Test bank of Essentials of Anatomy & Physiology 6th Edition By Scanlon – Sanders

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Essentials of Anatomy & Physiology 6th Edition By Scanlon – Sanders

Chapter 6 (MC): The Skeletal System

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which statement is true of compact bone?
a. It is made of osteons (haversian systems) and found within flat and irregular bones.
b. It is made of osteons and found in the diaphysis of a long bone.
c. It is not made of osteons and is found in the diaphysis of a long bone.
d. It is not made of osteons and is found within flat and irregular bones.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which statement is true of spongy bone?
a. It is made of osteons (haversian systems) and found within flat and irregular bones.
b. It is made of osteons and found in the diaphysis of a long bone.
c. It is not made of osteons and is found in the diaphysis of a long bone.
d. It is not made of osteons and is found within flat and irregular bones.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of long bones?
a. The diaphysis is the shaft, made of compact bone.
b. An epiphysis is an end, made mostly of spongy bone.
c. Blood vessels are found in compact bone.
d. The marrow cavity contains yellow bone marrow, and is in the center of each epiphysis.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of osteons (haversian systems)?
a. They are found in compact bone.
b. They are found in spongy bone.
c. They contain osteocytes in rings of bone matrix.
d. They have a good blood supply.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The regulation of the calcium content of adult bones is a function of the:
a. osteocytes c. osteoclasts
b. osteoblasts d. fibroblasts

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The production of new bone matrix for growth or repair is a function of the:
a. osteocytes c. osteoclasts
b. osteoblasts d. fibroblasts

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The reabsorption of bone matrix is a function of the:
a. osteocytes c. osteoclasts
b. osteoblasts d. fibroblasts

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which statement is true of the cells of bone?
a. Osteocytes regulate the calcium metabolism of adult bones.
b. Osteoblasts blast away old bone when repair is needed.
c. Both A and B.
d. Both A and B, and osteoclasts produce new bone matrix.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The type of bone tissue that contains red bone marrow is:
a. spongy bone in the diaphysis of a long bone
b. compact bone in the diaphysis of a long bone
c. compact bone in flat and irregular bones
d. spongy bone in flat and irregular bones

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The spongy bone of flat and irregular bones contains:
a. osteons to produce new bone
b. adipose tissue to store energy
c. fibrous connective tissue for added strength
d. red bone marrow to produce blood cells

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Red bone marrow produces these cells:
a. WBCs, RBCs, and osteocytes c. RBCs, osteocytes, and platelets
b. platelets, RBCs, and WBCs d. platelets, osteocytes, and WBCs

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. All of the types of blood cells are produced by:
a. red bone marrow c. yellow bone marrow
b. bone tissue d. all of these

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of adult bone marrow?
a. Red bone marrow is found in flat bones.
b. A long bone has red bone marrow in the diaphysis.
c. Yellow bone marrow is mostly adipose tissue.
d. All RBCs are produced by red bone marrow.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. In the embryo, the bones of the skull are first made of:
a. bone c. fibrous connective tissue
b. cartilage d. elastic connective tissue

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. In the embryo, the bones that are first made of fibrous connective tissue are the bones of the:
a. rib cage c. backbone
b. arms and legs d. skull

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. In the embryo, bone matrix is produced by cells called:
a. osteoblasts c. osteoclasts
b. osteocytes d. fibroblasts

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. In the embryo frontal bone:
a. the first osteoblasts come from fibroblasts
b. the first osteoblasts begin a center of ossification
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and the osteoblasts secrete calcium salts

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the development of the skull before birth?
a. The cranial bones are first formed as cartilage.
b. Calcification begins in the third month of gestation.
c. Osteoblasts differentiate from fibroblasts.
d. Ossification is not complete at birth.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. An infant’s skull may be compressed slightly during birth without harming the brain because of the presence of:
a. thin cranial bones c. hinge joints
b. sutures d. fontanels

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The fontanels in an infant’s skull are made of:
a. fibrous connective tissue c. cartilage
b. bone d. elastic connective tissue

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The purpose of fontanels in the fetal skull is to:
a. permit compression of the skull during birth
b. allow for growth of the brain after birth
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and to contain red bone marrow

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. In the embryo, the bones of the arms and legs are first made of:
a. cartilage c. fibrous connective tissue
b. bone d. elastic connective tissue

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. In an embryonic long bone, centers of ossification are found in the:
a. diaphysis only
b. diaphysis and each epiphysis
c. diaphysis and distal epiphysis only
d. none of these, because the pattern depends on the particular bone

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. In the long bones of children, growth occurs at the:
a. center of the diaphysis c. ends of the epiphyses
b. entire length of the diaphysis d. epiphyseal discs

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the epiphyseal discs of long bones?
a. They are first made of cartilage.
b. Growth occurs when cartilage replaces bone on the diaphysis side.
c. Cartilage production on the epiphysis side makes the bone grow in length.
d. Growth stops when all the cartilage has been replaced by bone.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. In an embryonic femur, the marrow cavity is formed by the:
a. osteoclasts c. osteocytes
b. osteoblasts d. chondrocytes

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. In an embryonic femur, the osteoclasts form:
a. the primary center of ossification in the diaphysis
b. the secondary center of ossification in the distal epiphysis
c. the marrow cavity in the diaphysis
d. all of the centers of ossification

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The term genetic potential for height means:
a. how tall a child will be by age 10 c. how tall a person will become
b. the minimum height a person will become d. how tall a person may become

