient who has Alzheimer disease (AD). She is concerned about her husbands’ nutritional status. What could you tell her to watch for that would indicate a possible nutritional problem? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Forgetting he had eaten and eating again.
B) Forgetting which are green vegetables.
C) Forgetting what food group bread is in.
D) Forgetting what time to eat.
E) Forgetting how to shop for food.

 

 

15. For a long-term–care resident, a restrictive diet could decrease the quality of life. When should restrictive diets be used in long-term care–facilities?
A) When a resident has decreased intake and weight loss
B) For hospice care
C) When a significant improvement in health can be expected
D) For 1 week a month

 

 

16. On the modified MyPyramid for Older Adults there is a horizontal row with 8 glasses of water right above the row for physical activity. What does this row of 8 glasses highlight?
A) The need to drink 8 glasses of water daily
B) The need to monitor your fluid intake
C) The importance of adequate fluid
D) The importance of physical exercise

 

 

17. Most recommended levels of intake for vitamins and minerals do not change with aging. An exception to this is the recommended dietary allowances of vitamin D, which are higher in adults over age 50. What causes the body’s need for vitamin D to increase over the age of 50?
A) The ability to absorb calcium, which decreases with age
B) The potential risk for coronary heart disease which uses vitamin D
C) The increased consumption of coffee and tea interferes with vitamin D synthesis
D) The ability to synthesize vitamin D from sunlight, which decreases with age

 

 

18. Over the age of 50 the body needs a higher intake of vitamin D. What is a good source of the vitamin D needed by older adults?
A) Fortified milk
B) Green leafy vegetables
C) Lean red meats
D) Nuts

 

 

19. You are the nurse doing nutritional screening on older adults at a health fair. What would be an important question to ask while you are screening an older person for nutritional risk?
A) About the use of three or more prescribed or over-the-counter daily medications
B) If the person is over 62 years old
C) If they had an unintentional weight loss of 3% or more in 60 days
D) If they are living in a household with more than one older adult member

 

 

20. You have a 71-year-old female client who is obese. She has functional limitations, in part caused by the obesity. You discuss the need to lose weight with this client but she is not receptive to the idea. What is one reason this woman might have for not agreeing with your suggestion to lose weight?
A) The client feels that losing weight can cause a strain on the body.
B) The client feels that she would feel worse if she lost weight.
C) The client does not feel that her weight impedes her functionality.
D) The client does not feel the need to make changes at this point in her life.

 

 

21. You are caring for a client in a long-term–care facility who is 77 years of age and overweight. You are considering putting this client on a low-calorie diet. Some experts recommend that strict therapeutic diets be used in older adults only when a significant improvement in health can be expected. Which elderly clients would a restrictive diet be recommended for?
A) Those with high cholesterol levels
B) Those with high potassium levels
C) Those with ascites
D) Those with mild hypertension

 

 

22. Your 74-year-old client in the nursing home has developed a pressure ulcer on her sacrum. What could be a cause of the development of this ulcer?
A) Inadequate food and fluid intake
B) Turning freely in bed
C) Overhydration
D) Lack of vitamins B and C

 

 

23. You are the nurse caring for a client with pressure ulcers on her buttocks. You know that pressure ulcers may be a symptom of inadequate food and/or fluid intake. While doing the nutrition assessment you would ask what question to see if the client’s food and fluid intake were adequate?
A) Do you eat fewer than 2 meals/day?
B) Do you wear dentures?
C) Do you shop weekly?
D) Do you have a chronic illness?

 

 

24. You are a 65-year-old male. Approximately how much longer can you expect to live?
A) 15.8 years
B) 16.5 years
C) 17.3 years
D) 18.7 years

 

 

25. Alzheimer disease (AD) is devastating to both the client and the family. Clients can become agitated and combative. What do agitated AD clients need more of?
A) Protein
B) Carbohydrates
C) Fat
D) Calories

 

 

26. You are doing client education for a 71-year-old woman who is a resident of a long-term–care facility. Your assessment indicates that she is at a high risk for malnutrition. What is one reason she could give you for this risk of malnutrition?
A) “I eat most of my meals with friends.”
B) “I just don’t have any appetite.”
C) “I take two different medicines every day.”
D) “I chew quite well with my dentures.”

