Test bank for Fundamentals of Human Physiology 1st Edition by Stuart Ira Fox – Test Bank

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Test bank for Fundamentals of Human Physiology 1st Edition by Stuart Ira Fox – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

 

3
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Phagocytosis is a nonspecific bulk transport process in which the plasma membrane furrows inward.
True False
2. Receptor-mediated endocytosis would allow cells to selectively remove molecules from the extra cellular
fluid.
True False
3. Intake of a specific molecule from the extra cellular compartment by a cell occurs through
A. Phagocytosis
B. Exocytosis
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
D. Apoptosis
4. Release of neurotransmitters occurs via
A. Exocytosis
B. Endocytosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Pinocytosis
5. Osmosis and simple diffusion do not require the actions of carrier proteins.
True False
6. Active transport proceeds when energy is expended.
True False
7. ____________________ is a term which describes a membrane that allows only certain molecules to
penetrate it.
A. Selectively permeable
B. Permeable
C. Porous
D. Membrane potential
8. ____________ transport does not require membrane proteins.
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Bulk
C. Simple diffusion
D. Active
9. Passive transport of water is known as
A. Filtration
B. Osmosis
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. A water pump
10. Active transport
A. Utilizes energy
B. Cannot transport molecules against a concentration gradient
C. Cannot be saturated
D. Can transport only one ion in one direction
11. Simple diffusion is the net diffusion of a solvent.
True False
12. The process in which waste molecules are removed from the blood by having them diffuse through an
artificial porous membrane is called dialysis.