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. In the phrase “genes for height,” the word genes means:
a. proteins that become part of bone
b. parts of the RNA needed for the synthesis of calcium ions
c. parts of the DNA needed for the synthesis of calcium ions
d. parts of the DNA that code for enzymes for bone matrix synthesis

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. Which nutrient is NOT paired with its correct function with respect to bone growth?
a. calcium—becomes part of bone matrix
b. phosphorus—becomes part of bone matrix
c. vitamin D—becomes part of bone matrix
d. vitamin C—needed for the formation of bone matrix

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. The nutrient that is needed for the efficient absorption of calcium by the small intestine is:
a. vitamin D c. vitamin A
b. vitamin C d. vitamin B

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. Two nutrients that are needed to become part of bone matrix are:
a. calcium and vitamin D c. phosphorus and vitamin C
b. calcium and phosphorus d. phosphorus and vitamin D

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. Three nutrients that are needed to become part of bone matrix are:
a. protein, calcium, and vitamin D c. calcium, phosphorus, and protein
b. phosphorus, calcium, and vitamin C d. protein, vitamin C, and calcium

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. Two vitamins that are needed for the calcification process to synthesize bone matrix are:
a. vitamins A and E c. vitamins B and D
b. vitamins E and B d. vitamins C and A

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. The nutrient needed for bone growth that can be synthesized by the body is:
a. vitamin D c. vitamin A
b. vitamin C d. calcium

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. The protein that is part of bone matrix is:
a. collagen c. keratin
b. elastin d. bonetin

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. The hormone that increases the reabsorption of calcium from bones is:
a. thyroxine c. parathyroid hormone
b. calcitonin d. growth hormone

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The hormone that decreases the reabsorption of calcium from bones is:
a. thyroxine c. parathyroid hormone
b. calcitonin d. growth hormone

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The hormones that regulate the amount of calcium in the bones and the blood are:
a. PTH and calcitonin c. PTH and GH
b. thyroxine and calcitonin d. GH and thyroxine

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The hormone that increases the absorption of calcium from food in the small intestine is:
a. PTH c. GH
b. calcitonin d. thyroxine

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. In the body, the ___ are storage sites for calcium, which is needed in the blood for ___.
a. muscles/digestion c. cartilage/clotting
b. bones/clotting d. bones/digestion

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of PTH and calcitonin?
a. Calcitonin contributes to the maintenance of a strong bone matrix.
b. PTH increases the reabsorption of calcium from bones.
c. PTH increases the absorption of calcium by the small intestine.
d. Calcitonin is secreted by the pituitary gland.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The hormone in women that promotes closure of the epiphyseal discs is:
a. calcitonin c. progesterone
b. testosterone d. estrogen

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The hormone in men that promotes closure of the epiphyseal discs is:
a. calcitonin c. estrogen
b. progesterone d. testosterone

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The hormones that promote closure of the epiphyseal discs are:
a. insulin and thyroxine c. GH and insulin
b. thyroxine and GH d. estrogen and testosterone

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The phrase “closure of the epiphyseal discs” means that:
a. all cartilage is replaced by bone
b. cartilage production stops unless there is need for repair
c. calcium can no longer be taken in by osteocytes in these areas
d. the blood supply to these areas has been closed off

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The hormone that increases energy production from glucose only is:
a. insulin c. GH
b. thyroxine d. PTH

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The hormone that increases energy production from all food types is:
a. insulin c. GH
b. thyroxine d. PTH

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The hormones that contribute to bone growth by increasing the production of energy are:
a. insulin and thyroxine c. calcitonin and GH
b. thyroxine and calcitonin d. GH and PTH

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Thyroxine contributes to the growth of bones by:
a. increasing energy production
b. increasing protein synthesis
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and by increasing calcium absorption

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The hormone that increases cell division in growing bones is:
a. insulin c. GH
b. thyroxine d. PTH

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Growth hormone contributes to the growth of bones by:
a. increasing protein synthesis
b. increasing the rate of mitosis
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and by increasing the use of glucose for energy

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The hormones that contribute to bone growth by increasing the rate of protein synthesis are:
a. thyroxine and GH c. PTH and insulin
b. GH and PTH d. insulin and calcitonin

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of hormones and bone growth?
a. Thyroxine increases energy production from all foods.
b. Growth hormone increases mitosis.
c. Calcitonin helps keep calcium in bones.
d. Insulin increases protein synthesis and mitosis.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Which pair of bones directly helps to protect the brain?
a. maxilla and frontal c. parietal and mandible
b. zygomatic and temporal d. sphenoid and occipital

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. Which of these bones does NOT directly help protect the brain?
a. temporal c. frontal
b. zygomatic d. occipital

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. The temporal bone helps protect the sense organs for:
a. sight c. hearing
b. smell d. taste

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. Which bone does NOT help form the orbit?
a. parietal c. sphenoid
b. frontal d. lacrimal

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. The sphenoid and ethmoid bones are among the bones of the:
a. arm c. vertebral column
b. leg d. skull

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. The ethmoid bone helps protect the sensory receptors and nerves for:
a. smell c. taste
b. hearing d. touch

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. The cranial bone that encloses the pituitary gland is the:
a. sphenoid c. ethmoid
b. frontal d. temporal

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. The cranial bone that attaches the anterior meninges and forms part of the nasal septum is the:
a. sphenoid c. ethmoid
b. frontal d. none of these

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. Paranasal sinuses are found in all of these bones except the:
a. mandible c. sphenoid
b. maxillae d. frontal

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. Paranasal sinuses are found in all of these bones except the:
a. ethmoid c. frontal
b. zygomatic d. sphenoid

