Principles of Anatomy & Physiology 14th edition by Gerard J Tortora – Test Bank

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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

Principles of Anatomy & Physiology 14th edition by Gerard J Tortora – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

Package Title: Testbank

Course Title: pap14

Chapter Number: 05

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Another name for the subcutaneous layer is

 

  1. a) Dermis
  2. b) Epidermis
  3. c) Stratum corneum
  4. d) Stratum basale
  5. e) Hypodermis

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

2) Which layer of the skin is composed of a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

 

  1. a) Epidermis
  2. b) Dermis
  3. c) Hypodermis
  4. d) Subcutaneous layer
  5. e) Corpuscle

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

3) Keratin

 

  1. a) is a protein.
  2. b) is secreted by plasma cells to help protect the body from viruses.
  3. c) is made by melanocytes only.
  4. d) is both a protein and made by melanocytes only.
  5. e) All of these choices are correct.

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

4) Which pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin is capable of absorbing ultraviolet light?

 

  1. a) Keratin
  2. b) Melanin
  3. c) Melatonin
  4. d) Carotene
  5. e) Collagen

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

5) Which epidermal cell has a role in immunity and disease resistance?

 

  1. a) Intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhans cells)
  2. b) Keratinocytes
  3. c) Melanocytes
  4. d) Tactile epithelial cells (Merkel cells)
  5. e) Podocytes

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

6) Which layer of the epidermis is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes?

 

  1. a) Stratum basale
  2. b) Stratum spinosum
  3. c) Stratum granulosum
  4. d) Stratum lucidum
  5. e) Stratum corneum

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

7) Which layer of the epidermis contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are going through apoptosis?

 

  1. a) Stratum basale
  2. b) Stratum spinosum
  3. c) Stratum granulosum
  4. d) Stratum lucidum
  5. e) Stratum corneum

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

8) The stratum lucidum

 

  1. a) contains lamellar granules.
  2. b) lies just above the stratum basale.
  3. c) is the layer used in a skin graft.
  4. d) is present only in thick skin.
  5. e) can consist of up to 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes.

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

9) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus, which is the thickening of the _____ of the epidermis.

 

  1. a) stratum basale
  2. b) stratum spinosum
  3. c) stratum granulosum
  4. d) stratum lucidum
  5. e) stratum corneum

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

10) The process of keratinization involves

 

  1. a) synthesizing new pigment in the skin.
  2. b) cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.
  3. c) changes occurring in thin skin only.
  4. d) both synthesizing new pigment in the skin and cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.
  5. e) none of these answer choices are correct.

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

11) Which layer of the skin is composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue containing collagen and elastic fibers?

 

  1. a) Hypodermis
  2. b) Basement membrane
  3. c) Epidermis
  4. d) Dermis
  5. e) Subcutaneous (subQ) layer

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

12) Describe how fingerprints are formed and what they are used for.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

Solution: epidermal ridges develop during the third or fourth fetal month as the epidermis conforms to the contours of the underlying dermal papillae of the papillary region. The ridges increase the surface area of the epidermis and thus increase the grip of the hand or foot by increasing friction. Because the ducts of sweat glands open on the tops of the epidermal ridges as sweat pores, the sweat and ridges form fingerprints upon touching a smooth object. The epidermal ridge pattern is genetically determined and is unique for each individual allowing these patterns to be used to identify individuals.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

13) Albinism is the inherited inability to produce

 

  1. a) melanin.
  2. b) carotene.
  3. c) both melanin and carotene.
  4. d) keratin.
  5. e) creatinine.

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

14) Characteristics of thick skin include:

 

  1. a) Found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips.
  2. b) Does not contain hair follicles.
  3. c) Contains more sweat glands than thin skin.
  4. d) Contain epidermal ridges.
  5. e) All of these choices are correct

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin

 

 

15) Which of the following structures found in the skin plays an important role in thermoregulation?

 

  1. a) Tactile epithelial cells (Merkel cells)
  2. b) Sebaceous glands
  3. c) Sweat glands
  4. d) Nails
  5. e) Fingerprints

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1:  LO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin

 

 

16) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?

 

  1. a) Arrector pili
  2. b) Lunula
  3. c) Sweat glands
  4. d) Hair follicles
  5. e) Oil glands

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

17) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Study Objective 3: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

Section Reference 2: Sec5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin

Solution: Arrector pili are smooth muscles that extend from the superficial dermis of the skin to the dermal root sheath around the side of the hair follicle. In its normal position, hair emerges at an angle to the surface of the skin. Under physiological or emotional stress, such as cold or fright, autonomic nerve endings stimulate the arrector pili muscle to contract, which pulls the hair shafts perpendicular to the skin surface. This action causes “goose bumps” because the skin around the shaft forms slight elevations.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

18) This is fine non-pigmented hair that covers the body of the fetus.

 

  1. a) Alopecia
  2. b) Vellus
  3. c) Lanugo
  4. d) Papilla
  5. e) Lunula

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

19) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle.

 

  1. a) Sebaceous gland
  2. b) Sudoriferous gland
  3. c) Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland
  4. d) None of these answers are correct

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

20) Which of the following is a mixture of triglycerides, cholesterol, proteins and inorganic salts?

 

  1. a) Sweat
  2. b) Lanugo
  3. c) Vellus
  4. d) Sebum
  5. e) Mucus

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

21) Which type of exocrine gland is a simple, coiled tubular gland that is found throughout almost the entirety of the skin?

 

  1. a) Sebaceous gland
  2. b) Eccrine sweat gland
  3. c) Apocrine sweat gland
  4. d) Ceruminous gland
  5. e) None of these answer choices are correct.

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

22) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin

Solution: The functions of the skin include: 1) Thermoregulation: The skin thermoregulates in response to increased temperature by secreting sweat onto its surface and then increasing blood flow to the surface leading to cooling of the blood. In response to low temperatures, production of sweat is decreased and blood flow is diverted from surface to conserve heat. 2) The skin contains 8-10% of the blood and thus serves as a blood reservoir. 3) The skin covers the body and provides protection using keratin, lipids, secretions like oil and sweat, and immunological defenses. 4) The skin can detect and respond to cutaneous sensations. 5) The skin helps in excretion and absorption. 6) The skin also can synthesize vitamin D.