True False
13. A solution consists of a ____________ which dissolves the ______________.
A. Solvent; solute
B. Solvent; solid
C. Solute; solvent
D. Solid; liquid
14. Dialysis uses the process of
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Primary active transport
C. Simple diffusion
D. Secondary active transport
15. Gas exchange between the cells and extra cellular fluid utilizes active transport.
True False
16. Hydrophobic molecules usually enter a cell via ____________.
A. Osmosis
B. Active transport
C. Diffusion
D. Protein channels
17. Individuals suffering from cystic fibrosis have defective ____________ ion channels.
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride
18. Channels present in the membranes of some cells that allow rapid movement of water are called
A. Water tubes
B. Aqueducts
C. Aquaporins
D. Streams
19. Which of the following is able to passively penetrate the plasma membrane?
A. O2
B. Small charged particles
C. Large polar molecules
D. All of these choices are correct
20. Ion channels that can be opened by physiological stimuli are said to be
A. Polar
B. Aquaporins
C. Hypertonic
D. Gated
21. The rate of diffusion increases as the concentration gradient increases.
True False
22. Diffusion is more rapid in cells with microvilli compared to cells lacking microvilli.
True False
23. The rate of diffusion is influenced by
A. The concentration gradient
B. Membrane permeability
C. Membrane surface area
D. All of these choices are correct
24. The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly related to its ___________ concentration.
A. Water
B. Solute
C. Solvent
D. Matrix
25. Hypertonic solutions stimulate cellular lysis.
True False
26. A 10% dextrose solution is isotonic to plasma.
True False
27. Cells placed in hypotonic solutions will
A. Decrease in volume
B. Increase intracellular solute concentration
C. Increase in volume
D. Lose water to the solution
28. Which of the following cells do not normally have many aquaporins in their plasma membranes?
A. Kidneys
B. Lungs
C. Salivary glands
D. Skin
29. Protein carrier mediated transport of molecules display
A. Specificity
B. Competition
C. Saturation
D. All of these choices are correct
30. The transport maximum is related to the property known as
A. Competition
B. Saturation
C. Specificity
D. Inhibition
31. Glucose entry into the cell is by facilitated diffusion.
True False
32. Facilitated diffusion is unable to transport molecules against a concentration gradient.
True False
33. Facilitated diffusion of a molecule into a cell would be more rapid if
A. The concentration of the molecule in the cell increased
B. The concentration of water in the cell decreased
C. The concentration of the molecule outside the cell increased
D. The cell was isotonic
34. Active transport proteins are often regulated by phosphorylation.
True False
35. The Na+/K+ pump transports _______ into the cell and ________ out of the cell per cycle.
A. 3Na+; 2K+
B. 2Na+; 3K+
C. 3K+; 2Na+
D. 2K+; 3Na+
36. The Na+/K+ pump
A. Is an example of primary active transport
B. Generates a positive membrane potential
C. Actively transports 2 potassium ions out of the cell
D. Actively transports 3 sodium ions into the cell
37. This is true of oral rehydration therapy.
A. It is used to treat severe diarrhea
B. The presence of glucose aids the intestinal absorption of Na+ and water
C. It saves more than a million small children per year
D. All of these choices are correct
38. Bulk transport is required for the transport of large polar molecules into or out of cells.
True False
39. Inhibition of receptor-mediated endocytosis
A. Could induce hypercholesteremia
B. Could induce diabetes mellitus
C. Could prevent diabetes mellitus
D. Could prevent heart disease
40. The charge difference across a membrane produces the membrane potential.
True False
41. The Na+/K+ pump creates a ____________ charge inside the cell.
A. Positive
B. Negative
42. Hyperkalemia would ____________ the resting membrane potential of the cell.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Have no effect on
43. Most cells have a resting membrane potential between
A. +60 mV and –90 mV
B. –60 mV and –90 mV
C. –65 mV and –85 mV
D. +65 mV and +90 mV
44. The Na+/K+ pump
A. Establishes equilibrium concentrations of sodium and potassium ions
B. Is an electrogenic pump
C. Is an example of secondary active transport
D. Interferes with glucose transport
45. Which of the following is NOT a general category of cell signaling molecules?
A. Endocrine signaling
B. Enzymatic signaling
C. Paracrine signaling
D. Synaptic signaling
46. Endocytosis produces vesicles containing extra cellular material.
True False
47. Membrane transport processes are always passive.
True False
48. Facilitated diffusion uses carrier proteins to transport molecules actively.
True False
49. Inorganic ions diffuse through protein channels in the plasma membrane.
True False
50. Active transport carriers pump down the concentration gradient.
True False
3 Key
1. Phagocytosis is a nonspecific bulk transport process in which the plasma membrane furrows
inward.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 03 #1
2. Receptor-mediated endocytosis would allow cells to selectively remove molecules from the extra
cellular fluid.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 03 #2
3. Intake of a specific molecule from the extra cellular compartment by a cell occurs through
A. Phagocytosis
B. Exocytosis
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
D. Apoptosis
Fox – Chapter 03 #3
4. Release of neurotransmitters occurs via
A. Exocytosis
B. Endocytosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Pinocytosis
Fox – Chapter 03 #4
5. Osmosis and simple diffusion do not require the actions of carrier proteins.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #5
6. Active transport proceeds when energy is expended.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #6
7. ____________________ is a term which describes a membrane that allows only certain molecules to
penetrate it.
A. Selectively permeable
B. Permeable
C. Porous
D. Membrane potential
Fox – Chapter 03 #7
8. ____________ transport does not require membrane proteins.
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Bulk
C. Simple diffusion
D. Active
Fox – Chapter 03 #8
9. Passive transport of water is known as
A. Filtration
B. Osmosis
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. A water pump
Fox – Chapter 03 #9
10. Active transport
A. Utilizes energy
B. Cannot transport molecules against a concentration gradient
C. Cannot be saturated
D. Can transport only one ion in one direction
Fox – Chapter 03 #10
11. Simple diffusion is the net diffusion of a solvent.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 03 #11
12. The process in which waste molecules are removed from the blood by having them diffuse through an
artificial porous membrane is called dialysis.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 03 #12
13. A solution consists of a ____________ which dissolves the ______________.
A. Solvent; solute
B. Solvent; solid
C. Solute; solvent
D. Solid; liquid
Fox – Chapter 03 #13
14. Dialysis uses the process of
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Primary active transport
C. Simple diffusion
D. Secondary active transport
Fox – Chapter 03 #14
15. Gas exchange between the cells and extra cellular fluid utilizes active transport.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 03 #15
