Test Bank For NUTR 1st Edition by McGuire – Test Bank



Test Bank For NUTR 1st Edition by McGuire –  Test Bank

Sample  Questions



Chapter 3 – Body Basics




  1. An ion is a positively or negatively charged atom.
  2. Osmosis is the movement of a substance across a cell membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
  3. Active transport requires energy because it involves the movement of a substance across a membrane from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
  4. Homeostasis is maintained through the coordination of the nervous system and the endocrine system.
  5. Digestion and absorption are different names for the same process.
  6. Digestion of foods is required so that absorption of nutrients can happen.
  7. The sole function of saliva in digestion is to moisten food so that it is easier to swallow.
  8. Bioavailability is the extent to which a nutrient is absorbed into the blood or lymphatic system.
  9. Water-soluble nutrients are absorbed into the lymph while fat-soluble nutrients are absorbed into the blood.
  10. Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are examples of an inflammatory bowel disease.


Multiple Choice: Fact Recall Based



  1. Which of the following lists best describes the levels of organization in the body, from smallest to largest?
  2. Atoms, molecules, macromolecules, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
  3. Molecules, atoms, macromolecules, tissues, cells, organs, organ systems
  4. Organ systems, organs, tissues, cells, macromolecules, molecules, ions
  5. Ions, macromolecules, tissues, organ systems, organs


  1. You can determine the number and types of atoms in a molecule using
  2. the periodic table.
  3. the molecular formula.
  4. the Internet.


  1. Energy is produced in an organelle called
  2. the mitochondrion.
  3. the Golgi apparatus.
  4. the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
  5. the rough endoplasmic reticulum.


  1. The four different types of tissue contained in the human body include all of the following except:
  2. epithelial.
  3. neural.
  4. connective.
  5. globular.


  1. The amount of time it takes for food to travel the entire length of the G.I. tract is called
  2. transit time.
  3. transition time.
  4. digestion time.
  5. elimination time.


  1. An example of an accessory organ in the digestive system is the
  2. pancreas.
  3. small intestine.
  4. large intestine.
  5. stomach.


  1. Digestion refers to
  2. the chemical breakdown of foods that happens in the mouth, esophagus, and stomach.
  3. the breakdown of foods into a form that can be absorbed.
  4. the transfer of nutrients from the small intestine into the blood.
  5. the process of solid waste elimination.


  1. Peristalsis is the
  2. wavelike muscular contractions that propel food from one region of the GI tract to the next.
  3. process of chewing food.
  4. process of churning food in the stomach.
  5. final muscular movement that results in the elimination of waste.


  1. The cephalic phase of digestion describes a response that
  2. stimulates of the muscles in the GI tract.
  3. triggers the release of substances that facilitate chemical breakdown of food.
  4. can be initiated by the thought, smell, or sight of food.
  5. All of the above


  1. The mass of food that the tongue pushes to the pharynx in the first phase of swallowing is called
  2. a bolus.
  3. a moistened mass.
  4. a digestion end product.
  5. chyme.


  1. The esophagus is a muscular tube that
  2. produces digestive enzymes.
  3. is the site of some nutrient absorption.
  4. transports a bolus of food from the mouth to the stomach.
  5. is joined to the stomach by the pyloric sphincter.


  1. Gastrin is a hormone that stimulates the release of gastric juice and causes the wall of the stomach to contract vigorously. Gastrin is released in response to
  2. the presence of food in the mouth.
  3. the presence of food in the esophagus.
  4. the presence of food in the stomach.
  5. the presence of food in the small intestine.


  1. The pyloric sphincter allows
  2. food to enter the stomach.
  3. food to leave the stomach.
  4. food to enter the large intestine.
  5. food to leave the duodenum.


  1. The first segment of the small intestine is called the
  2. duodenum.
  3. jejunum.
  4. ileum.
  5. colon.


  1. Secretions from the pancreas and gallbladder enter the small intestine in the
  2. duodenum.
  3. jejunum.
  4. ileum.
  5. pyloric sphincter.


  1. Nutrient absorption takes place in the epithelial cells that line the outer surface of villi. Nutrients are transferred from the cells to the blood or the lymphatic circulation via
  2. capillaries and lacteals contained in each large fold of the intestinal lining.
  3. capillaries and lacteals contained in each villus.
  4. capillaries and lacteal contained in each microvillus.


  1. Bile is secreted by the
  2. pancreas.
  3. stomach.
  4. small intestine.
  5. gallbladder.


  1. Factors that influence bioavailability of a nutrient include all of the following except:
  2. physiological conditions.
  3. certain medications.
  4. other dietary components.
  5. one’s heart rate while eating.


  1. The colon is the site of absorption of
  2. prebiotics.
  3. probiotics.
  4. water and electrolytes.
  5. undigested matter.


  1. Bacteria present in the large intestine
  2. are called the intestinal pathogenic load.
  3. are a sign of illness.
  4. help to maintain a healthy environment in the colon.
  5. consist of large population of a single species of bacteria.


  1. Prebiotic foods
  2. contain live bacterial cultures.
  3. are usually fiber rich and can stimulate the growth of bacteria in the large intestine.
  4. provide precursors to bacteria to initiate colonization of the colon.
  5. are low-fiber foods like yogurt.


  1. The consistency of feces depends mainly on
  2. water content.
  3. presence of bacteria.
  4. the amount of dead cells.
  5. Metabolism is defined as
  6. the sum of chemical processes that occur within a living cell to maintain life.
  7. the release of energy from the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler molecules.
  8. the use of energy to synthesize complex molecules from simpler ones.
  9. the generation of waste products for excretion.


  1. Catabolic pathways are metabolic pathways that
  2. release energy from the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler molecules.
  3. use energy to synthesize complex molecules from simpler ones.
  4. generate waste products for excretion.


  1. Anabolic pathways are metabolic pathways that
  2. release energy from the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler molecules.
  3. use energy to synthesize complex molecules from simpler ones.
  4. generate waste products for excretion.




Multiple Choice: Application Based



  1. Active and passive transport mechanisms differ because
  2. active transport requires energy whereas passive transport does not.
  3. active transport does not require energy whereas passive transport does.
  4. active transport is used for nutrients while passive transport is used for all other substances.
  5. passive transport is normally used for all substances; active transport is only used under extreme conditions.


  1. Osmosis differs from simple diffusion because
  2. osmosis describes water’s movement across membranes, while simple diffusion describes the movement of substances across membranes.
  3. in osmosis, water is moving to a high concentration of dissolved substances, while in simple diffusion, substances are moving to an area of lower concentration.
  4. There is no difference; they are equivalent.
  5. A and B
  6. The difference between simple and facilitated diffusion is that
  7. facilitated diffusion requires energy while simple diffusion does not.
  8. facilitated diffusion requires a carrier molecule while simple diffusion does not.
  9. facilitated diffusion results in the exchange of substances across a membrane, while simple diffusion does not.
  10. None of the above


  1. Carrier-mediated transport that requires energy is an example of
  2. an active transport mechanism.
  3. a passive transport mechanism.
  4. facilitated transport.
  5. simple diffusion.