 

 

23) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

Solution: In response to an epidermal injury, basal cells of the epidermis surrounding the wound break contact with the basement membrane. The cells then enlarge and migrate across the wound. The cells appear to migrate as a sheet. When epidermal cells encounter each other they stop migrating due to contact inhibition. Migration of the epidermal cells stops completely when each is finally in contact with other epidermal cells on all sides. Epidermal growth factor is also secreted to stimulate the basal stem cells to divide and replace the ones that have moved into the wound. Epidermal cell division eventually regenerates the strata of the epidermis.

 

 

24) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

Solution: In deep wound healing, a blood clot forms during the inflammatory response and loosely unites the wound edges. Then in the migratory phase the clot becomes a scab and epithelial cells migrate beneath the scab to bridge the wound. Fibroblasts migrate along fibrin threads and begin synthesizing scar tissue and damaged blood vessels begin to regrow. During this phase, the tissue filling the wound is called granulation tissue. The proliferative phase is characterized by extensive growth of epithelial cells beneath the scab, deposition by fibroblasts of collagen fibers in random patterns, and continued growth of blood vessels. During the maturation phase, the scab sloughs off once the epidermis has been restored to normal thickness. Collagen fibers become more organized, fibroblasts decrease in number and blood vessels are restored to normal.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

25) In which type of scar does the scar tissue extend beyond the boundary of the injury into normal tissue?

 

  1. a) Hypertrophic scar
  2. b) Keloid scar
  3. c) Proliferative scar
  4. d) Inhibitory scar
  5. e) Granuloma

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

 

 

26) In the diagram of skin shown below, where is the sebaceous gland?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) D
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) H

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

27) In the diagram of skin shown below, where is the apocrine sweat gland?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) D
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) H

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

28) In the diagram of skin shown below, which labeled structure generates fingerprints?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) None of these answer choices are correct.

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

29) In the diagram of skin shown below, where is the reticular region of the dermis?

 

 

  1. a) E
  2. b) F
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) A

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

30) In the diagram of skin shown below, where is the arrector pili muscle?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) D
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

31) In the photomicrograph of a portion of thick skin shown below, which layer is the stratum spinosum?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of the skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

32) In the photomicrograph of a portion of thick skin shown below, which layer is only seen in thick skin?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of the skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

33) In the photomicrograph of a portion of thick skin shown below, which layer is the stratum basale?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) D
  4. d) E
  5. e) F

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of the skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

34) In the diagram of a hair root shown, where is the cortex?

 

 

  1. a) B
  2. b) C
  3. c) D
  4. d) E
  5. e) F

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

35) In the diagram of a hair root shown, where is the dermal root sheath?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) D
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

36) In the diagram of a hair root shown, where is the cuticle of the hair?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

37) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown, where is the eponychium (cuticle)?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

38) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown, where is the hyponychium (nail bed)?

 

 

  1. a) B
  2. b) C
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

39) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown below, where is the nail root?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) C
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

40) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown below, where is the nail matrix?

 

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) C
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

41) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown, where is the lunula?

 

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

42) Which of the following best describes the events occurring at point B in the diagram of deep wound healing shown below?

 

 

  1. a) Blood clot is forming.
  2. b) New collagen fibers are forming.
  3. c) Damaged blood vessels are being repaired.
  4. d) Epithelium is migrating across wound.
  5. e) Scar tissue is forming.

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

 

 

43) Which of the labeled cells in the diagram of deep wound healing shown below has phagocytic properties?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) E
  3. c) F
  4. d) All of these answer choices are correct.
  5. e) Both E and F

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

 

 

44) Which of the following best describes the events occurring at point A in the diagram of deep wound healing shown below?

 

 

  1. a) Blood clot is forming.
  2. b) New collagen fibers are forming.
  3. c) Damaged blood vessels are being repaired.
  4. d) Epithelium is migrating across wound.
  5. e) Scar tissue is forming.

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

45) Describe the structural characteristics of the epidermis that contribute to its ability to protect the surface of an animal.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

Solution: Multiple layers of cells in stratified squamous epithelium help resist friction. Keratin of intermediate filaments provides strength to tissue by binding cells tightly together and to underlying tissue, thus creating a barrier to microbes. Lamellar granules of keratinocytes produce a lipid rich, water repellent (sealant) to protect from dehydration and entry of foreign materials. Melanin, produced by melanocytes, protects underlying tissue from UV light. Sebum secreted onto the surface helps protect from dehydration and microbial invasion. Intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhans cells) participate in immune response to microbial invasion.

 

 

46) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin

Solution: Thick skin is found on palms, palmar surfaces of digits, and soles, while thin skin is found in all other areas. Thick skin is 4-5× thicker than thin skin. The stratum lucidum is present exclusively in thick skin. Also, the stratum spinosum and stratum corneum are thicker in thick skin. Thick skin exhibits epidermal ridges, more sweat glands and a higher density of sensory receptors. Thin skin has hair follicles and sebaceous glands, while thick skin does not.

 

 

47) John has just been brought into the emergency room following a fiery explosion at a chemical plant. He is diagnosed with third degree burns over the anterior surfaces of his arms and trunk. What specific structural damage has occurred to his skin? What risks to John’s life have resulted from this damage?

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

Solution: John has lost approximately 27% of his skin’s surface area (according to the Rule of Nines), which leads to severe systemic effects. The epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous layer and associated structures have been destroyed. Sensory function is lost. Loss of epidermis (and so, lost keratin and Langerhans cells) makes John susceptible to microbial invasion. Loss of keratinized structures and lamellar granules allows for extreme loss of water, plasma, and plasma proteins, which causes shock; leading to dehydration, reduced blood volume and circulation, decreased urine output and diminished immune responses.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

48) Which structure is an eccrine sweat gland?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) F
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin

 

 

49) Which structures are dermal papillae?

 

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) F
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin

 

 

50) The corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle) would be found in which region of the skin shown in the figure?

 

 

  1. a) B
  2. b) D
  3. c) E
  4. d) J
  5. e) None of these answer choices are correct.

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin

 

 

51) Which letter is pointing to the subcutaneous layer of the skin in the figure?

 

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) E
  3. c) B
  4. d) J
  5. e) I

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

52) Which structure in the figure is a receptor sensitive to pressure?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) G
  3. c) F
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin

 

 

53) Which structures in the figure are sensitive to warmth, coolness and itching?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) G
  3. c) F
  4. d) H
  5. e) J

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin

 

 

54) Which structure in the figure detects touch sensations?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) G

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin

 

 

55) Which structure in the figure produces a protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues from heat, microbes and chemicals?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation o body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

Section Reference 2: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin

 

 

56) Which structure in the figure produces a pigment that contributes to skin color and absorbs UV radiation?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) G

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation o body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin

 

 

57) In the diagram, which layer is the stratum granulosum?