16. Hydrophobic molecules usually enter a cell via ____________.
A. Osmosis
B. Active transport
C. Diffusion
D. Protein channels
Fox – Chapter 03 #16
17. Individuals suffering from cystic fibrosis have defective ____________ ion channels.
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride
Fox – Chapter 03 #17
18. Channels present in the membranes of some cells that allow rapid movement of water are called
A. Water tubes
B. Aqueducts
C. Aquaporins
D. Streams
Fox – Chapter 03 #18
19. Which of the following is able to passively penetrate the plasma membrane?
A. O2
B. Small charged particles
C. Large polar molecules
D. All of these choices are correct
Fox – Chapter 03 #19
20. Ion channels that can be opened by physiological stimuli are said to be
A. Polar
B. Aquaporins
C. Hypertonic
D. Gated
Fox – Chapter 03 #20
21. The rate of diffusion increases as the concentration gradient increases.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #21
22. Diffusion is more rapid in cells with microvilli compared to cells lacking microvilli.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #22
23. The rate of diffusion is influenced by
A. The concentration gradient
B. Membrane permeability
C. Membrane surface area
D. All of these choices are correct
Fox – Chapter 03 #23
24. The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly related to its ___________ concentration.
A. Water
B. Solute
C. Solvent
D. Matrix
Fox – Chapter 03 #24
25. Hypertonic solutions stimulate cellular lysis.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 03 #25
26. A 10% dextrose solution is isotonic to plasma.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 03 #26
27. Cells placed in hypotonic solutions will
A. Decrease in volume
B. Increase intracellular solute concentration
C. Increase in volume
D. Lose water to the solution
Fox – Chapter 03 #27
28. Which of the following cells do not normally have many aquaporins in their plasma membranes?
A. Kidneys
B. Lungs
C. Salivary glands
D. Skin
Fox – Chapter 03 #28
29. Protein carrier mediated transport of molecules display
A. Specificity
B. Competition
C. Saturation
D. All of these choices are correct
Fox – Chapter 03 #29
30. The transport maximum is related to the property known as
A. Competition
B. Saturation
C. Specificity
D. Inhibition
Fox – Chapter 03 #30
31. Glucose entry into the cell is by facilitated diffusion.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #31
32. Facilitated diffusion is unable to transport molecules against a concentration gradient.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #32
33. Facilitated diffusion of a molecule into a cell would be more rapid if
A. The concentration of the molecule in the cell increased
B. The concentration of water in the cell decreased
C. The concentration of the molecule outside the cell increased
D. The cell was isotonic
Fox – Chapter 03 #33
34. Active transport proteins are often regulated by phosphorylation.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #34
35. The Na+/K+ pump transports _______ into the cell and ________ out of the cell per cycle.
A. 3Na+; 2K+
B. 2Na+; 3K+
C. 3K+; 2Na+
D. 2K+; 3Na+
Fox – Chapter 03 #35
36. The Na+/K+ pump
A. Is an example of primary active transport
B. Generates a positive membrane potential
C. Actively transports 2 potassium ions out of the cell
D. Actively transports 3 sodium ions into the cell
Fox – Chapter 03 #36
37. This is true of oral rehydration therapy.
A. It is used to treat severe diarrhea
B. The presence of glucose aids the intestinal absorption of Na+ and water
C. It saves more than a million small children per year
D. All of these choices are correct
Fox – Chapter 03 #37
38. Bulk transport is required for the transport of large polar molecules into or out of cells.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #38
39. Inhibition of receptor-mediated endocytosis
A. Could induce hypercholesteremia
B. Could induce diabetes mellitus
C. Could prevent diabetes mellitus
D. Could prevent heart disease
Fox – Chapter 03 #39
40. The charge difference across a membrane produces the membrane potential.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #40
41. The Na+/K+ pump creates a ____________ charge inside the cell.
A. Positive
B. Negative
Fox – Chapter 03 #41
42. Hyperkalemia would ____________ the resting membrane potential of the cell.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Have no effect on