  1. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) can be a painful condition causing a burning sensation in the chest. It is caused by
  2. a failure of the gastroesophageal sphincter to close completely.
  3. a failure of the gastroesophageal sphincter to open completely.
  4. a failure of the pyloric sphincter to close completely.
  5. poor peristalsis in the esophagus.


  1. The purpose of mucus secretion by stomach cells is
  2. to protect the stomach against damage from destructive chemicals secreted in gastric juice.
  3. to initiate the digestion of foods.
  4. to anchor foods against the stomach wall.
  5. unknown.


  1. The symptoms of gastroesophogeal reflux disease (GERD) can be relieved by
  2. consuming large meals.
  3. avoiding certain types of food, such as fried foods.
  4. consuming caffeinated beverages.
  5. avoiding treatment.


  1. The rate of gastric emptying can be increased by consuming
  2. solid foods.
  3. high-fat foods.
  4. small meals.
  5. large meals.


  1. Nutrient absorption is best defined as the transfer of nutrients
  2. from the lumen of the small intestine into blood or the lymph.
  3. from the lumen of the small intestine into mucosal cells.
  4. from the stomach into the small intestine.
  5. from the small intestine into the large intestine.


  1. The characteristic folds of the lining of the small intestine allow for increased surface area to promote absorption. Another aspect of the intestinal lining that increases surface area is the presence of
  2. villi.
  3. microvilli.
  4. cilia.
  5. All of the above
  6. A and B


  1. Gallstones can interfere with the normal flow of bile and can cause a great deal of pain. Removing the gallbladder is one method to treat gallstones. What potential problem might arise if the gallbladder is removed?
  2. Absorption of fat-soluble nutrients could be impaired.
  3. Absorption of water-soluble nutrients could be impaired.
  4. Release of pancreatic secretions into the duodenum could be impaired.
  5. The duodenum could be damaged.


  1. After chyme leaves the stomach and enters the duodenum, the duodenum is protected from the acidic chyme because
  2. bicarbonate secreted by the pancreas neutralizes the chyme.
  3. bile secreted by the gallbladder neutralizes the chyme.
  4. enzymes secreted in the duodenum degrade the acid.
  5. None of the above because the chyme is not terribly acidic when it leaves the stomach


  1. When a person with celiac disease consumes gluten, it can damage the absorptive surface of the small intestine. This can lead to
  2. poor absorption of nutrients.
  3. malnutrition.
  4. nutritional deficiencies.
  5. All of the above


  1. In contrast to diarrhea, constipation
  2. results from reduced extraction of water from feces in the colon.
  3. results from quicker transit time through the colon.
  4. results in watery feces.
  5. results in hard, dry fecal matter, making elimination difficult.


  1. During finals week your friend is worried about managing her 5 final exams and she is complaining about cramping, bloating, and diarrhea all related to lower GI tract discomfort. She has never experienced this before. Your friend is likely experiencing
  2. GERD.
  3. ulcerative colitis.
  4. irritable bowel syndrome.
  5. a flare-up of Crohn’s disease.


  1. The symptoms associated with inflammation of the intestinal lining include
  2. weight loss.
  3. diarrhea.
  4. fatigue.
  5. diminished appetite.
  6. All of the above


  1. Water-soluble nutrients are transported in the _____ when they leave the gastrointestinal tract, whereas fat-soluble nutrients are transported in the _____ when they leave the gastrointestinal tract.
  2. blood, lymph
  3. lymph, blood
  4. urine, feces
  5. blood, blood (There is no difference.)


  1. Cellular waste products must be readily excreted in order for the body to remain healthy. The waste products that accumulate can be actively excreted by all of the following organs except:
  2. the kidneys.
  3. the lungs.
  4. the skin.
  5. the hair.


  1. Energy-yielding nutrients store energy in their chemical bonds. In order for cells to convert that stored energy into ATP, the nutrients must be transformed through the activity of
  2. digestion.
  3. absorption.
  4. catabolic pathways.
  5. anabolic pathways.


  1. Catabolic pathways that require oxygen are referred to as _____. Catabolic pathways that can function with low levels of oxygen are called _____.
  2. aerobic, anaerobic
  3. anaerobic, aerobic
  4. energy producing, energy requiring
  5. energy requiring, energy producing

Chapter 5 – Protein




  1. Protein-rich food sources include meats, fish, nuts, and beans.
  2. A protein’s shape depends on its amino acid sequence.
  3. Denaturation disrupts a protein’s three-dimensional shape, and therefore causes the protein to lose its function.
  4. Chemical digestion of proteins begins in the mouth.
  5. Whole proteins can be absorbed through a healthy intestine.
  6. Amino acids can be used for ATP production.
  7. When dietary protein consumption exceeds protein needs, the extra amino acids can be converted to fat and stored.
  8. The human body can recycle and reuse most of its amino acids from disassembled proteins through protein turnover.
  9. The American College of Sports Medicine states that athletes require more dietary protein than non-athletes.
  10. At-risk groups for protein-energy malnutrition include people with cancer or severe burns and alcoholics.


Multiple Choice: Fact Recall Based



  1. The three common components of all amino acids are: a central carbon atom bonded to a hydrogen atom, a carboxylic acid group, and
  2. a common side-chain group.
  3. a sulfur-containing amino group.
  4. a nitrogen-containing amino group.
  5. a positively charged R-group.


  1. Essential amino acids are defined as
  2. those that cannot be made by the body in the amounts required and therefore must be consumed in the diet.
  3. those that are difficult to find in a well-balanced diet and must be consumed as supplements.
  4. those whose nitrogen-containing amino groups must be added in the liver.
  5. those required for the synthesis of a limited number of essential proteins.


  1. Nonessential amino acids
  2. are not recycled by the body.
  3. can be synthesized from other compounds in the body.
  4. are used to synthesize nonessential proteins.
  5. all have the same side-chain group.


  1. The process of transamination
  2. is used to synthesize nonessential amino acids.
  3. is the process of transferring an amino group from an α-keto acid to an essential amino acid.
  4. is the process of transferring an amino group from a nonessential amino acid to an essential amino acid.
  5. is the process of transferring an amino group from an essential amino acid to a nonessential amino acid.


  1. Foods supplying low amounts of one or more essential amino acids are called
  2. incomplete protein sources.
  3. complementary protein sources.
  4. limiting foods.
  5. nonessential foods.


  1. The three steps involved in the process of protein synthesis are cell signaling, transcription, and
  2. transamination.
  3. deamination.
  4. translation.
  5. peptide bond cleavage.


  1. Transcription is
  2. the process by which messenger RNA is constructed using DNA as a template.
  3. the process of messenger RNA carrying the DNA information out of the nucleus.
  4. the process by which a gene is directly converted into a protein.
  5. the process by which messenger RNA is directly converted into a protein.


  1. A gene is
  2. a section of DNA that is only used in reproduction.
  3. a section of DNA that contains the information necessary to produce a particular protein.
  4. a section of DNA that is converted to transfer RNA.
  5. a section of DNA that moves outside the nucleus when protein synthesis is required.


  1. Translation is the process
  2. by which messenger RNA leaves the nucleus.
  3. by which amino acids are joined using peptide bonds.
  4. by which messenger RNA is constructed using DNA as a template.
  5. of protein folding.


