Rang & Dale’s Pharmacology 7th Edition by Humphrey P. Rang – Test Bank

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Rang & Dale’s Pharmacology by Humphrey P. Rang – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

Rang: Rang & Dale’s Pharmacology, 7th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 7: Method and measurement in pharmacology

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A statistical technique used to pool data from several independent but related studies is called

 

  1. double-blind technique
  2. randomization
  3. sequential studies
  4. meta-analysis
  5. high-powered trial

 

Answer d: meta-analysis

 

  1. The main problem with all types of bioassay is

 

  1. human error
  2. inadequate instrumentation
  3. biological variation
  4. high cost compared to other techniques
  5. inability to determine potency

 

Answer c: biological variation

 

  1. If the dose-response curves of two drugs are parallel in a bioassay, it usually indicates that the two drugs

 

  1. have the same potency
  2. act on the same type of receptors
  3. are identical
  4. are clinically effective
  5. produce a quantal response

 

Answer b: act on the same type of receptors

 

  1. Quantal dose-response curves are obtained when studying

 

  1. all-or-nothing responses
  2. submaximal responses
  3. bimodal responses
  4. partial agonists
  5. pain intensity

 

Answer a: all-or-nothing responses

 

  1. The double-blind technique is employed in clinical trials to

 

  1. facilitate meta-analysis
  2. confuse regulatory agencies
  3. avoid bias in assigning subjects to treatment groups
  4. avoid bias of patients and investigators
  5. obviate the need for a control group

 

Answer d: avoid bias of patients and investigators

 

  1. Transgenic mice that overexpress mutated forms of amyloid precursor protein provide a useful model for studying

 

  1. Alzheimer’s disease
  2. Parkinson’s disease
  3. Huntington’s disease
  4. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
  5. multiple sclerosis

 

Answer a: Alzheimer’s disease

 

  1. Transgenic animal models referred to as “knock-outs”

 

  1. result from insertion of new genes
  2. result from substitution of one gene for another
  3. result from inactivation of an existing gene
  4. result from mutation of an existing gene
  5. typically cause overexpression of proteins

 

Answer c: result from inactivation of an existing gene

 

Rang: Rang & Dale’s Pharmacology, 7th Edition

 

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Chapter 9: Drug metabolism and elimination

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Hepatic cytochrome P450 drug-metabolizing enzymes are primarily found in

 

  1. cell nuclei
  2. plasma membranes
  3. the cytoplasm
  4. the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  5. mitochondria

 

Answer d: the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

 

  1. Phase II drug metabolism

 

  1. includes hydrolytic reactions
  2. produces low molecular weight products
  3. usually forms inactive metabolites
  4. takes place mainly in the kidneys
  5. requires NADPH as a cofactor

 

Answer c: usually forms inactive metabolites

 

  1. Ketoconazole produces non-competitive inhibition of cytochrome P450 by

 

  1. binding to the ferric form of heme iron
  2. binding to the active site of the enzyme
  3. causing enzyme autolysis
  4. oxidizing NADPH
  5. binding covalently to the P450 protein

 

Answer a: binding to the ferric form of heme iron

 

  1. In first-order drug elimination

 

  1. drug half-life is directly proportional to drug concentration
  2. the rate of elimination is directly proportional to drug concentration
  3. drug clearance is directly proportional to plasma drug concentration
  4. the rate of elimination is constant
  5. the rate of elimination is unpredictable

 

Answer b: the rate of elimination is directly proportional to drug concentration

 

  1. If a drug is administered repeatedly at the same dose and dosage interval, the time required to reach the steady-state plasma drug concentration is proportional to the

 

  1. dose
  2. route of administration
  3. dosage interval
  4. bioavailability
  5. elimination half-life

 

Answer e: elimination half-life

 

  1. If a drug exhibits saturation (zero-order) kinetics, then

 

  1. the rate of drug elimination is constant
  2. drug half-life is constant
  3. drug clearance is constant
  4. plasma drug concentration is constant
  5. plasma drug concentration falls exponentially

 

Answer a: the rate of drug elimination is constant

 

  1. In the two-compartment pharmacokinetic model, orally administered drugs are

 

  1. absorbed into the peripheral compartment
  2. distributed from the central to the peripheral compartment
  3. metabolized in the central compartment
  4. excreted in the peripheral compartment
  5. none of the above

 

Answer b: distributed from the central to the peripheral compartment

 

  1. Which of the following will be increased if the rate of drug absorption from the gut is reduced?

 

  1. oral bioavailability
  2. volume of distribution
  3. peak plasma drug concentration
  4. elimination half-life
  5. duration of action

 

Answer e: duration of action

 

 

  1. The volume of plasma from which a drug is eliminated in a unit of time is known as the

 