Fox – Chapter 03 #42
43. Most cells have a resting membrane potential between
A. +60 mV and –90 mV
B. –60 mV and –90 mV
C. –65 mV and –85 mV
D. +65 mV and +90 mV
Fox – Chapter 03 #43
44. The Na+/K+ pump
A. Establishes equilibrium concentrations of sodium and potassium ions
B. Is an electrogenic pump
C. Is an example of secondary active transport
D. Interferes with glucose transport
Fox – Chapter 03 #44
45. Which of the following is NOT a general category of cell signaling molecules?
A. Endocrine signaling
B. Enzymatic signaling
C. Paracrine signaling
D. Synaptic signaling
Fox – Chapter 03 #45
46. Endocytosis produces vesicles containing extra cellular material.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #46
47. Membrane transport processes are always passive.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 03 #47
48. Facilitated diffusion uses carrier proteins to transport molecules actively.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 03 #48
49. Inorganic ions diffuse through protein channels in the plasma membrane.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 03 #49
50. Active transport carriers pump down the concentration gradient.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 03 #50
3 Summary
Category # of Questions
Fox – Chapter 03 50

 

5
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The brain and spinal cord develop from the embryonic neural tube.
True False
2. The forebrain develops into the telencephalon and the diencephalon.
True False
3. The midbrain forms the
A. Telencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Myelencephalon
D. Diencephalon
4. Cerebrospinal fluid is found
A. Within the central canal
B. Within the ventricles
C. Within the olfactory bulbs
D. Both within the central canal and within the ventricles
5. Neural crest cells differentiate into
A. The telencephalon
B. The red nucleus
C. The basal nuclei
D. Spinal ganglia
6. Communication between the cerebrum and cerebellum is facilitated by the corpus callosum.
True False
7. Damage to the parietal lobe of the cerebrum would impair somatosensory interpretation.
True False
8. Visual inputs are interpreted at the level of the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex.
True False
9. Which of the following is the correct list of the lobes of the cerebrum?
A. Insula, temporal, parietal, pons, occipital
B. Temporal, frontal, insula, cerebellum, occipital
C. Frontal, parietal, temporal, insula, occipital
D. Cerebrum, midbrain, thalamus, pons, medulla oblongata
10. The ____________ is a cerebral lobe that is involved in memory and integration of sensory information
(mostly pain) with visceral responses.
A. Temporal
B. Frontal
C. Parietal
D. Insula
11. Damage to the temporal lobe of the cerebrum would limit
A. Voluntary skeletal muscle contraction
B. Integration of cerebral activities
C. Hearing
D. Vision
12. __________________ is a technique for visualizing brain region activity indirectly by detecting increases
in blood oxygen levels
A. Computed tomography
B. Electroencephalogram
C. Functional magnetic resonance imaging
D. Positron emission tomography
13. Brain metabolism may be best studied by
A. Electroencephalography
B. Computed tomography
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Positron-emission tomography
14. Which type of sleep pattern may aid the consolidation of memory?
A. REM
B. NonREM
15. Chorea is most likely to result from
A. Damage to the caudate nucleus
B. Damage to the spinal ganglia
C. Damage to the occipital lobe
D. Damage to the hypothalamus
16. Impaired motor coordination in Parkinson’s disease is often due to
A. Degeneration of the red nucleus
B. Degeneration of the substantia nigra
C. Lack of regulation of the cerebral peduncles
D. Degeneration of the mesolimbic system
17. Writing skills would be impaired if the ___________ cerebral hemisphere atrophied.
A. Right
B. Left
18. Cerebral lateralization, in which the _____ cerebral hemisphere is specialized for language and analytical
ability and the right for visuospatial ability is true for 97% of all people.