 

 

27. You are teaching a class of aides at a long-term–care facility how to assess and document a client’s nutritional intake. What mandates the documentation of nutritional intake for the residents of long-term–care facilities?
A) Maximum Data Set (MDS)
B) Minimum Data Set (MDS)
C) Regulatory Data Set (RDS)
D) Maximum Regulatory Set (MRS)

 

 

28. Which lunch is best for a healthy 65-year-old who lives independently?
A) 6 oz. of chicken noodle soup; 6 saltine crackers with 2 tablespoons of butter;  C of ice cream; 12 oz. of diet soda.
B) 3 oz. of hamburger; lettuce leaf; tomato slice; 1 slice of onion; 1 oz. of processed cheese; 1 hamburger bun; 6 oz. of French fries; 1 8 oz. of strawberry milkshake.
C) 6 chicken nuggets;  C of ketchup; 4 oz. of applesauce; one 4″ slice of pumpkin pie with whipped cream.
D) 3 oz. of tuna on whole-wheat bread; 1 medium apple; 8 oz. of 2% milk.

 

 

29. The elderly population has a mean intake below the dietary reference intake (DRI) for several nutrients. Which of the following falls into that classification?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Chloride
D) Manganese

 

 

30. You are discussing nutrition and diet for the elderly with a local civic group. One couple asks about the approximate caloric intake for an elderly woman who weighs 125 pounds. What would be your best answer?
A) Approximately 1400 calories/day
B) Approximately 1800 calories/day
C) Approximately 2100 calories/day
D) Approximately 2500 calories/day

 

 

31. Your client has not been eating well since he was admitted to the long-term–care facility where you work. When the Advanced Practice Nurse (APN) comes to the facility to see her clients, you mention your concerns about the nutritional status of this client. The APN notes that one of the client’s orders is for a can of liquid dietary supplement to be given between meals three times daily. What may the client be experiencing as a result of taking this supplement? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Loss of appetite
B) Increased sugar and fat
C) Decreased calcium
D) Taste fatigue
E) Increased hunger

 

 

32. You have given your nutrition class the assignment of creating a list of strategies for enhancing food intake in long-term–care residents. What strategies would you expect to find on this list? (Mark all that apply.)
A) Let residents eat in their rooms.
B) Honor food preferences.
C) Make sure the diet is heart healthy.
D) Involve the family in mealtime.
E) Encourage independence in eating

 

 

33. You are lecturing to a class of nursing students about nutrition in the elderly. You give the students an assignment to plan a healthy diet for a 68-year-old based on the Modified MyPyramid for Older Adults. Which of the following would be the best breakfast?
A) 2 fried eggs; 2 pieces of white toast with 3 teaspoons of butter; 2 pieces of bacon; and 8 oz. of orange juice
B) 2 pieces of French toast;  cup of maple syrup; and 6 oz. of grape juice
C) 1 cup of oatmeal; 8 oz. of 2% milk; and 1 piece of wheat toast with 1 teaspoon of butter
D) 1 pkg. of toaster pastries; and 1 glass of apple juice

 

 

34. You are discussing with your nutrition class which dietary supplements older adults need to take. Which supplement is needed by older adults?
A) Vitamin B6
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin D
D) Niacin

 

 

35. The children of a sedentary 90-year-old ask you how to combat malnutrition in their parent. What would be the best response to this question?
A) Make meal time as enjoyable as possible.
B) Feed the parent only heart-healthy food.
C) Give the parent a liquid dietary supplement twice a day.
D) Feed the parent before the rest of the family.