 

 

  1. a) E
  2. b) F
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Learning Objective 2: 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

58) In the diagram, which layer is the stratum corneum?

 

 

  1. a) E
  2. b) F
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Learning Objective 2: 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

59) In the diagram, which is the hair matrix?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) G

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

60) In the diagram, which is a melanocyte?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

61) In the diagram, which is the papilla of the hair?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) C
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

62) Which condition is due to a buildup of bilirubin pigment in the skin?

 

  1. a) hirsutism
  2. b) pallor
  3. c) jaundice
  4. d) androgenic alopecia
  5. e) erythema

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

63) Which of the following terms refers to paleness of the skin such as seen in patients with shock or anemia?

 

  1. a) hirsutism
  2. b) pallor
  3. c) jaundice
  4. d) androgenic alopecia
  5. e) erythema

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

64) Which condition results from androgens inhibiting hair growth in genetically predisposed adults?

 

  1. a) hirsutism
  2. b) pallor
  3. c) jaundice
  4. d) male-pattern baldness
  5. e) erythema

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

65) Which of the following terms refers to an inflammation of the skin characterized by patches of redness, blistering, and extreme itching?

 

  1. a) papule
  2. b) laceration
  3. c) keratosis
  4. d) frostbite
  5. e) eczema

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System

 

 

66) Which of the following terms refers to a hardened and thickened area of skin resulting from persistent pressure and friction?

 

  1. a) callus
  2. b) blister
  3. c) wart
  4. d) papule
  5. e) fever blister

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System

 

 

67) Which of the following terms refers to an irregular tear of the skin?

 

  1. a) abrasion
  2. b) papule
  3. c) keloid
  4. d) laceration
  5. e) cyst

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System

 

 

68) Which of the following terms refers to reddened, elevated, and itchy patches of skin commonly caused by emotional stress, physical trauma, or certain food allergies?

 

  1. a) wart
  2. b) hives
  3. c) papule
  4. d) cyst
  5. e) eczema

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System

 

 

70) You stepped on a nail. List the sequential layers (or strata) of the epidermis that the nail penetrated through to finally reach the dermis.

 

  1. a) basale, spinosum, granulosom, corneum
  2. b) granulosom, spinosum, lucidum, corneum, basale
  3. c) corneum, lucidum, granulosom, spinosum, basale
  4. d) corneum, granulosom, spinosum, basale
  5. e) corneum, granulosom, lucidum, spinosum, basale

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

71) Which of the following is NOT a homeostatic contribution of skin?

 

  1. a) Help provide calcium ions needed for muscle contraction
  2. b) Provide sensory input to the brain
  3. c) Help activate vitamin B
  4. d) Help activate vitamins D
  5. e) Thermoregulation

 

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.8 Describe how the integumentary system contributes to homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis: The Integumentary System.

 

 

72) “Goose bumps” are caused by

 

  1. a) action of arrector pili muscles.
  2. b) secretions from the sudoriferous glands.
  3. c) contraction of dermal papillae.
  4. d) stimulation of hair root plexus.
  5. e) secretions from the sebaceous gland.

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

73) Describe the structure and function of the different types of exocrine glands found in the skin

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

Solution: Sebaceous glands are oil glands. They are connected to hair follicles (with few exceptions). The secreting portion lies in the dermis and opens into the neck of a hair follicle. They are absent in the palms and soles. The secretory product of sebaceous gland is known as sebum. Sebum prevents the hair from drying and becoming brittle. Sudoriferous glands are sweat glands. They release sweat into hair follicles or onto the skin surface through pores. There are two types of sweat glands: Eccrine and Apocrine. Eccrine sweat glands are distributed throughout the skin including the palm and the soles. The sweat produced by these glands contains water, ions, urea, uric acid, ammonia, amino acids, glucose and lactic acid. The main function of eccrine glands is to regulate body temperature. Apocrine sweat glands are predominantly found in the skin of the axilla, groin, areolae and the bearded region of the face. The sweat produced by apocrine glands is lightly viscous and appears milky or yellowish in color. They contain similar type of material found in eccrine glands with an addition of lipids and proteins. Upon interaction with bacteria on the surface of the skin, the components are metabolized causing the distinct body odor. Ceruminous glands are modified sweat glands found in the external ear. They produce the ear wax knows as cerumen which is a combined secretion of ceruminous and sebaceous glands.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

74) Which of the following chemicals does NOT contribute to the color of human skin?

 

  1. a) carotene
  2. b) hemoglobin
  3. c) pheomelanin
  4. d) eumelanin
  5. e) melatonin

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

 

 

75) From which of the primary germ layers of the embryo does the epidermis of the skin develop?

 

  1. a) Endoderm
  2. b) Ectoderm
  3. c) Mesoderm
  4. d) All of these choices are correct.
  5. e) Both endoderm and ectoderm.

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the development of and the effects of aging on the integumentary system.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.6.1 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Development of the Integumentary System

 

Package Title: Testbank

Course Title: pap14

Chapter Number: 07

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) The branch of medicine that deals with correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system is called

 

  1. a) Rheumatics
  2. b) Podiatry
  3. c) Orthopedics
  4. d) Cardiology
  5. e) Dermatology

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System

 

 

2) Which of the following statements is NOT true?

 

  1. a) The axial skeleton has 80 bones.
  2. b) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones.
  3. c) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body.
  4. d) Children have more bones than adults.
  5. e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System

 

 

3) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?

 

  1. a) Hyoid
  2. b) Ribs
  3. c) Vertebrae
  4. d) Carpals
  5. e) Sternum

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System

 

 

4) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?

 

  1. a) Tarsals
  2. b) Tibia
  3. c) Sphenoid
  4. d) Scapula
  5. e) Clavicle

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

5) Briefly describe the five categories of bones found in the human body based on the shape of the bones.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones

Solution: The human body contains five types of bones based on shape. Long bones have greater length than width and consist of a shaft and a variable number of extremities. Short bones are somewhat cube-shaped because they are nearly equal in length and width. Flat bones are generally thin and composed of two nearly parallel plates of compact bones tissue enclosing a layer of spongy bone tissue. Irregular bones have complex shapes and cannot be grouped into any of the previous categories. Sesamoid bones develop in certain tendons where there is considerable friction, tension and physical stress and are shaped similarly to a sesame seed.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

6) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone?