  1. volume of elimination
  2. volume of distribution
  3. clearance
  4. elimination rate constant
  5. kinetic volume

 

Answer c: clearance

 

  1.  Inactive prodrugs have been developed to

 

  1. reduce drug toxicity
  2. increase drug half-life
  3. decrease hepatic drug metabolism
  4. increase drug absorption
  5. slow drug excretion

 

Answer d: increase drug absorption

Rang: Rang & Dale’s Pharmacology, 7th Edition

 

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Chapter 13: Cholinergic transmission

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Activation  of muscarinic M2 receptors

 

  1. increases calcium conductance
  2. increases potassium conductance
  3. increases cardiac rate and force
  4. causes central nervous system excitation
  5. produces vascular smooth muscle relaxation

 

Answer b: increases potassium conductance

 

  1. Succinylcholine is characteristically an agonist at

 

  1. muscarinic M1 receptors
  2. muscarinic M2 receptors
  3. muscarinic M3 receptors
  4. nicotinic receptors in skeletal muscle
  5. nicotinic receptors in autonomic ganglia

 

Answer d: nicotinic receptors in skeletal muscle

 

  1. The second messengers formed by activation of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors include

 

  1. inositol triphosphate
  2. cyclic AMP
  3. cyclic GMP
  4. eicosanoids
  5. guanosine triphosphate

 

Answer a: inositol triphosphate

 

  1. Pilocarpine lowers intraocular pressure by

 

  1. decreasing aqueous humor formation
  2. contracting the iris sphincter muscle
  3. contracting the ciliary muscle
  4. relaxing the iris sphincter muscle
  5. relaxing the ciliary muscle

 

Answer c: contracting the ciliary muscle

 

  1. The increased release of potassium from denervated muscles by succinylcholine is due to

 

  1. inhibition of cholinesterase
  2. desensitization of nicotinic receptors
  3. nicotinic receptor up-regulation
  4. denervation supersensitivity
  5. destruction of the motor end plate

 

Answer d: denervation supersensitivity

 

  1. Edrophonium produces reversible inhibition of cholinesterase by

 

  1. binding the anionic site
  2. binding the esteratic site
  3. binding both anionic and esteratic sites
  4. reversibly binding an allosteric site
  5. forming a complex with acetylcholine

 

Answer a: binding the anionic site

 

  1. Pyridostigmine enhances neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis patients by

 

  1. increasing release of acetylcholine
  2. inhibiting degradation of acetylcholine
  3. causing up-regulation of nicotinic receptors
  4. reactivating cholinesterase
  5. blocking autoantibodies

 

Answer b: inhibiting degradation of acetylcholine

 

  1. Activation of muscarinic M3 receptors leads to

 

  1. smooth muscle relaxation
  2. cardiac slowing
  3. central nervous system stimulation
  4. vasoconstriction
  5. exocrine gland secretion

 

Answer e: exocrine gland secretion

 

 

 

 

  1. The effects produced by topical ocular administration of atropine include

 

  1. miosis
  2. mydriasis
  3. lacrimation
  4. decreased intraocular pressure
  5. conjunctivitis

 

Answer b: mydriasis

 

  1.  If a test dose of edrophonium increases muscle weakness in a myasthenia gravis patient being treated with pyridostigmine, it means that

 

  1. the patient does not actually have myasthenia gravis
  2. the dose of pyridostigmine is too low
  3. the dose of pyridostigmine is too high
  4. atropine should be administered
  5. none of the above is correct

 

Answer c: the dose of pyridostigmine is too high

 

  1.  Atropine poisoning in children typically causes

 

  1. respiratory depression
  2. muscle paralysis
  3. sweating
  4. hyperthermia
  5. sedation

 

Answer d: hyperthermia

 

  1.  Persons with a genetic variant conferring abnormal plasma cholinesterase activity may exhibit prolonged muscle paralysis following administration of

 

  1. tubocurarine
  2. pilocarpine
  3. pancuronium
  4. atracurium
  5. succinylcholine

 

Answer e: succinylcholine

 

  1.  The release of acetylcholine from cholinergic nerve terminals is blocked by

 

  1. atropine
  2. bungarotoxin
  3. botulinum toxin
  4. batrachotoxin
  5. tetrodotoxin

 

Answer c: botulinum toxin

 

  1. Scopolamine is employed clinically in the prevention or treatment of

 

  1. motion sickness
  2. asthma
  3. peptic ulcer
  4. glaucoma
  5. constipation

 

Answer a: motion sickness

 

  1. The neuromuscular blockade produced by atracurium can be reversed by administration of

 

  1. atropine
  2. neostigmine
  3. succinylcholine
  4. pilocarpine
  5. nicotine

 