  1. The primary structure of a protein is
  2. the final structure of the protein.
  3. the linear arrangement of amino acids in a single peptide chain.
  4. determined by cell signaling events.
  5. altered during protein folding.
  6. Disruption of protein folding by mechanical shaking, heat, detergents, or acids is called
  7. denaturation.
  8. transamination.
  9. translation.
  10. refolding.


  1. One of the first events that occurs in the stomach in response to the presence of food is the release of _____, a hormone that stimulates the stomach to produce gastric juices.
  2. cholecystokinin
  3. gastrin
  4. secretin
  5. insulin


  1. Pepsinogen is an example of a proenzyme. This means it is
  2. an inactive form an enzyme.
  3. an enzyme needed for protein digestion.
  4. a protease.
  5. an enzyme that leads the way for a different enzyme to have activity.


  1. HCl is important for protein digestion for two reasons: 1) it denatures proteins in the stomach, and 2)
  2. it stimulates gastrin release from the stomach.
  3. it converts pepsinogen into pepsin.
  4. it converts pepsin into pepsinogen.
  5. it maintains the acid environment necessary in the small intestine for protein digestion.


  1. The hormones released by cells in the small intestine in response to the arrival of amino acids and smaller peptides are secretin and cholecystokinin. Together, these hormones stimulate
  2. the production of hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen in the stomach.
  3. the release of active enzymes from the pancreas.
  4. the release of bicarbonate and proenzymes from the pancreas.
  5. the release of di- and tripeptides from the absorptive cells that line the small intestine.


  1. The role of bicarbonate released from the pancreas is to
  2. neutralize the acid from the stomach.
  3. convert pepsinogen to pepsin.
  4. activate the proenzymes released from absorptive cells lining the small intestine.
  5. act as a protease.


  1. The most common food allergies are caused by proteins present in eggs, milk, soy, wheat, and
  2. peanuts.
  3. walnuts.
  4. brazil nuts.
  5. coconuts.


  1. Secretin, gastrin, insulin, and glucagon are examples of proteins that are
  2. enzymes.
  3. hormones.
  4. antibodies.
  5. neurotransmitters.


  1. Protein turnover is
  2. the coordinated and continual process of breaking down and resynthesizing proteins.
  3. the 3-dimensional rotation of proteins within cells.
  4. the breakdown of proteins with subsequent destruction of amino acids.
  5. the continual synthesis of proteins following excretion of nonfunctional proteins.


  1. When nitrogen loss exceeds intake the body is in
  2. nitrogen balance.
  3. negative nitrogen balance.
  4. positive nitrogen balance.


  1. When nitrogen intake exceeds loss the body is in
  2. nitrogen balance.
  3. negative nitrogen balance.
  4. positive nitrogen balance.


  1. Because they do not consume any animal products, vegans must make extra efforts to include nutrients that are found in animal products but to a much lesser degree, if at all, in plant products. These nutrients are iron, calcium, zinc, and
  2. vitamin B12.
  3. vitamin C.
  4. vitamin K.
  5. vitamin E.


  1. Marasmus is a form of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by
  2. extreme wasting of muscles.
  3. gain of abdominal adipose tissue.
  4. severe edema in the extremities.
  5. unusual growth of the jaw.


  1. Kwashiorkor is a form of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by
  2. extreme wasting of muscles.
  3. gain of abdominal adipose tissue.
  4. severe edema in the extremities.
  5. unusual growth of the jaw.


  1. The World Cancer Research Fund and the American Institute for Cancer Research recommend that people limit their intake of red meat to no more than 18 ounces every week and eat very little processed meat. These recommendations are explained by
  2. the association of chronic high consumption of red meat or processed meats with increased risk of colorectal cancer.
  3. the association of chronic high consumption of red meat or processed meats with increased risk of breast cancer.
  4. the association of chronic high consumption of red meat or processed meats with increased risk of obesity, a risk factor for certain cancers.
  5. the association of chronic high consumption of red meat or processed meats with increased risk of lung cancer.




Multiple Choice: Application Based



  1. Animal-derived foods are considered to be more complete protein sources than plant-derived foods because
  2. they contain all of the essential amino acids, while plant-derived foods contain no essential amino acids.
  3. they contain all of the essential amino acids, while plant-derived foods contain low amounts of one or more of the essential amino acids.
  4. they contain all 20 of the amino acids used for protein synthesis in the human body, while plant-derived foods contain only 11 amino acids.
  5. they contain only essential amino acids, while plant-derived foods contain only nonessential amino acids.


  1. The problem of a limiting amino acid is most simply overcome by
  2. combining foods with different limiting amino acids to complement each other and provide adequate amounts of all the essential amino acids.
  3. combining foods with the same limiting amino acid to increase the amount of that amino acid to an adequate level.
  4. increasing portion size of a food with a limiting amino acid so that more of that amino acid is consumed.
  5. reducing portion size of complete proteins so that the amount of the limiting amino acid is relatively increased.


  1. An example of protein complementation is
  2. steak and salmon.
  3. rice and beans.
  4. corn and rice.
  5. whole grain and refined rice.


  1. The shape of all proteins ranging from small, simple proteins to large, complex proteins is determined by
  2. charge interactions.
  3. moving outside the cell.
  4. their amino acid sequences.
  5. the addition of prosthetic groups.


  1. A person’s _____ is found inside the cell. In contrast, a person’s _____ is what is outwardly apparent to another person.
  2. genotype, phenotype
  3. phenotype, genotype
  4. DNA, protein profile
  5. genetic mutation, genotype


  1. A person’s _____ is largely determined by their _____.
  2. phenotype, genotype
  3. genotype, phenotype
  4. height, phenotype


  1. Alterations that change the sequence of information in a gene, leading to a change in the primary structure of a protein, are called
  2. epigenetic modifications.
  3. epigenetic changes.
  4. transcriptional modifications.
  5. mutations.


  1. Alterations that modify a gene by changing its regulation but not the sequence of information are called
  2. mutations.
  3. phenotypic changes.
  4. transcriptional modifications.
  5. epigenetic modifications.


  1. The phenomenon that explains why identical twins may differ in certain ways is most appropriately called
  2. a mutation.
  3. epigenetic variation.
  4. sequential variation.
  5. transcriptional variation.


  1. Chemical digestion of protein begins in the stomach, where _____ denatures proteins and _____ begins to digest them into smaller pieces.
  2. hydrochloric acid, pepsinogen
  3. hydrochloric acid, pepsin
  4. gastrin, hydrochloric acid
  5. gastrin, pepsin


  1. The complete digestion of proteins in the small intestine yields
  2. only single amino acids that are absorbed across the absorptive cells into the blood.
  3. single amino acids and di- and tripeptides that are broken down to single amino acids by protesases in the absorptive cells.
  4. α-keto acids and amino groups that are reassembled in the absorptive cells prior to entering the blood.


  1. Collagen is an example of
  2. a structural protein.
  3. a catalytic protein.
  4. a hormone.
  5. an immune protein.