 

  1. a) Long bone
  2. b) Short bone
  3. c) Flat bone
  4. d) Irregular bone
  5. e) Sesamoid bone

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones

 

 

7) Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone?

 

  1. a) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels.
  2. b) They provide sites of attachment for muscles.
  3. c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen.
  4. d) They help form joints.
  5. e) They can be depressions or projections.

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings

 

 

8) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called a

 

  1. a) fissure.
  2. b) foramen.
  3. c) fossa.
  4. d) meatus.
  5. e) sulcus.

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings

 

 

9) A rounded articular projection supported on a constricted portion (neck) of a bone is called a

 

  1. a) foramen.
  2. b) condyle.
  3. c) tuberosity.
  4. d) head.
  5. e) trochanter.

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings

 

 

10) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a

 

  1. a) crest.
  2. b) trochanter.
  3. c) sulcus.
  4. d) fossa.
  5. e) tubercle.

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings

 

 

11) Bones in the following area protect the brain.

 

  1. a) Cranium
  2. b) Vertebral column
  3. c) Sacrum
  4. d) Face
  5. e) Ribcage

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

12) Which of following facial bones is a single (unpaired) bone in the human skull?

 

  1. a) maxilla
  2. b) nasal
  3. c) lacrimal
  4. d) mandible
  5. e) zygomatic

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

13) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?

 

  1. a) Parietal
  2. b) Nasal
  3. c) Maxillae
  4. d) Zygomatic
  5. e) Palatine

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

14) Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to bones of the skull?

 

  1. a) Some skull bones are covered with a mucous membrane.
  2. b) The only movable bone in the skull is the mandible.
  3. c) The bones of the skull contain foramina but no fissures.
  4. d) The facial bones provide support for the entrance of the digestive system.
  5. e) Some bones of the skull contain sinus cavities.

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

15) Which of the listed cranial bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial floor?

 

  1. a) Frontal
  2. b) Temporal
  3. c) Parietal
  4. d) Occipital
  5. e) Nasal

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

16) Which of the listed cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible?

 

  1. a) Frontal
  2. b) Temporal
  3. c) Parietal
  4. d) Occipital
  5. e) Nasal

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

17) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone?

 

  1. a) Occipital
  2. b) Frontal
  3. c) Ethmoid
  4. d) Nasal
  5. e) Sphenoid

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

18) Which cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones and contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve?

 

  1. a) Ethmoid
  2. b) Frontal
  3. c) Palatine
  4. d) Maxilla
  5. e) Temporal

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

19) Which facial bone articulates with teeth?

 

  1. a) Lacrimal
  2. b) Palatine
  3. c) Vomer
  4. d) Maxillae
  5. e) Nasal

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

20) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?

 

  1. a) Vomer
  2. b) Palatine
  3. c) Lacrimal
  4. d) Occipital
  5. e) Mandible

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

21) Briefly describe the bones that make up the orbit of the eye. Include a description of the portion of the orbit formed by each bone.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.3 Identify the location and surface features of the frontal bone.

Study Objective 4: SO 7.4.7 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Study Objective 5: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, interior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Solution: Parts of the frontal and sphenoid bones comprise the roof of the orbit. Parts of the zygomatic and sphenoid bones form the lateral wall of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, zygomatic and palatine bones make up the floor of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones form the medial wall of the orbit.

 

 

22) Briefly describe the location of the four most prominent sutures of the skull including the articulating bones.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Solution: The coronal suture unites the frontal bone and both parietal bones. The sagittal suture unites the two parietal bones on the superior midline of the skull. The lambdoid suture unites the two parietal bones to the occipital bone. The squamous sutures unite the parietal and temporal bones on the lateral aspects of the skull.

 

 

23) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Solution: The fontanels are important in allowing flexibility during childbirth and allow brain growth after birth.

 

 

24) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Solution: The sinuses lighten the skull and contain a mucous membrane lining that helps moisten and clean inspired air. The sinus also aid in enhancing the quality of the voice by acting as resonating chambers

 

 

25) Briefly describe the six fontanels of the infant skull including their location, shape and time of closure.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective 1: 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Learning Objective 2: 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Solution: The unpaired anterior fontanel is located at the midline between the two parietal bones and the frontal bone. It is roughly diamond shaped and is the largest fontanel. It usually closes 18–24 months after birth. The unpaired posterior fontanel is located at the midline between the two parietal bones and the occipital bone. It is smaller than the anterior fontanel and closes about 2 months after birth. The paired anterolateral fontanels are located laterally between the frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones and are smaller in shape. They close about 3 months after birth. The paired posterolateral fontanels are located laterally between the parietal, occipital and temporal bones and are irregularly shaped. They begin to close 1 to 2 months after birth, but closure is not complete until 12 months.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

26) Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone?

 

  1. a) Vertebrae
  2. b) Ethmoid
  3. c) Sternum
  4. d) Hyoid
  5. e) Ilium

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bon to the skull.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Hyoid Bone

 

 

 

27) The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _____ of the temporal bone.

 

  1. a) mastoid process
  2. b) styloid process
  3. c) occipital condyle
  4. d) zygomatic process
  5. e) superior nuchal line

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Hyoid Bone

 

 

28) Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death?

 

  1. a) Natural causes
  2. b) Cardiac arrest
  3. c) Gun shot
  4. d) Strangulation
  5. e) Choking

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Hyoid Bone

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

29) List and describe the number of bones found in all the regions of the adult vertebral column.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column

Solution: There are seven cervical vertebrae in the neck region. There are twelve thoracic vertebrae posterior to the thoracic cavity. The five lumbar vertebrae support the lower back. There is one sacrum consisting of five fused sacral vertebrae. There is one coccyx (tail bone) consisting of four fused coccygeal vertebrae.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

30) Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called

 

  1. a) floating ribs.
  2. b) vertebrochondral ribs.
  3. c) false ribs.
  4. d) true ribs.
  5. e) separated ribs.

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.7 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.7.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.M Thoracic Bones—Ribs

 

 

31) The tubercle found on the neck of a rib articulates with a facet found on the

 

  1. a) spinous process of a thoracic vertebra.
  2. b) spinous process of a lumbar vertebra.
  3. c) transverse process of a thoracic vertebra.
  4. d) xiphoid process of the sternum.
  5. e) manubrium of the sternum.