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The paranasal sinuses open into the:
a. middle ear c. brain
b. nasal cavities d. mouth

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The paranasal sinuses may become “stuffed up” because:
a. they are microscopic cavities
b. the mucus produced by their epithelium may block their outlets
c. their only outlets are to the cranial cavity
d. they have no outlets

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the paranasal sinuses?
a. They contain air. c. They provide resonance for the voice.
b. They are lined with ciliated epithelium. d. They make the skull heavier in weight.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. Which of these organs is NOT protected by the rib cage?
a. small intestine c. liver
b. lungs d. heart

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The rib cage protects the:
a. lungs c. both A and B
b. heart d. both A and B, and the spleen

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The seven pairs of ribs that articulate directly with the sternum are called:
a. true ribs c. floating ribs
b. false ribs d. spare ribs

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The three pairs of ribs that articulate indirectly with the sternum are called:
a. true ribs c. floating ribs
b. false ribs d. spare ribs

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The two pairs of ribs that do not articulate with the sternum are called:
a. true ribs c. floating ribs
b. false ribs d. spare ribs

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The number of pairs of each type of rib—true, false, and floating—in order, is:
a. 5, 3, 2 c. 8, 2, 2
b. 7, 5, 3 d. 7, 3, 2

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Which of these is NOT a part of the sternum?
a. coracoid process c. body
b. xiphoid process d. manubrium

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Which part of the sternum articulates with the clavicles?
a. coracoid process c. body
b. xiphoid process d. manubrium

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The manubrium of the ___ articulates with the ___.
a. sternum/clavicles c. clavicle/ribs
b. clavicle/sternum d. ribs/sternum

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The rib cage is directly involved in the functioning of which organ system?
a. respiratory c. circulatory
b. digestive d. endocrine

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the rib cage?
a. There are two pairs of floating ribs.
b. The manubrium of the sternum articulates with the false ribs.
c. The rib cage is pulled up and out during inhalation.
d. The xiphoid process is the most inferior part of the sternum.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The seven vertebrae in the neck are called:
a. cervical c. lumbar
b. thoracic d. sacral

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. The vertebrae in the neck are called ___ and there are ___ of them.
a. cervical/seven c. sacral/seven
b. lumbar/eight d. cervical/eight

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. The 12 vertebrae with which the ribs articulate are called:
a. cervical c. lumbar
b. thoracic d. sacral

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. The thoracic vertebrae articulate with the:
a. true ribs only c. all of the ribs except the floating ribs
b. true and false ribs only d. all of the ribs

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. The five vertebrae in the lower back are called:
a. cervical c. lumbar
b. thoracic d. sacral

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Between adjacent thoracic vertebrae are ___ joints.
a. hinge c. pivot
b. symphysis d. gliding

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Between adjacent lumbar vertebrae are ___ joints that are characterized by ___.
a. hinge/elastic connective tissue c. hinge/discs of cartilage
b. symphysis/discs of cartilage d. symphysis/elastic connective tissue

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. The five fused vertebrae with which the hip bones articulate are called:
a. cervical c. lumbar
b. thoracic d. sacral

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which of these is NOT a function of the vertebral column?
a. It provides direct attachment for the arms.
b. It provides direct attachment for the hip bones.
c. It supports the trunk and head.
d. It protects the spinal cord from mechanical injury.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the vertebral column?
a. The backbone is flexible because many joints are present.
b. The ribs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae.
c. Cartilage discs separate adjacent vertebrae.
d. The atlas and axis form a hinge joint to permit nodding of the head.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the shoulder and hip joints?
a. The scapula has a deeper socket than does the hip bone.
b. Both are ball-and-socket joints.
c. The hip joint is a weight-bearing joint, but the shoulder is not.
d. Both involve a long bone and a flat bone with a depression.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the shoulder and hip joints?
a. Both have a long bone that has a socket for a short bone.
b. Both permit movement in all planes.
c. The shoulder joint has a shallower socket.
d. The hip joint is considered weight bearing.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. The femur and hip bone form this type of joint:
a. symphysis c. hinge
b. ball and socket d. gliding

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. The frontal and parietal bones form this type of joint:
a. symphysis c. suture
b. gliding d. pivot

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. The two pubic bones form this type of joint:
a. gliding c. suture
b. pivot d. symphysis

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. The radius and ulna form this type of joint:
a. pivot c. saddle
b. ball and socket d. hinge

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. The humerus and ulna form this type of joint:
a. pivot c. saddle
b. hinge d. ball and socket

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. The carpal and metacarpal of the thumb form this type of joint:
a. hinge c. saddle
b. gliding d. ball and socket

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. Two adjacent vertebrae form this type of joint:
a. suture c. hinge
b. pivot d. symphysis

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. An example of a ball-and-socket joint is the:
a. humerus and scapula c. tibia and fibula
b. ulna and humerus d. radius and ulna

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. An example of a suture joint is the:
a. mandible and temporal bone c. clavicle and scapula
b. occipital and parietal bones d. two pubic bones

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a suture joint?
a. temporal and occipital c. frontal and ethmoid
b. temporal and mandible d. zygomatic and temporal

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. An example of a symphysis joint is:
a. scapula and humerus c. two vertebrae
b. frontal and parietal bones d. two carpals

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. An example of a hinge joint is the:
a. femur and hip bone c. tibia and fibula
b. radius and ulna d. femur and tibia

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a hinge joint?
a. two phalanges c. tibia and femur
b. ulna and humerus d. femur and fibula

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. An example of a pivot joint is the:
a. atlas and axis c. mandible and temporal bone
b. humerus and ulna d. carpal and metacarpal of the thumb

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. An example of a pivot joint is the:
a. axis and atlas c. both A and B
b. ulna and radius d. both A and B, and the tibia and fibula

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. An example of a saddle joint is the:
a. two phalanges c. tibia and fibula
b. carpal and metacarpal of the thumb d. tarsal and metatarsal of the big toe

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. An example of a condyloid joint is the:
a. mandible and maxilla c. mandible and temporal bone
b. atlas and axis d. radius and ulna

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. An example of a gliding joint is the joint between two:
a. vertebrae c. ribs
b. phalanges d. carpals

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. The part of a synovial joint that lines the joint capsule is the:
a. synovial membrane c. serous membrane
b. articular cartilage d. synovial fluid

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. The part of a synovial joint that provides a smooth surface on bones is the:
a. synovial membrane c. joint capsule
b. articular cartilage d. synovial fluid

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. The part of a synovial joint that encloses the joint in a strong sheath is the:
a. synovial membrane c. joint capsule
b. articular cartilage d. synovial fluid

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. The part of a synovial joint that prevents friction within the joint cavity is the:
a. synovial membrane c. joint capsule
b. articular cartilage d. synovial fluid

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. In a synovial joint, the synovial membrane:
a. lines the joint capsule c. both A and B
b. covers the articular cartilage d. both A and B, and prevents friction

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. In a synovial joint, the articular cartilage:
a. covers the joint surfaces of bones c. both A and B
b. lines the synovial membrane d. both A and B, and anchors tendons

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. In a synovial joint, the joint capsule:
a. encloses the entire joint c. both A and B
b. covers the articular cartilage d. both A and B, and anchors ligaments

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. In a synovial joint, the synovial fluid prevents friction:
a. within the joint cavity
b. between the articular cartilages
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and outside the joint capsule

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. All of the following are synovial joints except:
a. hinge joints c. saddle joints
b. sutures d. ball-and-socket joints

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. Which tissue is NOT an important part of synovial joints?
a. elastic connective tissue c. fibrous connective tissue
b. cartilage d. synovial membrane

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. Bones are connected to adjacent bones by:
a. tendons, made of fibrous connective tissue
b. tendons, made of elastic connective tissue
c. ligaments, made of elastic connective tissue
d. ligaments, made of fibrous connective tissue

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. The structures that connect bone to bone are:
a. tendons c. ligaments
b. periosteum d. bursae

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. The fibers of ligaments merge with the ___ of a bone.
a. periosteum c. diaphysis
b. epiphysis d. meriosteum

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the periosteum of a bone?
a. It covers a bone. c. It anchors tendons.
b. It lines a bone. d. It anchors ligaments.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. The structures that permit tendons to slide easily across a moving joint are:
a. ligaments c. bursae
b. tendons d. the bones themselves

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of synovial joints?
a. Synovial fluid prevents friction.
b. The joint capsule is made of elastic connective tissue.
c. Bursae permit tendons to slide across a joint.
d. Hinge joints are synovial joints.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of synovial joints?
a. Articular cartilages provide smooth surfaces.
b. The joint capsule is made of fibrous connective tissue.
c. The synovial membrane covers the joint capsule.
d. Pivot joints are synovial joints.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

Chapter 7 (MC): The Muscular System

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The organ system that transmits impulses to muscles to cause contraction is the:
a. nervous system c. skeletal system
b. circulatory system d. respiratory system

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The organ system that transports oxygen to muscles is the:
a. nervous system c. skeletal system
b. circulatory system d. respiratory system

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The organ system that forms a framework that is moved by muscles is the:
a. nervous system c. skeletal system
b. circulatory system d. respiratory system

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The organ system that exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air and blood is the:
a. nervous system c. skeletal system
b. circulatory system d. respiratory system

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The organ system that is not directly necessary for the functioning of the muscular system is the:
a. respiratory system c. skeletal system
b. nervous system d. digestive system

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of organ systems and movement?
a. The bones of the skeletal system are pushed by muscles.
b. The nervous system transmits impulses to cause contraction.
c. The circulatory system delivers oxygen to muscles.
d. The respiratory system gets oxygen into the blood.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of tendons?
a. They connect muscle to bone.
b. They are made of elastic connective tissue.
c. They are very strong.
d. The fibers of a tendon merge with the fascia around a muscle.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Tendons are made of ___ tissue, and are attached to the ___ of a muscle.
a. fibrous connective/fascia c. fibrous connective/periosteum
b. elastic connective/fascia d. elastic connective/periosteum

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The fascia of a muscle is its:
a. fibrous connective tissue sheath c. elastic connective tissue sheath
b. protein-contracting fibrils d. protein attachments to bones

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The structure that connects a muscle to a bone is called a:
a. fascia c. tendon
b. ligament d. myofibril

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Tendons are attached to the ___ of a muscle and the ___ of a bone.
a. fascia/diaphysis c. origin/diaphysis
b. fascia/periosteum d. origin/periosteum

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The more stationary attachment of a muscle to a bone is called the:
a. prime mover c. insertion
b. antagonist d. origin

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The more movable attachment of a muscle to a bone is called the:
a. antagonist c. origin
b. prime mover d. insertion

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The origin of a muscle is its:
a. more stationary attachment c. more movable attachment
b. junction with the fibers of its tendon d. junction with its motor nerve

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The insertion of a muscle is its:
a. more stationary attachment c. more movable attachment
b. junction with the fibers of its tendon d. junction with its motor nerve

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of gross muscle structure?
a. A tendon connects muscle to bone.
b. The more movable bone attachment is the insertion.
c. The fascia of a muscle merges with the ligaments of a bone.
d. The origin is the more stationary bone attachment.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Muscles with the same function are called:
a. synergists c. prime movers
b. antagonists d. secondary movers

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Muscles with opposite functions are called:
a. synergists c. prime movers
b. antagonists d. secondary movers

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Two muscles may be called synergists if:
a. they have the same function c. they have opposite functions
b. they are in the same part of the body d. one contracts while the other relaxes

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of synergistic muscles?
a. These include muscles that have the same function.
b. These include muscles that stabilize a joint to make a more precise movement possible.
c. The muscle that does most of the work is called the main muscle.
d. Synergists are needed because a bone may be in several different positions.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Muscles must be arranged in antagonistic pairs, because when a muscle contracts:
a. it lengthens and pulls at the same time c. it pulls one way and pushes another
b. it can only push a bone in one direction d. it can only pull a bone in one direction

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. An antagonist for a muscle on the posterior side of the thigh would be found on the:
a. anterior side of the thigh c. anterior side of the lower leg
b. medial side of the thigh d. posterior side of the lower leg

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. An antagonist for a muscle on the dorsal side of the trunk would be found on the:
a. ventral side of the trunk c. anterior side of the neck
b. posterior side of the trunk d. lateral side of the neck

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of antagonistic muscles?
a. They have opposite functions.
b. They push bones in opposite directions.
c. For useful movements, one contracts and the other relaxes.
d. They are on opposite sides of a joint.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The state of slight contraction present in healthy muscles is called:
a. muscle sense c. a twitch
b. muscle tone d. oxygen debt

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Muscle tone in a skeletal muscle is:
a. a state of slight contraction that does not depend upon nerve impulses
b. a state of prolonged contraction necessary to do efficient work
c. a state of slight contraction that depends upon nerve impulses
d. a state of relaxation to prepare for contraction

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Which of these is NOT a purpose of good muscle tone?
a. to improve coordination c. to help maintain posture
b. to produce body heat d. to perform strenuous exercise

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of muscle tone?
a. It produces body heat.
b. It depends upon nerve impulses.
c. A small number of muscle fibers in a muscle are contracted.
d. It is a state of slight contraction that does not require ATP.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of muscle sense?
a. The receptors are called stretch receptors.
b. The brain creates a mental picture of where the muscles are.
c. We don’t have to see our muscles to know where they are.
d. Muscle sense is not necessary for coordination.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. Muscle sense is important for:
a. heat production, especially in cold weather
b. coordination
c. increasing strength in muscles
d. relaxing when strenuous activity is over

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. Knowing where our muscles are without looking at them is called:
a. muscle sense, and involves stretch receptors in muscles
b. coordination, and involves stretch receptors in muscles
c. muscle sense, and involves stretch receptors in the brain
d. coordination, and involves stretch receptors in the brain

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. With respect to skeletal muscles, proprioceptors are important for:
a. muscle sense c. sustained muscle contractions
b. muscle tone d. the most strenuous muscle contractions

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. The part of the brain that initiates muscle contraction is the:
a. cerebrum: frontal lobes c. cerebrum: parietal lobes
b. cerebellum d. cerebrum: occipital lobes

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The frontal lobes of the cerebrum:
a. initiate muscle contraction c. integrate conscious muscle sense
b. coordinate muscle contraction d. integrate unconscious muscle sense

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The part of the brain that coordinates voluntary movement is the:
a. cerebrum: frontal lobes c. cerebrum: parietal lobes
b. cerebellum d. cerebrum: occipital lobes

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The part of the brain that integrates conscious muscle sense is the:
a. cerebrum: frontal lobes c. cerebrum: parietal lobes
b. cerebellum d. cerebrum: occipital lobes

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The part of the brain that uses unconscious muscle sense to promote coordination is the:
a. cerebrum: frontal lobes c. cerebrum: parietal lobes
b. cerebellum d. cerebrum: occipital lobes

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The cerebellum of the brain:
a. initiates muscle contraction and regulates muscle tone
b. regulates coordination and conscious muscle sense
c. initiates muscle contraction and regulates coordination
d. regulates muscle tone and unconscious muscle sense

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the muscles and the brain?
a. The cerebellum promotes coordination.
b. The parietal lobes of the cerebrum integrate conscious muscle sense.
c. Impulses from the brain are needed for voluntary movement.
d. The frontal lobes of the cerebellum initiate muscle contraction.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The direct energy source for muscle contraction is:
a. ATP c. oxygen
b. creatine phosphate d. glycogen

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The most abundant energy source for muscle contraction is:
a. ATP c. oxygen
b. creatine phosphate d. glycogen

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. With respect to muscles, glycogen is:
a. the most abundant energy source c. both A and B
b. stored in muscles d. both A and B, and is made of glucose

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The energy sources for muscle contraction, in the order in which they are used, are:
a. glycogen, ATP, creatine phosphate c. creatine phosphate, ATP, glycogen
b. ATP, creatine phosphate, glycogen d. ATP, glycogen, creatine phosphate

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. In muscle contraction, the energy source ___ produces the waste product ___, which is excreted by the kidneys.
a. glycogen/carbon dioxide c. glycogen/creatinine
b. ATP/carbon dioxide d. creatine phosphate/creatinine

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the energy sources for muscle contraction?
a. When ATP is used up, muscle fatigue begins.
b. Glycogen is a form of stored energy.
c. Glycogen is made from glucose.
d. Creatine phosphate is a secondary energy source.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the energy sources for muscle contraction?
a. The energy from creatine phosphate is used to make more ATP.
b. The ATP stored in muscles lasts only a few seconds.
c. The glycogen stored in muscles lasts only a few seconds.
d. The creatinine produced will be excreted by the kidneys.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. In cell respiration in muscles, the product that is a waste product is:
a. carbon dioxide c. heat
b. ATP d. water

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. In cell respiration in muscles, the product that is used for muscle contraction is:
a. carbon dioxide c. heat
b. ATP d. water

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. In cell respiration in muscles, the product that contributes to body temperature is:
a. carbon dioxide c. water
b. ATP d. heat

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of cell respiration in muscles?
a. ATP is the energy product used for contraction.
b. The water produced must be excreted.
c. Oxygen is required for the complete breakdown of glucose.
d. The carbon dioxide produced will be removed by the circulating blood.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. During muscle contraction, oxygen is brought to muscles by:
a. hemoglobin in blood plasma c. myoglobin in RBCs
b. hemoglobin in RBCs d. myoglobin in muscle cells

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. During muscle contraction, oxygen is stored in muscles by:
a. hemoglobin in blood plasma c. myoglobin in blood plasma
b. hemoglobin in muscles d. myoglobin in muscles

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. Both hemoglobin and myoglobin are able to bond to oxygen because they contain:
a. copper c. glucose
b. protein d. iron

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. The function of myoglobin is to:
a. store some oxygen in muscles c. carry oxygen to muscles in RBCs
b. carry oxygen to muscles in blood plasma d. store some oxygen in blood plasma

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. The mineral iron is important to muscles because it:
a. enables nerve impulses to reach muscle fibers
b. is part of myoglobin
c. is part of myosin
d. helps stop excessive nerve impulses to prevent fatigue

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of oxygen and muscles?
a. Myoglobin in muscles stores some oxygen.
b. Hemoglobin in RBCs brings oxygen to muscles.
c. Both hemoglobin and myoglobin are lipids that contain iron.
d. Muscle fibers must have oxygen to complete cell respiration.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. During strenuous exercise, the production of ___ when there is no ___ present in the muscle fibers contributes to muscle fatigue.
a. lactic acid/oxygen c. carbon dioxide/glucose
b. oxygen/lactic acid d. lactic acid/carbon dioxide

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. A contributing factor to fatigue in exercising muscles is:
a. lactic acid c. creatine phosphate
b. oxygen d. carbonic acid

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. When lactic acid accumulates in exercising muscle cells, the result is:
a. contraction debt c. tetanus
b. fatigue d. spasm

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The term oxygen debt means:
a. breathing has stopped and there is no oxygen in the blood
b. muscles lack the oxygen needed to complete cell respiration
c. the liver owes the muscles some oxygen
d. there is too little oxygen in the lungs

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. In the neuromuscular junction, the space between the neuron and the muscle fiber is called the:
a. synapse c. sarcolemma
b. axon terminal d. sarcomere

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. In the neuromuscular junction, the end of the motor neuron is called the:
a. synapse c. sarcolemma
b. axon terminal d. sarcomere

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. In the neuromuscular junction, the membrane of the muscle fiber is called the:
a. muscle terminal c. sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. sarcomere d. sarcolemma

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. At the neuromuscular junction, the axon terminal contains:
a. acetylcholine to be stored when an impulse arrives
b. cholinesterase to return the impulse to the neuron
c. acetylcholine to transmit the impulse to the muscle fiber
d. cholinesterase to prevent unwanted continuous contractions

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. At the neuromuscular junction, the sarcolemma contains:
a. acetylcholine to be stored when an impulse arrives
b. cholinesterase to return the impulse to the neuron
c. acetylcholine to transmit the impulse to the muscle fiber
d. cholinesterase to prevent unwanted continuous contractions

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the neuromuscular junction?
a. The axon terminal is the end of the sensory neuron.
b. The neuron and muscle fiber are separated by a synapse.
c. Cholinesterase inactivates acetylcholine.
d. The sarcolemma is the membrane of the muscle fiber.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The units of contraction within a muscle fiber are called:
a. sarcolemmas c. troponin and myosin
b. sarcomeres d. sarcoplasmic reticulums

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. The sarcoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber contains:
a. sodium ions c. cholinesterase
b. myosin and actin d. calcium ions

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Within a sarcomere, the contracting proteins are:
a. myosin and actin c. actin and troponin
b. troponin and myosin d. myoglobin and myosin

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. In a muscle fiber, calcium ions are stored in the:
a. sarcolemma c. myosin filaments
b. sarcomere d. sarcoplasmic reticulum

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. In a muscle fiber, myosin and actin are the:
a. contracting proteins c. energy proteins
b. inhibiting proteins d. impulse proteins

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. In a muscle fiber, the Z lines are the:
a. end lines of a sarcomere, and actin filaments are attached
b. center lines of a sarcomere, and actin filaments are attached
c. end lines of a sarcomere, and myosin filaments are attached
d. center lines of a sarcomere, and myosin filaments are attached

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of sarcomeres?
a. Calcium ions are stored in the sarcolemma.
b. Myosin filaments are in the center.
c. Actin filaments are attached to the Z lines.
d. Sarcomeres are the units of contraction.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. During a state of polarization, the sarcolemma has a ___ charge outside and a ___ charge inside.
a. negative/positive c. positive/neutral
b. negative/neutral d. positive/negative

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. During a state of polarization, ___ ions are abundant outside the cell, and ___ ions are abundant inside the cell.
a. potassium/sodium c. sodium/potassium
b. calcium/sodium d. sodium/calcium

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. During depolarization:
a. sodium ions rush into the cell c. sodium ions rush out of the cell
b. potassium ions rush into the cell d. potassium ions rush out of the cell

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. During depolarization, the sarcolemma has a ___ charge outside and a ___ charge inside.
a. negative/neutral c. positive/neutral
b. negative/positive d. positive/negative

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. During repolarization:
a. sodium ions rush into the cell c. sodium ions rush out of the cell
b. potassium ions rush into the cell d. potassium ions rush out of the cell

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. When repolarization takes place, the sarcolemma has a ___ charge outside and a ___ charge inside.
a. negative/positive c. positive/negative
b. negative/neutral d. positive/neutral

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. Depolarization of a muscle fiber is stimulated by:
a. potassium ions c. cholinesterase
b. calcium ions d. acetylcholine

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. The effect of acetylcholine on the sarcolemma is to make it:
a. more permeable to potassium ions c. less permeable to sodium ions
b. less permeable to potassium ions d. more permeable to sodium ions

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the electrical events at the sarcolemma?
a. During polarization there is a positive charge outside.
b. Depolarization creates a reversal of charges.
c. Repolarization involves the outflow of potassium ions.
d. Depolarization is stimulated by cholinesterase.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. In the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction, the stimulus for contraction is:
a. acetylcholine c. troponin and tropomyosin
b. myosin and actin d. calcium ions

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. In the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction, the proteins that slide past each other as the muscle fiber shortens are:
a. myoglobin and myosin c. actin and troponin
b. actin and myosin d. troponin and tropomyosin

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. In the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction, the proteins that inhibit contraction are:
a. actin and troponin c. troponin and tropomyosin
b. myoglobin and myosin d. troponin and myosin

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. In the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction, the inhibiting proteins are moved out of the way by:
a. sodium ions c. potassium ions
b. iron ions d. calcium ions

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. When a muscle fiber contracts, the energy from ATP is released by:
a. acetylcholine c. troponin
b. actin d. myosin

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. A single muscle fiber contraction is called a ___, and the sustained contraction of a muscle fiber is called ___.
a. twitch/prolonged twitch c. twitch/tetanus
b. tetanus/coordination d. tetanus/extended action potential

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. When nerve impulses arrive so rapidly that a muscle fiber has no chance to relax, the result is:
a. a sustained contraction c. both A and B
b. tetanus d. both A and B, and loss of calcium ions

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction?
a. Actin pulls myosin to shorten the sarcomere.
b. Calcium ions bond to troponin.
c. Troponin is an inhibiting protein.
d. The stimulus is depolarization.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. During exercise, the purpose of increased sweating is to:
a. remove excess body heat c. increase the removal of carbon dioxide
b. circulate more blood to muscles d. increase the blood supply within muscles

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. During exercise, the main purpose of increased heart rate is to:
a. remove excess body heat c. bring more glucose to muscles
b. circulate more blood to muscles d. increase the blood supply within muscles

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. During exercise, one purpose of increased respiration is to:
a. remove excess body heat c. get rid of carbon dioxide more rapidly
b. circulate more blood to muscles d. increase the blood supply within muscles

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. During exercise, the purpose of vasodilation in muscles is to:
a. remove excess body heat c. supply carbon dioxide
b. pump more blood to muscles d. increase the blood supply within muscles

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. During exercise, the blood supply of muscles is increased by:
a. vasodilation c. increased respiratory rate
b. vasoconstriction d. none of the above

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. During exercise, excess heat is removed from the body by:
a. vasoconstriction c. increased sweating
b. increased heart rate d. increased cell respiration

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of responses to exercise?
a. Increased heart rate pumps more blood to muscles.
b. Carbon dioxide is removed rapidly by increased respiration.
c. More heat is produced as cell respiration decreases.
d. Blood flow within muscles is increased by vasodilation.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. The muscle on the lateral surface of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the:
a. deltoid c. biceps brachii
b. triceps brachii d. pectoralis major

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the deltoid muscle is to:
a. lower the shoulder c. extend the forearm
b. flex the forearm d. abduct the arm

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the back of the arm that extends the forearm is the:
a. deltoid c. biceps brachii
b. triceps brachii d. pectoralis major

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the triceps brachii is to:
a. raise the shoulder c. extend the forearm
b. flex the forearm d. flex the arm

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the front of the arm that flexes the forearm is the:
a. deltoid c. biceps brachii
b. triceps brachii d. pectoralis major

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the biceps brachii is to:
a. flex the forearm c. flex the wrist
b. extend the forearm d. extend the wrist

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the posterior side of the shoulder that raises the shoulder is the:
a. latissimus dorsi c. teres major
b. pectoralis major d. trapezius

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the trapezius is to:
a. raise the shoulder c. both of these
b. lower the shoulder d. neither of these

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the anterior side of the trunk that flexes and adducts the arm is the:
a. latissimus dorsi c. teres major
b. pectoralis major d. trapezius

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the pectoralis major is to:
a. flex the arm c. both of these
b. adduct the arm d. neither of these

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the posterior side of the trunk that extends and adducts the arm is the:
a. latissimus dorsi c. trapezius
b. pectoralis major d. triceps brachii

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the latissimus dorsi is to:
a. extend the arm c. both of these
b. abduct the arm d. neither of these

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle around the eye that closes the eye is the:
a. orbicularis oris c. orbicularis oculi
b. masseter d. orbicularis winkus

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the orbicularis oculi is to:
a. open the eye c. constrict the pupil
b. cross the eye d. close the eye

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle around the mouth that puckers the lips is the:
a. masseter c. buccinator
b. sternocleidomastoid d. orbicularis oris

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the orbicularis oris is to:
a. pucker the lips c. raise the jaw
b. lower the jaw d. pull the lips back

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle of the face that raises the mandible is the:
a. orbicularis oris c. buccinator
b. masseter d. anterior mandibularis

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the masseter is to:
a. raise the jaw c. open the mouth
b. lower the jaw d. wiggle the ear

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the ventral side of the abdomen that flexes the vertebral column is the:
a. rectus abdominis c. gluteus maximus
b. sacrospinalis group d. iliopsoas

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the rectus abdominis is to:
a. extend the vertebral column c. extend the thigh
b. flex the thigh d. flex the vertebral column

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the dorsal side of the trunk that extends the vertebral column is the:
a. rectus abdominis c. gluteus maximus
b. sacrospinalis group d. iliopsoas

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the sacrospinalis group is to:
a. flex the neck c. extend the vertebral column
b. flex the vertebral column d. flex the sacrum

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle of the pelvic floor that supports the pelvic organs is the:
a. gluteus medius c. levator ani
b. gluteus maximus d. external anal sphincter

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the levator ani is to:
a. support the pelvic organs c. both of these
b. open the anus d. neither of these

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the buttock that extends the thigh is the:
a. gluteus medius c. gluteus maximus
b. sacrospinalis d. iliopsoas

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the gluteus maximus is to:
a. stabilize the vertebral column c. flex the thigh
b. extend the thigh d. flex the vertebral column

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle in the inguinal area that flexes the thigh is the:
a. gluteus medius c. gluteus maximus
b. sacrospinalis d. iliopsoas

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the iliopsoas is to:
a. flex the thigh c. extend the ilium
b. extend the thigh d. abduct the ilium

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the anterior thigh that flexes the thigh is the:
a. quadriceps femoris c. gluteus medius
b. hamstring group d. adductor group

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the quadriceps femoris is to:
a. flex the thigh c. both of these
b. extend the leg d. neither of these

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the posterior thigh that extends the thigh is the:
a. quadriceps femoris c. gluteus medius
b. hamstring group d. adductor group

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the hamstring group is to:
a. flex the thigh c. both of these
b. extend the lower leg d. neither of these

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the lateral side of the hip that abducts the thigh is the:
a. quadriceps femoris c. gluteus medius
b. hamstring group d. adductor group

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the gluteus medius is to:
a. abduct the thigh c. adduct the thigh
b. abduct the leg d. adduct the leg

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the medial side of the thigh that adducts the thigh is the:
a. quadriceps femoris c. gluteus medius
b. hamstring group d. adductor group

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the adductor group is to:
a. adduct the thigh c. both of these
b. flex the lower leg d. neither of these

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the anterior side of the thigh that flexes the lower leg is the:
a. sartorius c. tibialis anterior
b. hamstring group d. gastrocnemius

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the sartorius is to:
a. flex the thigh c. both of these
b. flex the lower leg d. neither of these

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the anterior thigh that extends the lower leg is the:
a. sartorius c. tibialis anterior
b. quadriceps femoris d. gastrocnemius

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the anterior lower leg that dorsiflexes the foot is the:
a. sartorius c. tibialis anterior
b. soleus d. gastrocnemius

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the tibialis anterior is to:
a. flex the leg c. dorsiflex the foot
b. extend the leg d. plantar flex the foot

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The muscle on the posterior lower leg that plantar flexes the foot is the:
a. sartorius c. tibialis anterior
b. quadriceps femoris d. gastrocnemius

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. The function of the gastrocnemius is to:
a. extend the leg c. both of these
b. plantar flex the foot d. neither of these

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. Which muscle is NOT paired with its correct function?
a. rectus abdominis – extends vertebral column
b. deltoid – abducts arm
c. tibialis anterior – dorsiflexes foot
d. orbicularis oris – puckers lips

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. Which muscle is NOT paired with its correct function?
a. triceps brachii – extends forearm c. hamstring group – extends thigh
b. latissimus dorsi – flexes arm d. orbicularis oculi – closes eye

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. Which muscle is NOT paired with its correct function?
a. biceps brachii – flexes forearm c. gluteus maximus – flexes thigh
b. trapezius – raises shoulders d. masseter – raises mandible

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. Which muscle is NOT paired with its correct function?
a. pectoralis major – flexes arm c. gastrocnemius – plantar flexes foot
b. quadriceps femoris – flexes thigh d. sternocleidomastoid – flexes sternum

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. Which muscle is NOT paired with a synergist?
a. gastrocnemius and soleus c. brachioradialis and biceps brachii
b. iliopsoas and quadriceps femoris d. gluteus medius and adductor group

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. Which muscle is NOT paired with a synergist?
a. gluteus maximus and hamstring group c. rectus abdominus and external oblique
b. latissimus dorsi and teres major d. pectoralis major and triceps brachii

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. Which muscle is NOT paired with an antagonist?
a. external intercostals and internal intercostals
b. semispinalis capitis and sternocleidomastoid
c. triceps brachii and biceps brachii
d. deltoid and brachioradialis

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17

 

  1. Which muscle is NOT paired with an antagonist?
a. rectus abdominis and sacrospinalis c. tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius
b. pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi d. semispinalis capitis and trapezius

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 17