  1. In a protein-deficient state one cannot make _____ to fight off infectious agents.
  2. albumin
  3. hormones
  4. enzymes
  5. antibodies


  1. When _____ production is reduced because of protein deficiency, _____ can result from fluid imbalance.
  2. albumin, edema
  3. protein, infection
  4. collagen, arthritis
  5. collagen, edema


  1. Amino acids are not excreted intact. Rather,
  2. the nitrogen-containing amino group is recycled while the remainder of the molecule is excreted in the urine.
  3. the nitrogen-containing amino group is removed and converted to urea, which is excreted in the urine.
  4. the carboxylic acid group is removed, neutralized by the bile, and excreted in the feces.
  5. the side-chain group is removed and excreted while the reminder of the molecule is recycled.
  6. Nitrogen balance studies are used to assess
  7. protein status.
  8. urea production.
  9. protein absorption.
  10. protein excretion.


  1. During times of starvation or illness a nitrogen balance study would likely demonstrate
  2. nitrogen balance.
  3. negative nitrogen balance.
  4. positive nitrogen balance.


  1. During childhood or recovery from an illness, a nitrogen balance study would likely demonstrate
  2. nitrogen balance.
  3. negative nitrogen balance.
  4. positive nitrogen balance.


  1. The RDA for protein is 0.8 g/kg/day. Todd is 5’10” and weighs 80 kg (about 175 pounds). According to the RDA, he requires
  2. 6.4 grams of protein per day.
  3. 64 grams of protein per day.
  4. 640 grams of protein per day.
  5. none of the above; this cannot be determined based on the information provided.


  1. The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for protein is 10 to 35% of total energy intake. If Hannah consumes 2,000 kcal/day, her range of protein intake should be
  2. 5 to 18 g/day
  3. 25 to 100 g/day
  4. 50 to 175 g/day
  5. 100 to 250 g/day



Chapter 7 – The Vitamins




  1. Vitamins and minerals are complex organic compounds required in small amounts to maintain a healthy body.
  2. Water-soluble vitamins can be destroyed by heat in cooking.
  3. Whole-grain foods are poor sources of water-soluble B vitamins.
  4. Alcoholism enhances thiamin absorption, increasing the likelihood of thiamin toxicity.
  5. Folic acid is the form of folate found in supplements and added to fortified or enriched foods.
  6. Vitamin B12 is found abundantly in plant foods.
  7. Scurvy is a condition caused by vitamin D deficiency.
  8. All carotenoids can be converted into retinoids.
  9. Chronic consumption of high doses of retinoids can have toxic effects on vision, liver function, and bone health.
  10. Consumption of high doses of supplemental vitamin D can be toxic.


Multiple Choice: Fact Recall Based



  1. All water soluble vitamins share 3 similarities: they dissolve in water, they are generally not toxic to the body, and
  2. they are absorbed mainly in the small intestine and transported in the blood.
  3. they are absorbed mainly in the stomach and transported in the blood.
  4. they are absorbed mainly in the small intestine and transported in the lymph.
  5. they are absorbed in the large intestine and transported in the blood.


  1. The vitamins that must be included in enriched flours are thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and
  2. vitamin B6.
  3. vitamin B12.
  4. folate.
  5. vitamin C.


  1. The condition of thiamin deficiency is called
  2. beriberi.
  3. scurvy.
  4. pellagra.
  5. anemia.


  1. Milk is packaged in opaque containers to protect the destruction of what vitamin by light?
  2. Thiamin
  3. Niacin
  4. Riboflavin
  5. Biotin


  1. Niacin can be synthesized in the body from the amino acid
  2. tyrosine.
  3. tryptophan.
  4. glutamate.
  5. valine.


  1. Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and death are known as “the four Ds” associated with deficiency of what vitamin?
  2. Thiamin
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Niacin
  5. Pantothenic acid


  1. The condition of niacin deficiency is called
  2. beriberi.
  3. scurvy.
  4. pellagra.
  5. ariboflavinosis.


  1. Which B vitamin can be toxic when taken in very high supplemental doses, causing neurological problems?
  2. Niacin
  3. Folate
  4. Vitamin B12
  5. Vitamin B6


  1. The protein found in raw egg whites that can bind to biotin and severely impair its absorption is called
  2. avidin.
  3. mucin.
  4. heme.
  5. collagen.


  1. Adequate folate intake during pregnancy can help to prevent
  2. neural tube defects.
  3. preterm labor.
  4. morning sickness.


  1. The type of anemia that is seen in severe folate deficiency is characterized by large, immature blood cells. This type of anemia is called _____, _____ anemia.
  2. microcytic, hypochromic
  3. microcytic, megaloblastic
  4. macrocytic, megaloblastic
  5. megaloblastic, hypochromic


  1. The conversion of homocysteine to methionine requires the vitamins folate and
  2. vitamin B6.
  3. pantothenic acid.
  4. vitamin B12.
  5. niacin.


  1. Secondary vitamin B12 deficiency is caused by reduced _____ of the vitamin.
  2. absorption
  3. consumption
  4. production
  5. elimination


  1. The stomach produces two substances required for proper vitamin B12 absorption: hydrochloric acid and _____.
  2. extrinsic factor
  3. intrinsic factor
  4. factorial proteins
  5. injectable factor


  1. Vitamin C deficiency results in
  2. beriberi.
  3. pellagra.
  4. scurvy.
  5. folate deficiency.


  1. Fat-soluble vitamins share the following common feature:
  2. They are absorbed in the large intestine.
  3. They travel from the small intestine directly into the bloodstream.
  4. They are transported as components of lipoproteins or bound to specific transport proteins.
  5. They are readily excreted rather than stored.


  1. Retinoids are abundant in _____ foods, while carotenoids are abundant in _____ foods.
  2. plant, animal
  3. animal, plant
  4. cooked, raw
  5. high-fiber, low-fiber


  1. The form of vitamin A important for vision is
  2. retinol.
  3. retinal.
  4. retinoic acid.
  5. beta-carotene.


  1. Xeropthalmia, a condition of dryness of the eye caused by damage to the eye tissue, is a sign of vitamin A deficiency disorder (VADD). An earlier sign of VADD is
  2. hair loss.
  3. night blindness.
  4. anemia.


  1. Cholecalciferol is
  2. also called ergocalciferol.
  3. vitamin D2.
  4. found in plant products.
  5. synthesized by the body.


  1. Cholecalciferol must undergo 2 conversion steps before it becomes the active form of vitamin D, calcitriol. Those steps take place in the _____ and the _____.
  2. liver, bone
  3. liver, kidney
  4. small intestine, kidney
  5. heart, liver


  1. Together parathyroid hormone and calcitriol increase blood calcium levels by
  2. increasing calcium absorption in the small intestine.
  3. increasing calcium release from bone.
  4. decreasing calcium excretion in the urine
  5. All of the above
  6. Rickets is a disease caused by
  7. hypervitaminosis D.
  8. vitamin A deficiency.
  9. vitamin D Deficiency.
  10. calcium deficiency.


  1. Vitamin K is essential for the process of
  2. digestion.
  3. absorption.
  4. reproduction.
  5. coagulation.


  1. According to the FDA, a dietary supplement is a product that contains vitamins, minerals, or other compounds. A supplement is intended to
  2. replace certain foods in the diet.
  3. replace certain meals in the diet.
  4. supplement the diet.
  5. increase the potency of a typical multivitamin supplement.