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 1:LO 7.7 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column, describing its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.7.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.M Thoracic Bones—Ribs

 

 

32) What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs?

 

  1. a) To compress the vertebral bones
  2. b) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column
  3. c) Calcium storage
  4. d) Spinal fluid reservoir
  5. e) Muscle attachment

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column

 

 

33) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the

 

  1. a) thoracic and sacral curves.
  2. b) lumbar and sacral curves.
  3. c) cervical and lumbar curves.
  4. d) cervical and thoracic curves.
  5. e) cervical and sacral curves.

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column

 

 

34) What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?

 

  1. a) Primary projection
  2. b) Occular process
  3. c) Odontoid process
  4. d) Cervical projection
  5. e) Cervix

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.H Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae

 

 

35) Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans?

 

  1. a) C5
  2. b) L4
  3. c) T4
  4. d) C7
  5. e) T12

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.5 Identify the location and surface features of the lumbar vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.J Vertebral Regions-Lumbar Vertebrae

 

 

36) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly?

 

  1. a) Females
  2. b) Males
  3. c) Both genders
  4. d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.K Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae

 

 

37) What is inflammation of one or more costal cartilage called?

 

  1. a) Costochondritis
  2. b) Arthritis
  3. c) Cartilaginous distension
  4. d) Otitis
  5. e) Intercostal space distension

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 7.7 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.7.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.M Thoracic Bones—Ribs

 

 

38) In the diagram, which bone is the flat bone?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones

 

 

39) In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones

 

 

40) In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?

 

 

  1. a) E
  2. b) F
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae

 

 

41) In the diagram, which bone articulates with every other bone of the face except the mandible?

 

 

  1. a) F
  2. b) G
  3. c) H
  4. d) I
  5. e) J

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae

 

 

42) In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?

 

 

  1. a) G
  2. b) H
  3. c) I
  4. d) J
  5. e) None of these answer choices are correct.

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae

 

 

43) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?

 

 

  1. a) E
  2. b) B
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.4 Identify the location and surface features of the Parietal bones.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.7 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones—Sphenoid Bone

 

 

44) In the diagram, where is the styloid process?

 

 

  1. a) J
  2. b) K
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.5 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.C Cranial Bones—Temporal Bones

 

 

45) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?

 

 

  1. a) J
  2. b) K
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.5 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.C Cranial Bones—Temporal Bones

 

 

46) In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae, Zygomatic, and Mandible.

 

 

47) In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae, Zygomatic, and Mandible

 

 

48) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) G

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.5 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.C Cranial Bones—Temporal Bones

 

 

49) In the diagram, where is the foramen ovale?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) D
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO7.4.7 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bones.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones—Sphenoid Bone

 

 

50) In the diagram, where is the cribriform plate?

 

 

  1. a) D
  2. b) E
  3. c) F
  4. d) G
  5. e) H

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.8 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone

 

 

51) In the diagram, where is the olfactory foramina?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) D
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.8 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone

 

 

52) In the diagram, where is the crista galli?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) A
  3. c) B
  4. d) E
  5. e) G

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.8 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bones.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone

 

 

53) In the diagram, where is the vomer bone?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) E
  4. d) D
  5. e) C

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.FG Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae.

 

 

54) In the diagram, where is the perpendicular plate?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) E
  5. e) D

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.8 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bones.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Bones—Ethmoid Bone

 

 

55) Where is the mental foramen in the diagram?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) D
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) None of these answer choices are correct.

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the nasal, lacrimal, palantine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae, Zygomatic, and Mandible

 

 

56) This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) Both A and C

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

57) This is largest fontanel in size at birth.

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) Both A and D

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull

 

 

58) Where is the spinous process in the diagram?

 

 

  1. a) B
  2. b) C
  3. c) D
  4. d) E
  5. e) F

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column

 

 

59) Which of the cervical vertebrae contain a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.H Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae

 

 

60) Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Vertebral Column

Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae

 

 

61) Where is the vertebral body?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) D
  3. c) H
  4. d) I
  5. e) J

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.I Vertebral Regions—Thoracic Vertebrae

 

 

62) In the diagram, which part is often broken during CPR due to incorrect positioning of hands?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) D
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 7.7 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.7.2 Identify the location and surface features of the sternum

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.L Thoracic Bones—Sternum

 

 

63) Where is the clavicular notch?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) C
  3. c) D
  4. d) B
  5. e) F

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.7 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.7.2 Identify the location and surface features of the sternum

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.L Thoracic Bones—Sternum

 

 

64) Which of the following structures passes through the opening labeled 2 in the diagram?

 

 

  1. a) internal carotid artery
  2. b) mental nerve
  3. c) cranial nerve XI (accessory)
  4. d) branch of the occipital artery
  5. e) cranial nerve VII (facial)

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.6 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.D Cranial Bones – Occipital Bone

 

 

65) Which structure in the diagram allows for passage of nerves and blood vessels?

 

 

  1. a) B
  2. b) C
  3. c) D
  4. d) E
  5. e) F

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.K Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae

 

 

66) Which structure in the diagram is the superior articular process?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.6 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.6.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.6.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.K Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae

 

 

67) Which condition is characterized by an increase or exaggeration of the lumbar curve of the vertebral column?

 

  1. a) herniated disc
  2. b) scoliosis
  3. c) kyphosis
  4. d) lordosis
  5. e) spina bifida

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton

 

 

68) Which condition is characterized by an increase in the thoracic curve of the vertebral column?

 

  1. a) herniated disc
  2. b) scoliosis
  3. c) kyphosis
  4. d) lordosis
  5. e) spina bifida

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 7.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton

 

 

69) Which condition is characterized by a lateral bending of the vertebral column in the thoracic region?

 

  1. a) herniated disc
  2. b) scoliosis
  3. c) kyphosis
  4. d) lordosis
  5. e) spina bifida

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 7.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton

 

 

70) Which condition is the protrusion of the nucleus pulposus posteriorly or into one of the adjacent vertebral bodies in the vertebral column?

 

  1. a) herniated disc
  2. b) scoliosis
  3. c) kyphosis
  4. d) lordosis
  5. e) spina bifida

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 7.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton

 

 

71) Which of the following bones contains a sac that collects tears and passes them into the nasal cavity?