Answer b: neostigmine

 

  1.  Transient muscle fasciculations followed by paralysis typically occur after administration of

 

  1. succinylcholine
  2. tubocurarine
  3. vecuronium
  4. gallamine
  5. atropine

 

Answer a: succinylcholine

 

Rang: Rang & Dale’s Pharmacology, 7th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 17: Local hormones: cytokines, biologically active lipids, amines and peptides

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is accelerated by

 

  1. plasmin
  2. plasminogen
  3. kallikrein
  4. complement
  5. thrombin

 

Answer e: thrombin

 

  1. The release of histamine from mast cells is activated by

 

  1. complement component C3a
  2. complement component C4b
  3. opsonin
  4. chemotaxin
  5. plasmin

 

Answer a: complement component C3a

 

  1. Type I hypersensitivity reactions results from the production of

 

  1. natural killer cells
  2. interleukin-2
  3. immunoglobulin E
  4. leukotriene D4
  5. thromboxane

 

Answer c: immunoglobulin E

 

  1. Prostanoids and leukotrienes are both formed from

 

  1. cyclic endoperoxides
  2. arachidonic acid
  3. linolenic acid
  4. lipoxins
  5. 5-hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoic acid

 

Answer b: arachidonic acid

 

  1. Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation are the primary effects of

 

  1. prostacyclin
  2. prostaglandin E2
  3. thromboxane
  4. prostaglandin F1a
  5. prostaglandin F2a

 

Answer a: prostacyclin

 

  1. The formation of 5-hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoic acid is inhibited by

 

  1. montelukast
  2. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
  3. prostaglandins
  4. zileuton
  5. platelet-activating factor

 

Answer d: zileuton

 

 

  1. Leukotriene B4 causes

 

  1. coronary vasoconstriction
  2. vasodilation in most vascular bed
  3. bronchoconstriction
  4. bronchodilation
  5. chemotaxis and activation of leukocytes

 

Answer e: chemotaxis and activation of leukocytes

 

  1. The structure of bradykinin is that of

 

  1. a prostanoid
  2. a nonapeptide
  3. a leukotriene
  4. a monoamine
  5. a glycopeptide

 

Answer b: a nonapeptide

 

  1. It is postulated that bradykinin plays a role in

 

  1. peptic ulcer
  2. gastroesophageal reflux disease
  3. diarrhea
  4. inflammatory bowel disease
  5. gallstones

 

Answer c: diarrhea

 

  1.  Substance P, neurokinin A, and calcitonin gene-related peptide are partly responsible for

 

  1. neurogenic inflammation
  2. acute anaphylactic reactions
  3. septic shock
  4. rheumatoid arthritis
  5. coronary vasoconstriction

 

Answer a: neurogenic inflammation

 

  1.  Latanoprost is used clinically to

 

  1. dilate the pupil
  2. constrict the pupil
  3. correct strabismus
  4. lower intraocular pressure
  5. treat uveitis

 

Answer d: lower intraocular pressure

 

  1.  The treatment of primary pulmonary hypertension may include administration of

 

  1. prostaglandin F2a
  2. prostaglandin I2
  3. thromboxane
  4. misoprostol
  5. dinoprostone

 

Answer b: prostaglandin I2

 

  1.  The release of arachidonate from cell membrane phospholipids is inhibited by

 

  1. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
  2. zileuton
  3. glucocorticoids
  4. histamine H1 receptor antagonists
  5. zafirlukast

 

Answer c: glucocorticoids

 

  1.  Activation of prostaglandin EP3 receptors leads to

 

  1. contraction of bronchial smooth muscle
  2. inhibition of platelet aggregation
  3. relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle
  4. increased gastric mucus secretion
  5. contraction of uterine smooth muscle

 

Answer d: increased gastric mucus secretion

 

  1.  Intradermal injection of histamine produces a “triple response” in which the wheal is caused by

 

  1. dilation of small arterioles and precapillary sphincters
  2. increased permeability of postcapillary venules
  3. increased capillary permeability
  4. an axon reflex
  5. release of calcitonin gene-related peptide

 

Answer b: increased permeability of postcapillary venules

 

  1. A bradykinin antagonist would be expected to

 

  1. cause vasodilation
  2. increase vascular permeability
  3. increase gastrointestinal fluid secretion
  4. contract intestinal smooth muscle
  5. decrease stimulation of nociceptive neurons

 

Answer e: decrease stimulation of nociceptive neurons

 

  1.  During the induction of lymphocytes by antigen, the proliferation of T-helper-1 cells is increased by

 

  1. interleukin-2
  2. interleukin-4
  3. interferon-gamma
  4. tumor necrosis factor-beta
  5. glucocorticoids

 

Answer a: interleukin-2