A. Right
B. Left
19. Damage to the right motor cortex will generally mean motor problems on the right side of the body.
True False
20. Destruction of Wernicke’s area destroys language comprehension.
True False
21. Aphasias are most often associated with damage to ___________ and ___________ areas.
A. Wernicke’s and the angular gyrus
B. Fornix and Broca’s
C. Broca’s and Wernicke’s
D. The angular gyrus and septal nuclei
22. Ablation of the limbic system may result in an absence of fear.
True False
23. The hypothalamus and the limbic system are involved in
A. Aggression
B. Fear
C. Sex
D. All of these choices are correct
24. Long-term memory is most often associated with the amygdala.
True False
25. The ___________ lobe is involved in converting short-term memory to long-term memory.
A. Inferior temporal
B. Inferior lateral
C. Prefrontal
D. Medial temporal
26. The majority of sensory information is relayed to the cerebrum by the
A. Pons
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Medulla oblongata
27. The ___________________ consists of the dorsal diencephalon and the pineal gland.
A. Epithalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Thalamus
D. Third ventricle
28. Except for the sense of ____________, all sensory information is relayed through the thalamus.
A. Taste
B. Vision
C. Balance
D. Smell
29. The neurohypophysis is derived embryonically from the diencephalon.
True False
30. Releasing and inhibiting hormones are produced in the
A. Hypothalamus
B. Pituitary gland
C. Pineal gland
D. Basal nuclei
31. The suprachiasmatic nuclei
A. Is located in the anterior hypothalamus
B. Controls melatonin secretion from the pineal gland
C. Contains “clock cells” that have patterns which repeat about every twenty-four hours
D. All of these choices are correct
32. The pons and cerebellum comprise the metencephalon.
True False
33. The pons gives rise to cranial nerves VIII through XII.
True False
34. The cerebellum is the largest brain structure.
True False
35. The inability to reach out and touch an object with control and accuracy may result from damage to
the
A. Pons
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Midbrain
36. Ataxia is often associated with
A. Damage to the motor cortex
B. Damage to the cerebellum
C. Damage to the pyramidal tracts
D. Damage to the occipital lobe
37. The medulla oblongata
A. Contains numerous vital centers
B. Contains the facial nuclei
C. Acts only as a relay center
D. Is the most advanced region of the brain
38. Which of the following is NOT a vital function of the medulla oblongata?
A. Vasomotor control
B. Cardiac control
C. Thirst control
D. Respiratory control
39. Which of the following RAS neurotransmitters stimulates the cerebral cortex for wakefulness?
A. Dopamine
B. GABA
C. Nor epinephrine
D. Both dopamine and nor epinephrine are correct
40. The spinocerebellar tract would carry information from sensory receptors to the cerebral cortex.
True False
41. Sensory impulses associated with crude touch and pressure are transmitted by the posterior
spinocerebellar tracts to the thalamus.
True False
42. The extra pyramidal tracts
A. Arise in the cerebral cortex
B. Always cross in the spinal cord
C. Originate in the midbrain or brainstem
D. Are responsible for reflex generating a Babinski sign
43. Pyramidal tracts begin at the motor cortex of the frontal lobe and synapse in the medulla before
descending the spinal cord.
True False
44. In the cerebral cortex, the _________ matter is superficial and the _______ matter is deep.
A. White; gray
B. Gray; white
45. A recording of the electrical currents produced by synaptic activity in the cerebral cortex is called
A. EEG
B. MRI
C. PET
D. fMRI
46. The elevated folds of the convolutions on the cerebral cortex are called sulci and the depressed grooves
are called gyri.
True False
47. The frontal lobe and the parietal lobe of the cerebrum are separated by the central sulcus.
True False
48. During ______________ sleep, dreams that can be recalled are most likely to occur.
A. REM
B. Deep
C. NonREM
D. Dozing
49. Impaired voluntary movements would suggest damage to the basal ganglia.
True False
50. The basal nuclei contain
A. The corpus striatum
B. The supraoptic nucleus
C. Reticular formation
D. All of these choices are correct
51. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT associated with basal nuclei function?
A. Dopamine
B. GABA
C. Both dopamine and GABA
D. Neither dopamine and GABA
52. Aphasias are most often associated with damage to ___________ and ___________ areas.
A. Wernicke’s; the angular gyrus
B. Fornix; Broca’s
C. Broca’s; Wernicke’s
D. The angular gyrus; septal nuclei
53. Ablation of the limbic system may result in an absence of fear.
True False
54. The conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory would be inhibited by
A. Ablation of the pons
B. Ablation of the basal ganglia
C. Ablation of the hippocampus
D. Ablation of the occipital lobe
55. Knowing how to tie your shoes is an example of _____ memory.
A. Short-term
B. Declarative
C. Nondeclarative
D. Both declarative and short-term
5 Key
1. The brain and spinal cord develop from the embryonic neural tube.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 05 #1
2. The forebrain develops into the telencephalon and the diencephalon.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 05 #2
3. The midbrain forms the
A. Telencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Myelencephalon
D. Diencephalon
Fox – Chapter 05 #3
4. Cerebrospinal fluid is found
A. Within the central canal
B. Within the ventricles
C. Within the olfactory bulbs
D. Both within the central canal and within the ventricles
Fox – Chapter 05 #4
5. Neural crest cells differentiate into
A. The telencephalon
B. The red nucleus
C. The basal nuclei
D. Spinal ganglia
Fox – Chapter 05 #5
6. Communication between the cerebrum and cerebellum is facilitated by the corpus callosum.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 05 #6
7. Damage to the parietal lobe of the cerebrum would impair somatosensory interpretation.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 05 #7
8. Visual inputs are interpreted at the level of the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 05 #8
9. Which of the following is the correct list of the lobes of the cerebrum?
A. Insula, temporal, parietal, pons, occipital
B. Temporal, frontal, insula, cerebellum, occipital
C. Frontal, parietal, temporal, insula, occipital
D. Cerebrum, midbrain, thalamus, pons, medulla oblongata
Fox – Chapter 05 #9
10. The ____________ is a cerebral lobe that is involved in memory and integration of sensory
information (mostly pain) with visceral responses.
A. Temporal
B. Frontal
C. Parietal
D. Insula
Fox – Chapter 05 #10
11. Damage to the temporal lobe of the cerebrum would limit
A. Voluntary skeletal muscle contraction
B. Integration of cerebral activities
C. Hearing
D. Vision
Fox – Chapter 05 #11
12. __________________ is a technique for visualizing brain region activity indirectly by detecting
increases in blood oxygen levels
A. Computed tomography
B. Electroencephalogram
C. Functional magnetic resonance imaging
D. Positron emission tomography
Fox – Chapter 05 #12
13. Brain metabolism may be best studied by
A. Electroencephalography
B. Computed tomography
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Positron-emission tomography
Fox – Chapter 05 #13
14. Which type of sleep pattern may aid the consolidation of memory?
A. REM
B. NonREM
Fox – Chapter 05 #14
15. Chorea is most likely to result from
A. Damage to the caudate nucleus
B. Damage to the spinal ganglia
C. Damage to the occipital lobe
D. Damage to the hypothalamus
Fox – Chapter 05 #15
16. Impaired motor coordination in Parkinson’s disease is often due to
A. Degeneration of the red nucleus
B. Degeneration of the substantia nigra
C. Lack of regulation of the cerebral peduncles
D. Degeneration of the mesolimbic system
Fox – Chapter 05 #16
17. Writing skills would be impaired if the ___________ cerebral hemisphere atrophied.
A. Right
B. Left
Fox – Chapter 05 #17
18. Cerebral lateralization, in which the _____ cerebral hemisphere is specialized for language and
analytical ability and the right for visuospatial ability is true for 97% of all people.
A. Right
B. Left
Fox – Chapter 05 #18
19. Damage to the right motor cortex will generally mean motor problems on the right side of the
body.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 05 #19
20. Destruction of Wernicke’s area destroys language comprehension.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 05 #20
21. Aphasias are most often associated with damage to ___________ and ___________ areas.
A. Wernicke’s and the angular gyrus
B. Fornix and Broca’s
C. Broca’s and Wernicke’s
D. The angular gyrus and septal nuclei
Fox – Chapter 05 #21
22. Ablation of the limbic system may result in an absence of fear.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 05 #22
23. The hypothalamus and the limbic system are involved in
A. Aggression
B. Fear
C. Sex
D. All of these choices are correct
Fox – Chapter 05 #23
24. Long-term memory is most often associated with the amygdala.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 05 #24