 

  1. a) Maxilla
  2. b) Sphenoid
  3. c) Nasal
  4. d) Ethmoid
  5. e) Lacrimal

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the nasal, lacrimal, palantine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae, Zygomatic, and Mandible

 

 

72) Which bones form the zygomatic arch?

 

  1. a) temporal and zygomatic
  2. b) sphenoid and maxilla
  3. c) temporal and mandible
  4. d) temporal and frontal
  5. e) temporal and parietal

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.5 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the nasal, lacrimal, palantine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.C cranial Bones – Temporal Bones

Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae, Zygomatic, and Mandible

 

 

73) What are the three correct components of the nasal septum?

 

  1. a) inferior nasal concha, vomer and lacrimal bone
  2. b) vomer, superior nasal concha, and septal cartilage
  3. c) inferior nasal concha, septal cartilage, perpendicular plate of ethmoid
  4. d) vomer, septal cartilage, and perpendicular plate of ethmoid
  5. e) vomer, septal cartilage, and crista galli of ethmoid

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.9 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones – Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, Vomer, Maxillae.

 

 

74) Sella turcica is a bony depression found in this cranial bone.

 

  1. a) Sphenoid
  2. b) Frontal
  3. c) Temporal
  4. d) Ethmoid
  5. e) Occipital

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.7 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones – Sphenoid Bone

 

 

75) The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in this cranial bone.

 

  1. a) Ethmoid
  2. b) Sphenoid
  3. c) Lacrimal
  4. d) Temporal
  5. e) Parietal

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the cranial and facial bones and their main features.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.7 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Bones – Sphenoid Bone Package Title: Testbank

Course Title: pap14

Chapter Number: 09

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

1) List the three structural categories of joints and briefly describe the criteria used for structural classification of joints.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications

Solution: The structural types of joints include: 1) fibrous joints, 2) cartilaginous joints, and 3) synovial joints. Joints can be classified structurally based on two criteria: 1) the presence or absence of a space between the articulating bones, called a synovial cavity and 2) the type of connective tissue that binds the bones together.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

2) Which of the following types of joints lacks a joint cavity and is held together by a fibrous connective tissue?

  1. Fibrous joints
  2. Cartilaginous joints
  3. Synovial joints

 

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) 3 only
  4. d) 1 and 2
  5. e) All of these choices

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications

 

 

3) Which of the following types of joints do NOT have a synovial cavity?

  1. Fibrous joints
  2. Cartilaginous joints
  3. Synovial joints

 

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) 3 only
  4. d) 1 and 2
  5. e) All of these choices

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

4) List the three functional classifications of joints, and briefly describe the basis for the functional classification of joints.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications

Solution: The functional classification joint is based on the degree of movement that they allow. The three functional classes are: 1) synarthroses, which are totally immovable, 2) amphiarthroses, which have slight movement, and 3) diarthroses, which are freely moveable joints.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

5) Which functional class of joints contains joints that are freely movable?

  1. Synarthrosis
  2. Amphiarthrosis
  3. Diarthrosis

 

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) 3 only
  4. d) Both 2 and 3
  5. e) All of these choices

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications

 

 

6) Which of the following is a type of fibrous joint composed of a thin layer of dense irregular fibrous connective tissue found between the bones of the skull?

  1. Syndesmoses
  2. Gomphosis
  3. Suture

 

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) 3 only
  4. d) Both 1 and 2
  5. e) None of these choices

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

 

 

7) A suture joint fits into which functional joint classification?

 

  1. a) synarthrosis.
  2. b) amphiarthrosis.
  3. c) diarthrosis.
  4. d) synovial.
  5. e) cartilaginous.

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

 

 

8) The epiphyseal plate in a long bone is an example of which type of joint?

 

  1. a) Gomphosis
  2. b) Suture
  3. c) Symphysis
  4. d) Synovial
  5. e) Synchondrosis

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of cartilaginous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints

 

 

9) The joint between the first rib and the manubrium of the sternum is classified as

 

  1. a) a synchondrosis.
  2. b) a synarthrosis.
  3. c) a cartilaginous joint.
  4. d) All of these choices.
  5. e) None of these choices.

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of cartilaginous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints

 

 

10) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of synovial joints?

 

  1. a) Contain a joint cavity
  2. b) Are freely moveable
  3. c) Articulating bones are covered with hyaline cartilage
  4. d) Include elastic cartilage
  5. e) Have ligaments holding the joint together

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

 

 

11) Which of the following is(are) made from dense regular connective tissue?

 

  1. a) Ligaments
  2. b) Articular cartilage
  3. c) Articular fat pads
  4. d) Synovial membrane
  5. e) Synovial fluid

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

12) What unique characteristics would a person who is “double-jointed” possess?

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

Solution: Double-jointed people do not have extra joints. They have greater flexibility in their articular capsules and ligaments. The resulting increase in the range of motion allows them to do such moves as touching their thumbs to their wrists and putting their ankles or elbows behind their necks. Unfortunately, such flexible joints are structurally less stable and are more easily dislocated.

 

 

13) Briefly describe the functions of synovial fluid.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

Solution: Synovial fluid reduces friction, absorbs shock and supplying oxygen and nutrients to and removing carbon dioxide and metabolic wastes from the chondrocytes within articular cartilage.

 

 

14) Briefly describe what is happening when a person “cracks their knuckles”.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

Solution: When the synovial cavity expands, the pressure of the synovial fluid decreases, creating a partial vacuum. The suction draws carbon dioxide and oxygen out of the blood vessels in the synovial membrane, forming bubbles in the fluid. When the bubbles are forced to burst, as when the fingers are hyperflexed, the cracking or popping sound is heard as the gases are driven back into solution.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

15) Which of the following structures include the fibular and tibial collateral ligaments of the knee joint?

 

  1. a) Synovial membranes
  2. b) Articular fat pads
  3. c) Menisci
  4. d) Extracapsular ligaments
  5. e) Tendon sheath

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

 

 

16) Another term for menisci is

 

  1. a) articular fat pads.
  2. b) articular discs.
  3. c) articular spaces.
  4. d) capsular fat pads.
  5. e) capsular discs.

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

 

 

17) Articular discs

  1. maintain the stability of a joint.
  2. direct flow of the synovial fluid to areas of greatest friction.
  3. are made of hyaline cartilage.
  4. are only found in the vertebral column.