Multiple Choice: Application Based



  1. Fortification and enrichment of foods are similar processes that
  2. add nutrients to foods during processing.
  3. add nutrients to foods during harvesting.
  4. add nutritional supplement information to the labels of certain foods.


  1. Fortification and enrichment of foods differ since the process of enrichment
  2. adds specific nutrients to specific foods.
  3. add nutrients at levels specified by the U.S. Department of Commerce.
  4. adds only fat-soluble vitamins to foods.
  5. must include the addition of calcium to foods.


  1. The amount of thiamin absorbed from a food may be reduced because
  2. thiamin may be destroyed by heat during cooking.
  3. the body has adequate amounts of thiamin.
  4. of compounds found in Brussels sprouts, raw fish, and alcohol.
  5. All of the above


  1. Thiamin, like other B vitamins, plays an important role in the cell because
  2. it is necessary for the degradation of ATP.
  3. it is lipid soluble and therefore can reside in the cell membrane.
  4. it serves as an enzyme in important chemical reactions.
  5. it serves as a coenzyme in important chemical reactions.


  1. Alcoholism is an important risk factor for thiamin deficiency because
  2. alcohol inhibits thiamin absorption.
  3. alcoholics tend to consume diets that contain adequate calories and a variety of foods, but they are low in thiamin content.
  4. thiamin causes gastrointestinal distress when consumed with alcohol.


  1. The conditions of cheilosis, stomatitis, and glossitis are all associated with inflammation of the
  2. throat.
  3. eyes.
  4. mouth.
  5. stomach.


  1. Reduction-oxidation (redox) reactions are critical in the production of ATP. Vitamins required for redox reactions include
  2. riboflavin and thiamin.
  3. pantothenic acid and biotin.
  4. thiamin and niacin.
  5. riboflavin and niacin.


  1. Vitamin B6 deficiency can be difficult to distinguish from _____ deficiency, because both deficiency states result in cheilosis, glossitis, and stomatitis.
  2. thiamin
  3. biotin
  4. pantothenic acid
  5. riboflavin


  1. Vitamin B6 deficiency can result in microcytic, hypochromic anemia because the vitamin is essential for _____ synthesis.
  2. cholesterol
  3. bone
  4. heme
  5. serotonin


  1. Severe folate deficiency is rare in the U.S. because
  2. folate is required to be added to enriched grain products.
  3. Americans consume plenty of folate-rich vegetables.
  4. folate is added to the water supply.
  5. an adequate amount of folate is made by bacteria residing in the large intestine.
  6. High homocysteine levels are common in both _____ deficiencies.
  7. biotin and pantothenic acid
  8. folate and vitamin B12
  9. niacin and riboflavin
  10. None of the above; only folate deficiency causes high homocysteine levels.


  1. Risk for primary vitamin B12 deficiency is minimized by
  2. consuming vitamin B12-rich foods such as meats and seafood.
  3. consuming a vegan diet (eliminating animal products).
  4. being physically active.
  5. spending time in the sun each day.


  1. Vitamin B12 deficiency can result in a macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia. This is because
  2. vitamin B12 is directly required for red blood cell production.
  3. vitamin B12 deficiency produces a secondary folate deficiency.
  4. of an autoimmune attack on stomach cells producing intrinsic factor.


  1. Vitamin C functions differently than the B vitamins because it
  2. is not a coenzyme.
  3. is not water soluble.
  4. is made by the body.
  5. is found in different foods.


  1. Vitamin C acts as an antioxidant because it can
  2. donate electrons or hydrogen ions to other substances.
  3. inhibit oxidation.
  4. participate in redox reactions.
  5. neutralize free radicals.
  6. All of the above


  1. In addition to vision, vitamin A plays an important role in cell differentiation. As a result, vitamin A is important for proper
  2. reproduction.
  3. growth.
  4. immune system function.
  5. All of the above


  1. Factors that impair cholecalciferol synthesis in the skin include all of the following except:
  2. smog.
  3. light skin.
  4. sunscreen.
  5. limited sunlight.


  1. Like vitamin C, vitamin E is a potent antioxidant. However, unlike vitamin C, vitamin E
  2. is not available in supplement form.
  3. can neutralize free radicals.
  4. is fat soluble and therefore is found in cell membranes.
  5. is capable of donating electrons.


  1. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all newborns in the United States receive a vitamin K injection for all of the following reasons except:
  2. to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding.
  3. newborns do not have vitamin K-producing bacteria in their intestines.
  4. human milk contains very little vitamin K.
  5. vitamin K is lost as a result of bleeding during birth.


  1. Dietary supplements may be worth taking when
  2. you become an adult and you have stopped growing.
  3. you are able to purchase, prepare, and consume a diet that is balanced and adequate.
  4. you are changing to a dietary pattern that eliminates animal products.



Chapter 9 – Energy Balance and Body Weight Regulation




  1. If you are not attempting to gain or lose weight, you should strive to be in positive energy balance.
  2. Visceral adipose tissue located in the abdomen poses no risk for health problems.
  3. A waist circumference of 40 inches or greater in men or 35 inches or greater in women indicates an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
  4. The hypothalamus is the region of the brain that regulates hunger and satiety.
  5. Activities such as fidgeting and sitting up straight do not contribute to one’s total energy expenditure (TEE).
  6. Obesity increases one’s risk of developing type 2 diabetes, stroke, and heart disease.
  7. People tend to consume the amount of food they require based on energy needs even when they are presented with more food than needed.
  8. In response to changes in body fat mass, the brain signals changes in food intake but not energy expenditure.
  9. The most successful weight-loss strategy is to combine a reduction in energy intake with an increase in daily physical activity.
  10. Overweight and obese people can be physically fit.


Multiple Choice: Fact Recall Based



  1. During pregnancy, a period of rapid growth and development, one would desire a
  2. low energy intake.
  3. low energy expenditure.
  4. positive energy balance.
  5. negative energy balance.


  1. Hypertrophic growth of adipose tissue describes the process of
  2. formation of new adipocytes.
  3. adipocytes accumulating triglycerides so that their size increases.
  4. degradation of triglycerides within adipocytes.


  1. When a person loses weight, changes in body fat include
  2. a return to normal size of the previously enlarged adipocytes.
  3. a reduction in number of adipocytes.
  4. the generation of new adipocytes to replace the previously enlarged cells.
  5. the selective removal of enlarged adipocytes with replacement by new cells.


  1. Adipokines are hormones produced by adipocytes that
  2. initiate adipocyte hypertrophy.
  3. initiate adipocyte hyperplasia.
  4. control visceral adipose tissue but not subcutaneous adipose tissue.
  5. communicate with other tissues to help regulate energy balance.


  1. As a rule, total body fat exists
  2. mainly in the lower portion of the body (thighs, hips, buttocks).
  3. as a layer of fat beneath the skin.
  4. as visceral adipose tissue and subcutaneous adipose tissue.
  5. around the organs in the torso.


  1. Central obesity is best described as
  2. the predominant accumulation of subcutaneous adipose tissue around the torso.
  3. the predominant accumulation of visceral adipose tissue within the torso.
  4. the classic “pear shape” of adipose tissue distribution.
  5. the accumulation of adipose tissue around the brainstem and spinal cord.