25. The ___________ lobe is involved in converting short-term memory to long-term memory.
A. Inferior temporal
B. Inferior lateral
C. Prefrontal
D. Medial temporal
Fox – Chapter 05 #25
26. The majority of sensory information is relayed to the cerebrum by the
A. Pons
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Medulla oblongata
Fox – Chapter 05 #26
27. The ___________________ consists of the dorsal diencephalon and the pineal gland.
A. Epithalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Thalamus
D. Third ventricle
Fox – Chapter 05 #27
28. Except for the sense of ____________, all sensory information is relayed through the thalamus.
A. Taste
B. Vision
C. Balance
D. Smell
Fox – Chapter 05 #28
29. The neurohypophysis is derived embryonically from the diencephalon.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 05 #29
30. Releasing and inhibiting hormones are produced in the
A. Hypothalamus
B. Pituitary gland
C. Pineal gland
D. Basal nuclei
Fox – Chapter 05 #30
31. The suprachiasmatic nuclei
A. Is located in the anterior hypothalamus
B. Controls melatonin secretion from the pineal gland
C. Contains “clock cells” that have patterns which repeat about every twenty-four hours
D. All of these choices are correct
Fox – Chapter 05 #31
32. The pons and cerebellum comprise the metencephalon.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 05 #32
33. The pons gives rise to cranial nerves VIII through XII.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 05 #33
34. The cerebellum is the largest brain structure.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 05 #34
35. The inability to reach out and touch an object with control and accuracy may result from damage to
the
A. Pons
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Midbrain
Fox – Chapter 05 #35
36. Ataxia is often associated with
A. Damage to the motor cortex
B. Damage to the cerebellum
C. Damage to the pyramidal tracts
D. Damage to the occipital lobe
Fox – Chapter 05 #36
37. The medulla oblongata
A. Contains numerous vital centers
B. Contains the facial nuclei
C. Acts only as a relay center
D. Is the most advanced region of the brain
Fox – Chapter 05 #37
38. Which of the following is NOT a vital function of the medulla oblongata?
A. Vasomotor control
B. Cardiac control
C. Thirst control
D. Respiratory control
Fox – Chapter 05 #38
39. Which of the following RAS neurotransmitters stimulates the cerebral cortex for wakefulness?
A. Dopamine
B. GABA
C. Nor epinephrine
D. Both dopamine and nor epinephrine are correct
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40. The spinocerebellar tract would carry information from sensory receptors to the cerebral cortex.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 05 #40
41. Sensory impulses associated with crude touch and pressure are transmitted by the posterior
spinocerebellar tracts to the thalamus.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 05 #41
42. The extra pyramidal tracts
A. Arise in the cerebral cortex
B. Always cross in the spinal cord
C. Originate in the midbrain or brainstem
D. Are responsible for reflex generating a Babinski sign
Fox – Chapter 05 #42
43. Pyramidal tracts begin at the motor cortex of the frontal lobe and synapse in the medulla before
descending the spinal cord.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 05 #43
44. In the cerebral cortex, the _________ matter is superficial and the _______ matter is deep.
A. White; gray
B. Gray; white
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45. A recording of the electrical currents produced by synaptic activity in the cerebral cortex is called
A. EEG
B. MRI
C. PET
D. fMRI
Fox – Chapter 05 #45
46. The elevated folds of the convolutions on the cerebral cortex are called sulci and the depressed
grooves are called gyri.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 05 #46
47. The frontal lobe and the parietal lobe of the cerebrum are separated by the central sulcus.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 05 #47
48. During ______________ sleep, dreams that can be recalled are most likely to occur.
A. REM
B. Deep
C. NonREM
D. Dozing
Fox – Chapter 05 #48
49. Impaired voluntary movements would suggest damage to the basal ganglia.
TRUE
Fox – Chapter 05 #49
50. The basal nuclei contain
A. The corpus striatum
B. The supraoptic nucleus
C. Reticular formation
D. All of these choices are correct
Fox – Chapter 05 #50
51. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT associated with basal nuclei function?
A. Dopamine
B. GABA
C. Both dopamine and GABA
D. Neither dopamine and GABA
Fox – Chapter 05 #51
52. Aphasias are most often associated with damage to ___________ and ___________ areas.
A. Wernicke’s; the angular gyrus
B. Fornix; Broca’s
C. Broca’s; Wernicke’s
D. The angular gyrus; septal nuclei
Fox – Chapter 05 #52
53. Ablation of the limbic system may result in an absence of fear.
FALSE
Fox – Chapter 05 #53
54. The conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory would be inhibited by
A. Ablation of the pons
B. Ablation of the basal ganglia
C. Ablation of the hippocampus
D. Ablation of the occipital lobe
Fox – Chapter 05 #54
55. Knowing how to tie your shoes is an example of _____ memory.
A. Short-term
B. Declarative
C. Nondeclarative
D. Both declarative and short-term
Fox – Chapter 05 #55
5 Summary
Category # of Questions
Fox – Chapter 05 55