 

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) 3 only
  4. d) 4 only
  5. e) 1 and 2

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

 

 

18) Which of the following structures is used to reduce friction in joints?

  1. Bursae
  2. Synovial fluid
  3. Accessory ligaments
  4. Elastic fibers

 

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) 3 only
  4. d) 4 only
  5. e) 1 and 2

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.2 Describe the structure and function of bursae and tendon sheaths.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

 

 

19) Which type of motion results from relatively flat bone surfaces moving back and forth and from side to side with respect to one another?

 

  1. a) Flexion
  2. b) Extension
  3. c) Gliding
  4. d) Circumduction
  5. e) Hyperextension

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

20) Which of the following represents a type of movement where there is a decrease in the angle between articulating bones?

 

  1. a) Flexion
  2. b) Extension
  3. c) Gliding
  4. d) Circumduction
  5. e) Rotation

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

21) Bending the trunk forward at the intervertebral discs is an example of what type of angular movement?

 

  1. a) Flexion
  2. b) Extension
  3. c) Lateral flexion
  4. d) Hyperextension
  5. e) None of these choices

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

22) Flexion and extension usually occur along which plane?

 

  1. a) Frontal
  2. b) Transverse
  3. c) Sagittal
  4. d) Oblique
  5. e) None of these choices

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

23) Moving the humerus laterally at the shoulder joint is an example of which type of movement?

 

  1. a) Lateral flexion
  2. b) Hyperextension
  3. c) Adduction
  4. d) Abduction
  5. e) Gliding

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

24) Which type of movement involves a continuous sequence of flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction resulting in a distal body part moving in a circle?

 

  1. a) Gliding
  2. b) Lateral flexion
  3. c) Hyperextension
  4. d) Circumduction
  5. e) Elevation

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

25) Which of the following is not considered a “special movement” that occurs at only certain joints?

 

  1. a) Depression
  2. b) Protraction
  3. c) Elevation
  4. d) Supination
  5. e) All of these are special movements

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

26) What type of special movement occurs in your clavicles at your acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular joints when you cross your arms in front of your body?

 

  1. a) Protraction
  2. b) Retraction
  3. c) Inversion
  4. d) Eversion
  5. e) Supination

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

27) Which special movement occurs when you bend your foot at the ankle in the direction of the foot’s superior surface as would occur when you stand on your heels?

 

  1. a) Inversion
  2. b) Eversion
  3. c) Dorsiflexion
  4. d) Plantar flexion
  5. e) Supination

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

28) Which special movement involves moving your thumb across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers on the same hand?

 

  1. a) Pronation
  2. b) Supination
  3. c) Eversion
  4. d) Retraction
  5. e) Opposition

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

29) Which of the following is NOT a structural category of synovial joints?

 

  1. a) Planar
  2. b) Hinge
  3. c) Condyloid
  4. d) Suture
  5. e) Saddle

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

30) In which type of synovial joint does a rounded or pointed surface on one bone articulate with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by a ligament?

 

  1. a) Pivot joint
  2. b) Planar joint
  3. c) Hinge joint
  4. d) Ball-and-socket joint
  5. e) Saddle joint

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

31) A condyloid joint

 

  1. a) is also called an ellipsoidal joint.
  2. b) is considered to be biaxial.
  3. c) allows both flexion–extension and abduction–adduction of the joint.
  4. d) can be found in the wrist.
  5. e) is All of these choices

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

32) Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting range of motion of a joint?

 

  1. a) Structure of articulating bones
  2. b) Tension of the muscles
  3. c) Hormones
  4. d) Disuse
  5. e) Eversion

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints

 

 

33) What type of joint is shown in the diagram?

 

 

  1. a) Suture
  2. b) Syndesmosis
  3. c) Symphysis
  4. d) Cartilaginous
  5. e) Synovial

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

 

 

34) What type of joint is shown in the diagram?

 

 

  1. a) Suture
  2. b) Synostosis
  3. c) Symphysis
  4. d) Synovial
  5. e) Gomophosis

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

 

 

35) In the figure, what represents a saddle joint?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

36) In the diagram, what represents a pivot joint?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

37) Which of the joints shown in the figure is classified as a multiaxial joint?

 

 

  1. a) B
  2. b) C
  3. c) D
  4. d) E
  5. e) F

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

38) Which of the joints shown in the figure is classified as a biaxial joint?

 

 

  1. a) B
  2. b) C
  3. c) D
  4. d) E
  5. e) More than one selection is correct

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

39) Which of the joints shown in the figure is classified as a monaxial joint?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) B and C

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

40) Which of the joints shown in the figure represents a condyloid joint?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

41) Which of the joints shown in the figure only permits back-and-forth and side-to-side movements between the articulating bones?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) Both A and B
  5. e) Both A and C

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

42) Which of the joints shown in the figure only permits back-and-forth and side-to-side movements between the articulating bones?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) Both A and B
  5. e) Both A and C

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

 

 

43) Which type of joint permits this type of movement?

 

  1. Synovial joint
  2. Cartilaginous joint
  3. Fibrous joint

 

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) 3 only
  4. d) Both 1 &2
  5. e) Both 2 & 3

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

44) Which of the panels in the figure shows a movement called lateral flexion?

 

 

  1. a) B
  2. b) F
  3. c) G
  4. d) D
  5. e) C

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

Question type: Essay

 

 

45) Describe the general effects that aging has on joints.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.14 Explain the effects of aging on joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.9 Aging and Joints

Solution: changes in joints due to aging include: production of synovial fluid decreases; articular cartilage thins; ligaments shorten and lose flexibility; osteoarthritis develops from wear and tear; bone becomes exposed at joints, and spurs form and the synovial membrane becomes inflamed. These changes lead to decreases in the range of motion of joints.

 

 

46) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.

 

Answer:

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints

Solution: 1. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the immune system attacks cartilage and joint linings, causing swelling, pain, and loss of function. Bones may fuse, making them immovable. 2. Osteoarthritis results from deterioration of articular cartilage due to wear and tear. Bone spurs are often formed leading to restricted movement of the joint. 3. Gouty arthritis occurs due to deposition of uric acid crystals in soft tissues of joints, which irritates and erodes cartilage causing painful inflammation.

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

47) Which of the following types of movement is shown in diagram E?