  1. Hunger describes a(n) _____ drive to consume food, whereas appetite describes a _____ desire for food.
  2. constant, temporary
  3. emotional, intellectual
  4. physiological, psychological
  5. psychological, physiological


  1. An example of a physiological phenomenon initiating events that lead to a satiety signal in the brain is
  2. gastric stretching, which facilitates hormone release in the small intestine, thereby signaling satiety.
  3. gastric stretching, which causes blood glucose levels to rise and thereby signals satiety.
  4. gastric stretching, which elicits ghrelin secretion and signals satiety.
  5. gastric stretching, which signals satiety.


  1. Gastric bypass surgery entails
  2. placing a band around the stomach.
  3. diminishing the size of the stomach and bypassing a segment of the small intestine.
  4. bypassing the entire stomach by re-routing food directly into the small intestine.
  5. placing a tube for liquid food delivery directly into the small intestine.


  1. Total energy expenditure represents
  2. the amount of energy expenditure needed to balance the amount of energy consumed.
  3. the sum of all energy used by the body.
  4. the sum of all physical activity performed over time.
  5. the sum of energy used to keep the heart beating and nerves functioning.


  1. Total energy expenditure is composed of all of the following components except:
  2. basal metabolic rate.
  3. physical activity.
  4. energy losses through excretion.
  5. thermic effect of food.


  1. Adaptive thermogenesis and nonexercise activity thermogenesis are
  2. components of total energy expenditure.
  3. different names for the same energy expenditure.
  4. components of basal metabolism.
  5. heat-generating activities that improve or maintain physical fitness.


  1. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy expended per hour in order to carry out basic functions such as breathing and beating of the heart. The BMR makes up approximately _____ percent of the TEE.
  2. 20-40
  3. 30-50
  4. 50-70
  5. 70-90


  1. Which choice lists the components of total energy expenditure in order from highest contributor to lowest contributor?
  2. Basal metabolism, physical activity, thermic effect of food
  3. Thermic effect of food, physical activity, basal metabolism
  4. Physical activity, basal metabolism thermic effect of food
  5. Basal metabolism, thermic effect of food, physical activity


  1. The energy needed in order to digest, absorb, and metabolize nutrients after a meal is called
  2. adaptive thermogenesis.
  3. nonexercise activity thermogenesis.
  4. the thermic effect of food.
  5. Does not have a name


  1. Body mass index (BMI) is defined as
  2. a person’s waist–to-hip ratio.
  3. the ratio of the fat mass to fat-free mass.
  4. a person’s height divided by the square of their body weight.
  5. a person’s body weight divided by the square of their height.


  1. According to the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, which BMI category represents overweight?
  2. < 18.5
  3. 18.5-24.9
  4. 25.0-29.9
  5. ≥ 30


  1. The method of assessing body composition considered to be the “gold standard” is
  2. underwater weighing.
  3. dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA).
  4. bioelectrical impedance.
  5. skinfold thickness.


  1. Factors that contribute to the likelihood of becoming obese include
  2. large portion sizes.
  3. consumption of energy-dense foods, such as most fast foods.
  4. a sedentary lifestyle.
  5. genetics.
  6. All of the above


  1. Exercise is defined as
  2. planned, structured, and repetitive bodily movement intended to improve or maintain physical fitness.
  3. any bodily movement that results in energy expenditure.
  4. coordinated whole-body movements that require energy expenditure in both upper and lower extremities.
  5. intensive activity lasting at least 75 minutes per day.
  6. Leptin is a satiety-inducing hormone produced by the _____.
  7. hypothalamus
  8. pancreas
  9. adipose tissue
  10. thyroid gland


  1. How does leptin participate in body weight regulation?
  2. Leptin directly instructs adipose tissue to undergo hypertrophic growth during times of high energy intake.
  3. Leptin signals the release of neurotransmitters that promote satiety and energy expenditure.
  4. Increased leptin levels result in positive energy balance.
  5. Leptin directly instructs muscle tissue to expend less energy.


  1. Components of a healthy weight-loss program include all of the following except:
  2. choosing nutritious foods in moderation.
  3. choosing foods very low in fat.
  4. setting reasonable goals.
  5. increasing daily physical activity.


  1. Physical fitness can reduce blood pressure, lower blood glucose levels, and lower blood lipid levels in
  2. healthy-weight individuals.
  3. overweight individuals.
  4. obese individuals.
  5. All of the above


  1. The 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that adults engage in at least _____ of moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity.
  2. 15 days per month
  3. 4 days per week
  4. 150 minutes per week
  5. 60 minutes per day



Multiple Choice: Application Based



  1. When someone attempts to lose weight by decreasing caloric intake while at the same time increasing physical activity, that person is trying to be in a state of
  2. negative energy balance.
  3. positive energy balance.
  4. neutral energy balance.


  1. Measuring waist circumference will assist in determining
  2. the total fat content of the body.
  3. the risk of developing chronic diseases such as type 2 diabetes and hypertension.
  4. the amount of subcutaneous adipose tissue.
  5. the distribution of muscle and fat in the body.


  1. Which of the following statements regarding ghrelin is not true?
  2. Ghrelin is referred to as the hunger hormone.
  3. Ghrelin is released by cells in the stomach just after a meal.
  4. Blood levels of ghrelin decrease following a meal.
  5. If someone overproduced ghrelin, that person would not always experience a feeling of satiety after a meal.


  1. Gastric stretching, circulating nutrient levels, and ghrelin all participate in
  2. inhibition of food intake.
  3. stimulation of food intake.
  4. long-term regulation of food intake.
  5. short-term regulation of food intake.


  1. Food aversions and food cravings differ for a number of reasons. Which of the following is not a difference between the two factors?
  2. A food aversion is a strong dislike of a particular food, while a food craving is a strong desire for a particular food.
  3. A food aversion tends to persist for a long time, while food cravings can come and go.
  4. Food aversions are psychological factors, while food cravings are physiological factors.


  1. Imagine that you have just finished a very satisfying meal and you walk past a bakery full of freshly baked goods. If the sweet smells entice you to buy an item, it is likely that those smells have stimulated
  2. your appetite.
  3. ghrelin production.
  4. hunger.
  5. a food aversion.


  1. An example of adaptive thermogenesis is
  2. sitting up straight.
  3. shivering in the cold.
  4. fidgeting by moving your feet around during class.
  5. going for a swim on a hot day.


  1. Given the following characteristics, select the person who would have the highest BMR.
  2. A 50-year-old woman, 5’6” tall, who has been dieting on and off for 15 years.
  3. A 50-year-old man, 5’10” tall, who is 20 pounds overweight.
  4. A 20-year-old woman, 5’7” tall, who is very muscular.
  5. A 20-year-old man, 6 feet tall, who is very muscular.


  1. If a person consumes 2,000 kilocalories during a day, the thermic effect of food in that person on that day would be
  2. 5 to 10 kilocalories.
  3. 50 to 100 kilocalories.
  4. 100 to 200 kilocalories.
  5. 200 to 400 kilocalories.
  6. Which of the following statements about the fat compartment and the fat-free compartment of the body is false?
  7. The fat compartment consists of stored triglycerides and support structures, while the fat-free compartment consists of muscle, water, and bone.
  8. The amount of energy stored in the fat compartment is genetically determined and unchangeable, while the amount of fat-free mass can be increased through exercise.
  9. Recommendations for body fat levels are: between 12 and 20% of total body weight for men and between 20 and 30% of total body weight for women.
  10. The proportions of fat mass and fat-free mass change throughout the life cycle.


  1. Which method uses differences in the ability of lean and adipose tissues to conduct currents to estimate body composition?
  2. Underwater weighing
  3. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
  4. Bioelectrical impedance
  5. Skinfold thickness


  1. Which body composition method uses measurements of the density of fat mass and fat-free mass to determine a person’s percent body fat?
  2. Underwater weighing
  3. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
  4. Bioelectrical impedance
  5. Skinfold thickness


  1. Physical activity is defined as any bodily movement that results in energy expenditure. According to this definition, _____ would be considered physical activity.
  2. basal metabolism
  3. thermic effect of food
  4. nonexercise activity thermogenesis
  5. adaptive thermogenesis


  1. The ob/ob mouse is obese because it eats uncontrollably. By studying ob/ob mice, scientists discovered _____, a satiety signal that ob/ob mice cannot make because of a genetic mutation.
  2. ghrelin
  3. leptin
  4. the soluble leptin receptor
  5. the db gene product


  1. According to the set point theory,
  2. energy expenditure is increased when one tries to lose weight.
  3. changes in adipose tissue mass are communicated to the brain, resulting in changes in energy expenditure.
  4. a decrease in adipose tissue under a certain set point causes energy expenditure to increase.
  5. an increase in adipose tissue above a certain set point causes energy expenditure to decrease.


  1. The set point theory of body weight regulation suggests that when someone gains weight beyond his or her set point, signals are produced that cause an increase in _____ and a decrease in _____ such that weight loss is induced.
  2. exercise; nonexercise activity thermogenesis
  3. food intake; energy expenditure
  4. food aversions; food cravings
  5. energy expenditure; food intake


  1. Which of the following statements regarding leptin is false?
  2. When adipose tissue mass increases, less leptin is produced, and when adipose tissue mass decreases, more leptin is produced.
  3. Leptin is produced by adipose tissue.
  4. Leptin generates signals in the brain that regulate food intake and energy expenditure.
  5. Blood leptin levels are reflective of changes in the body’s main energy reserve.


  1. If a friend of yours wants to lose 15 pounds in 2 weeks on a very-low-calorie diet, what might you suggest is a more realistic goal?
  2. Weight loss of one or two pounds per week.
  3. Nothing; this is a completely realistic goal.
  4. Weight loss of 5 to 6 pounds per week.
  5. Reducing caloric intake by only 800 calories per day.


  1. A good strategy for moderating one’s diet in order to lose weight is to reduce intake of
  2. nutrient-dense foods.
  3. energy-dense foods.
  4. high-fiber foods.
  5. all fats.
  6. The premise of low-fat, high-carbohydrate weight-loss diets includes all of the following except:
  7. Lower fat intake results in lower energy intake since fat contains more calories per gram than carbohydrates or proteins..
  8. High-fat foods are more flavorful, leading to greater intake.
  9. Storage of fat is extremely efficient; therefore, consuming less means less efficient fat storage.
  10. High carbohydrate intake reduces the desire for fat-containing foods.

Chapter 11 – Nutrition and Physical Activity




  1. Weight-bearing exercise can stimulate bone formation and slow age-related bone loss.
  2. Recommended durations of physical activity can be achieved by exercising one day per week and activities thus do not need to be repeated on a daily basis.
  3. A single metabolic fuel and pathway are used to provide energy to muscles during physical activity.
  4. The creatine phosphate system can supply all the energy needed for activities that take several minutes.
  5. ATP production is faster using the oxidative system than using the glycolytic system.
  6. Muscles that are not frequently challenged by physical activity undergo hypertrophy.
  7. As long as an individual consumes a varied diet that supplies adequate energy, vitamin and mineral needs will likely be met.
  8. If left untreated heatstroke can lead to heat exhaustion.
  9. Water is adequate as a fluid source when a workout lasts less than an hour.
  10. After exercise, foods should be consumed only after waiting one hour.


Multiple Choice: Fact Recall Based



  1. Exercise is defined as
  2. an activity designed to increase endurance.
  3. a subcategory of physical activity.
  4. an activity designed to increase muscle mass.
  5. None of the above


  1. Physical activity is useful in weight management because it
  2. reduces energy expenditures.
  3. promotes increased body fat and decreased muscle mass.
  4. increases energy expenditure.
  5. increases appetite.


  1. A set of characteristics that one has or can achieve relating to one’s ability to perform physical activity is called
  2. muscular strength.
  3. physical fitness.
  4. cardiovascular fitness.
  5. None of the above


  1. The maximum force exerted by muscles during physical activity is called
  2. cardiovascular fitness.
  3. physical fitness.
  4. muscular strength.
  5. VO2 max.


  1. A measure of the circulatory and respiratory systems’ ability to supply oxygen and nutrients to working muscles during sustained physical activity is called
  2. physical fitness.
  3. muscular strength.
  4. cardiovascular fitness.
  5. VO2 max.


  1. Which of the following is not a component of physical fitness?
  2. Endurance
  3. Flexibility
  4. Muscular strength
  5. Visual acuity


  1. A measure one’s ability to exercise for an extended period of time without becoming fatigued is called
  2. endurance.
  3. flexibility.
  4. strength.
  5. physical fitness.


  1. Improvements in body composition, including increased muscle mass, are an outcome of
  2. a well-balanced physical fitness regimen.
  3. a cardiovascular fitness regimen.
  4. endurance and resistance training.
  5. All of the above


  1. The four factors of fitness are frequency, intensity, type, and
  2. time.
  3. temperature.
  4. tenacity.
  5. triumph.


  1. Frequency refers to
  2. how many repetitions of an exercise one performs.
  3. how often a person exercises.
  4. how many different exercises are performed within a given week.
  5. how frequently one rests between exercises.


  1. Intensity of physical activity
  2. can be monitored by the sprint test.
  3. refers to the amount of physical effort exerted through the activity.
  4. should always be maximal.
  5. has little to do with energy expenditure.


  1. Indirect calorimetry is
  2. a method to estimate energy expenditure based on oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production.
  3. a method used to estimate energy intake based on oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production.
  4. a method used to estimate energy expenditure based on oxygen production and carbon dioxide consumption.
  5. a method used to estimate energy intake based on oxygen production and carbon dioxide consumption.


  1. ATP is generated from the metabolic breakdown of
  2. glucose.
  3. fatty acids.
  4. amino acids.
  5. All the above


  1. The relative contributions of anaerobic and aerobic metabolic pathways to muscular energy production are determined by
  2. the intensity and duration of activity.
  3. the amounts of metabolic fuels consumed at the previous meal.
  4. the amount of rest a person has achieved.
  5. body composition.


  1. The creatine phosphate system is
  2. the first system to be utilized to generate ATP needs.
  3. the second system to be utilized to generate ATP.
  4. the final system utilized to generate ATP.
  5. the only system utilized to generate ATP.


  1. The three systems used to generate ATP are the creatine phosphate system, glycolytic system, and _____.
  2. adipose tissue system
  3. VO2 max
  4. oxidative system
  5. anaerobic system


  1. The glycolytic system operates under
  2. conditions when creatine phosphate is operating.
  3. conditions when available oxygen is plentiful.
  4. anaerobic conditions.
  5. aerobic conditions.


  1. Maximal oxygen consumption or VO2 max
  2. is a measure of the cardiovascular system’s capacity to deliver oxygen to muscles.
  3. cannot be changed because it is genetically determined.
  4. when high results in early fatigue.
  5. is only important in anaerobic activities.


  1. A technique used to maximize the amount of glycogen stored in muscle prior to an exercise activity is called
  2. glucose loading.
  3. aerobic conditioning.
  4. carbohydrate loading.
  5. creatine loading.


  1. While the protein RDA for a healthy adult protein is 0.8 g per kg body weight per day, some experts believe that athletes should consume more. These experts contend that endurance athletes should consume _____ g protein per kg per day and strength training athletes should consume _____ g protein per kg per day.
  2. 0.2-0.4, 0.6-0.7
  3. 1.2-1.4, 1.6-1.7
  4. 2.2-2.4, 2.6-2.7
  5. 3.2-3.4, 4.6-3.7


  1. Recommendations for fat intake for physically active individuals are
  2. to consume 40% of calories as fat.
  3. to consume equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
  4. to consume a diet rich in mono- and polyunsaturated fatty acids.
  5. to eat anything they want because they expend so much energy.


  1. Sports anemia refers to
  2. a serious iron-deficiency anemia that requires supplementation to correct.
  3. anemia that occurs because of the blood loss during an athletic event.
  4. a training response caused by increased plasma volume as compared to new red blood cell synthesis.
  5. the anemia associated with foot strike hemolysis.


  1. The purpose of sweating is to
  2. dissipate heat.
  3. remove electrolytes from the body.
  4. aid in weight loss.
  5. reduce urination.


  1. Excessive sweating with resulting decreased blood volume results in _____, which can progress to _____.
  2. heat exhaustion, heatstroke
  3. heatstroke, heat exhaustion
  4. dehydration, rehydration


  1. Hyponatremia refers to
  2. low intracellular sodium.
  3. high intracellular sodium.
  4. increased blood sodium concentrations.
  5. diminished blood sodium concentrations.




Multiple Choice: Application Based



  1. Considering the increased incidence of obesity, insulin resistance, and diabetes in our country, following physical activity recommendations would be
  2. beneficial because it would promote weight loss.
  3. dangerous because people would be at risk for other problems.
  4. ineffective since the incidence is too big to impact with physical activity.


  1. To improve cardiovascular fitness one should
  2. lift weights.
  3. work against resistance.
  4. walk at a brisk pace.
  5. improve muscle flexibility.


  1. An alternative to measuring heart rate during exercise is
  2. the talk test.
  3. to count the number of exhaled breaths per minute.
  4. to count the number of inhaled breaths per minute.
  5. the counting aloud test.


  1. If a 40-year-old man wishes to perform moderate-intensity exercise, his heart rate should be maintained between _____ and _____ beats per minute.
  2. 90, 126
  3. 100, 140
  4. 120, 168
  5. 130, 182


  1. According to the FITT principles,
  2. exercise should be performed daily at maximum intensity.
  3. exercise should be performed daily, at a low to moderate intensity level, for 30 to 45 minutes.
  4. it doesn’t matter how frequently you exercise as long as intensity is maximized.
  5. exercise should always be at low intensity and frequency.


  1. An example of an event that relies on anaerobic pathways is
  2. a 100-meter sprint (13 seconds).
  3. a 1500-meter run (6 minutes).
  4. a 10,000-meter run (35 minutes).
  5. a marathon (3 hours and 30 minutes).


  1. An example of an activity that utilizes mainly aerobic pathways is
  2. a weightlifting competition taking 10 seconds.
  3. a 200-meter sprint taking 26 seconds.
  4. a 400-meter run taking 60 seconds.
  5. a cross-country ski race taking 90 minutes.


  1. Within the glycolytic system, the lack of oxygen availability results in the conversion of _____.
  2. creatine phosphate to ATP
  3. lactate to pyruvate
  4. pyruvate to lactate
  5. glucose to ATP


  1. The major difference between anaerobic and aerobic pathways is that
  2. anaerobic pathways can generate a tremendous amount of ATP over an extended period of time.
  3. anaerobic pathways use a mixture of fuels to generate ATP.
  4. aerobic pathways use a mixture of fuels to generate ATP.
  5. anaerobic pathways can utilize stored fat to generate ATP.


  1. Hypertrophy of muscles is achieved in response to
  2. regular resistance training.
  3. ceasing strength training.
  4. infrequent exercise.
  5. flexibility sessions once a week.


  1. Engaging in exercise that results in increased heart rate, ventilation rate, and stroke volume will all improve
  2. cardiovascular fitness.
  3. VO2 max.
  4. the muscles’ capacity to utilize fatty acids for energy, thereby sparing glucose.
  5. All of the above


  1. A person who wants to improve his or her aerobic capacity should
  2. put an emphasis on strength training.
  3. put an emphasis on endurance training.
  4. put an emphasis on flexibility sessions.
  5. put an emphasis on muscle hypertrophy.


  1. Interval training is one way to improve anaerobic capacity. This means that
  2. muscles have a higher tolerance for lactate.
  3. muscles more readily cross over to aerobic ATP production.
  4. muscles can use lactate directly for ATP production.
  5. the VO2 max is improved.


  1. Two main concerns for people who participate in athletics are
  2. to consume adequate fluids and calories.
  3. to maintain a low body mass or maintain weight.
  4. to maximize fat stores to ensure ATP production
  5. to optimize water consumption and obtain vitamins and minerals from supplements rather than food.


  1. The rationale for the increased protein recommendations for athletes is
  2. the ability to utilize more protein for energy production.
  3. the need to build, maintain, and repair muscle tissue.
  4. the enhanced mental focus associated with increased protein intake.
  5. the need for protein only for muscle growth.
  6. Because the rate of muscle glycogen synthesis is highest the first _____ hours after exercise, people should consume carbohydrates during that window of time.
  7. 2
  8. 4
  9. 6
  10. 20


  1. Glycogen stores in the liver and muscle require _____ hours to be replenished after a long, intense athletic workout.
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 20
  5. 35


  1. Following prolonged and intense exercise, athletes should be concerned about
  2. glycogen replenishment.
  3. protein synthesis.
  4. water and electrolyte replacement.
  5. All the above


  1. Recommendations for fluid replacement are to drink at least _____ cup(s) of fluid for each pound of weight lost during exercise.
  2. ½
  3. 1
  4. 2
  5. 5


  1. An athlete completed a two-hour race 4 hours ago and has been sipping on water since the event ended. When she goes to the bathroom, she notices that her urine is dark in color. This is most likely a sign of
  2. blood in the urine.
  3. inadequate hydration.
  4. her vitamin and mineral supplement.
  5. food coloring in the foods she consumed after the race.