 

 

  1. a) supination
  2. b) circumduction
  3. c) pronation
  4. d) rotation
  5. e) adduction

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

48) Which of the following labeled panels in the figure shows hyperextension?

 

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) E
  3. c) F
  4. d) G
  5. e) I

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

49) Which of the following labeled panels in the figure shows flexion?

 

 

  1. a) E
  2. b) F
  3. c) C
  4. d) G
  5. e) H

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

50) Which of the following labeled panels in the figure shows extension?

 

 

  1. a) E
  2. b) D
  3. c) F
  4. d) G
  5. e) I

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

51) Which two panels in the figure show a movement of a bone away from the midline of the body?

 

 

  1. a) A and B
  2. b) B and D
  3. c) D and E
  4. d) F and A
  5. e) B and F

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

52) Which diagram shows a movement of a distal end of a body part in a circle, in a continuous

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) F

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

53) Which panel in the figure shows an example of the movement termed elevation?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

54) Which panel in the figure shows an example of the movement termed inversion?

 

 

  1. a) B
  2. b) D
  3. c) E
  4. d) F
  5. e) G

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

55) Which panel in the figure shows an example of the movement termed retraction?

 

 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) I

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

56) Which panel in the figure shows an example of the movement termed supination?

 

 

  1. a) E
  2. b) F
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

57) Which panel in the figure shows an example of the movement termed opposition?

 

 

  1. a) E
  2. b) F
  3. c) G
  4. d) H
  5. e) I

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

 

 

58) Which of the following is a degenerative joint disease in which joint cartilage is gradually lost due to a combination of aging, obesity, wear and abrasion of the joints?

 

  1. a) gouty arthritis
  2. b) Lyme disease
  3. c) bursitis
  4. d) osteoarthritis
  5. e) synovitis

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints

 

 

59) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease that affects the joints?

 

  1. a) gouty arthritis
  2. b) Lyme disease
  3. c) arthroplasty
  4. d) osteoarthritis
  5. e) rheumatoid arthritis

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints

 

 

60) Which of the following diseases is characterized by sodium urate crystals being deposited in the soft tissues of joints?

 

  1. a) gouty arthritis
  2. b) Lyme disease
  3. c) ankylosing spondylitis
  4. d) osteoarthritis
  5. e) rheumatoid arthritis

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints

 

 

61) Which of the following is a correct description of arthroplasty?

 

  1. a) resurfacing of cartilage in a joint
  2. b) reshaping of the ends of the bones in a joint
  3. c) surgically replacing a joint with an artificial joint
  4. d) injection of synovial fluid into the joint
  5. e) a, b, and d

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.15 Explain the procedures involved in arthroplasty, and describe how a total hip replacement is performed.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.10 Arthroplasty

 

 

62) Based on the structural classification of joints, which of the following is a fibrous joint?

 

  1. a) Synchondrosis
  2. b) Synovial joint
  3. c) Symphysis
  4. d) Syndesmosis
  5. e) Diarthrosis

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

 

 

63) A condition in which a muscle or muscle and tendon is stretched or partially torn is called

 

  1. a) bursitis.
  2. b) a sprain.
  3. c) a strain.
  4. d) a dislocation.
  5. e) an arthrosis.

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints

 

 

64) Which ligament limits hyperextension of the knee and prevents the anterior sliding of the tibia on the femur?

 

  1. a) Fibular collateral ligament
  2. b) Anterior cruciate ligament
  3. c) Posterior cruciate ligament
  4. d) Patellar ligament
  5. e) Arcuate popliteal ligament

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint

 

 

65) A joint in which there is a complete fusion of two separate bones into one bone is called a

  1. a) synchondrosis.
  2. b) syndesmosis.
  3. c) symphysis.
  4. d) diarthrosis.
  5. e) synostosis.

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

 

 

66) Which of the following is NOT an anatomical component of the elbow?

 

  1. a) articular capsule.
  2. b) ulnar collateral ligament.
  3. c) radial collateral ligament.
  4. d) anular ligament of the radius.
  5. e) tendon of the biceps brachii muscle.

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.11 Describe the anatomical components of the elbow joint and the movement that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.C Elbow Joint

 

 

67) Bursae are saclike structures that are commonly found between bone and

 

  1. a) skin.
  2. b) muscle.
  3. c) ligaments.
  4. d) tendons.
  5. e) all the other answer selections.

 

Answer: e

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the structural and functional properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.2 Describe the structure and function of bursae and tendon sheaths.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints

 

 

68) The hormone relaxin stimulates changes that lead to increased range of motion in the

 

  1. a) shoulder joint.
  2. b) pubic symphysis.
  3. c) temporomandibular joint
  4. d) knee joint.
  5. e) coronal suture.

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Hard

Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints

 

 

69) Disuse of a limb, like would occur when the limb is in a cast, leads to muscular atrophy and _____ of the affected joint.

 

  1. a) increased range of motion
  2. b) decreased range of motion
  3. c) increased fluid accumulation in bursa
  4. d) loosening of the tendons
  5. e) chronic inflammation

 

Answer: b

 

Difficulty: Easy

Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints

Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint

 

 

70) Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint?

 

  1. a) structure of the articulating bones.
  2. b) strength and tension of the joint ligaments.
  3. c) use of the joint.
  4. d) arrangement and tension of the muscles.
  5. e) hormones.

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints

 

71) Which feature goes with the knee joint?

 

  1. a) medial and lateral menisci
  2. b) glenoid labrum
  3. c) radial annular ligament
  4. d) zona orbicularis
  5. e) acetabular labrum

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint

 

 

72) The line is pointing to the _____ ligament.

 

 

  1. a) fibular collateral
  2. b) posterior cruciate
  3. c) oblique popliteal
  4. d) anterior cruciate

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint

 

 

73) The line is pointing to the _____.

 

 

  1. a) lateral meniscus
  2. b) medial meniscus
  3. c) anterior cruciate ligament
  4. d) posterior cruciate ligament

 

Answer: a

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint

 

 

74) The line is pointing to the _____ ligament.

 

 

  1. a) coracoacromial
  2. b) acromioclavicular
  3. c) glenohumeral
  4. d) coracohumeral

 

Answer: d

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint

 

 

75) The line is pointing to the _____ ligaments.

 

 

  1. a) coracoacromial
  2. b) acromioclavicular
  3. c) glenohumeral
  4. d) coracohumeral

 

Answer: c

 

Difficulty: Medium

Study Objective 1: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint