Test bank Of Foundations in Microbiology 9Th ed By Talaro

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Foundations in Microbiology 9Th ed By Talaro

ch06
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Viruses have all the following except
A. definite shape.
B. metabolism.
C. genes.
D. ability to infect host cells.
E. ultramicroscopic size.
2. Host cells of viruses include
A. human and other animals.
B. plants and fungi.
C. bacteria.
D. protozoa and algae.
E. All of the choices are correct.
3. The core of every virus particle always contains
A. DNA.
B. capsomers.
C. enzymes.
D. DNA and RNA.
E. either DNA or RNA.
4. Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except
A. type of nucleic acid.
B. type of capsid.
C. presence of an envelope.
D. biochemical reactions.
E. nucleic acid strand number.
5. Which of the following represents a virus family name?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Herpesviridae
C. Picornavirus
D. Enterovirus
E. Hepatitis B virus
6. Virus capsids are made from subunits called
A. envelopes.
B. spikes.
C. capsomeres.
D. prophages.
E. peplomers.
7. Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus
A. spike.
B. capsomere.
C. envelope.
D. capsid.
E. core.
8. Which of the following is correct about viruses?
A. cannot be seen with a light microscope
B. are prokaryotic
C. contain 70S ribosomes
D. undergo binary fission
E. can be grown on nutrient agar
9. All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they
A. are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane.
B. are gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane.
C. contain special virus proteins.
D. help the virus particle attach to host cells.
E. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.
10. Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
A. envelope
B. capsomers
C. capsid
D. nucleic acid
E. genome
11. These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors.
A. sheath
B. tail fibers
C. nucleic acid
D. capsid head
E. None of the choices are correct.
12. Which is incorrect about prophages?
A. present when the virus is in lysogeny
B. formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
C. replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
D. cause lysis of host cells
E. occur when temperate phages enter host cells
13. T-even phages
A. include the poxviruses.
B. infect Escherichia coli cells.
C. enter host cells by engulfment.
D. have helical capsids.
E. All of the choices are correct.
14. The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
A. penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release.
B. replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release.
C. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release.
D. assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption.
E. adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration.
15. The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication
is
A. adsorption to the host cells.
B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.
C. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins.
D. assembly of nucleocapsids.
E. replication of viral nucleic acid.
16. Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during
A. replication.
B. assembly.
C. adsorption.
D. release.
E. penetration.
17. Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
A. live lab animals
B. embryonated bird eggs
C. primary cell cultures
D. continuous cell cultures
E. blood agar
18. In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell’s _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the
host cell’s _____.
A. nucleus, cytoplasm
B. cytoplasm, cell membrane
C. cell membrane, cytoplasm
D. cytoplasm, nucleus
E. nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum
19. Host range is limited by
A. type of nucleic acid in the virus.
B. age of the host cell.
C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane.
D. size of the host cell.
E. All of the choices are correct.
20. The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called
A. lysogeny.
B. budding.
C. plaques.
D. cytopathic effects.
E. pocks.
21. Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called
A. lysogeny.
B. budding.
C. plaques.
D. cytopathic effects.
E. pocks.
22. Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called
A. lysogeny.
B. budding.
C. plaques.
D. cytopathic effects.
E. pocks.
23. Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity
without symptoms are called
A. latent
B. oncogenic.
C. prions.
D. viroids.
E. delta agents.
24. Oncogenic viruses include all the following except
A. Hepatitis B virus.
B. Measles virus.
C. Papillomavirus.
D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses.
E. Epstein-Barr virus.
25. Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?
A. inclusions in the nucleus
B. multinucleated giant cells
C. inclusions in the cytoplasm
D. cells round up
E. All of the choices are correct.
26. Uncoating of viral nucleic acid
A. does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication.
B. involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid.
C. occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle.
D. occurs before replication.
E. All of the choices are correct.
27. Infectious protein particles are called
A. viroids.
B. phages.
C. prions.
D. oncogenic viruses.
E. spikes.
28. Infectious naked strands of RNA are called
A. viroids.
B. phages.
C. prions.
D. oncogenic viruses.
E. spikes.
29. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is
A. caused by a chronic latent virus.
B. initiated by an oncogenic virus.
C. caused by a viroid.
D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans.
E. also called “mad cow disease”.
30. Satellite viruses are
A. also called viroids.
B. dependent on other viruses for replication.
C. the cause of spongiform encephalopathies.
D. significant pathogens of plants.
E. All of the choices are correct.
31. All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except
A. viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria.
B. many antiviral drugs block viral replication.
C. many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects.
D. interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections.
E. All of the choices are correct.
32. The capsomers are made of
A. DNA.
B. RNA.
C. lipids.
D. protein.
E. carbohydrate.
33. Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered
A. simple viruses.
B. complex viruses.
C. naked viruses.
D. viroids.
E. incomplete viruses.
34. The nucleocapsid consists of
A. the capsomers assembled into the capsid.
B. the nucleic acid of the virus only.
C. the nucleic acid along with the capsid.
D. the envelope and capsid.
E. the envelope, nucleic acid, and capsid.
35. Which of the following parts of a virus is not always present?
A. envelope
B. nucleic
acid
C. capsid
D. capsomers
E. None of the choices are optional parts of a virus.
36. Which of the following viruses did D. Ivanovski and M. Beijerinck work with?
A. Rabies
B. Smallpox
C. Tobacco Mosaic Virus
D. Herpes
E. Epstein-Barr virus
37. Viruses belong to which of the following Kingdoms?
A. Protists
B. Fungi
C. Archaea
D. Bacteria
E. None of the choices are correct.
38. Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
A. digestive
B. genitourinary
C. nervous
D. circulatory
E. respiratory
39. When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means
A. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.
B. the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane.
C. the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid.
D. the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host.
E. the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.
40. All of the following are characteristics of viruses except
A. they can be crystallized.
B. they often have a geometric capsid.
C. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids.
D. they can cause fatal diseases.
E. they can cause mild diseases.
41. How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host?
A. Budding or exocytosis
B. Bursting the host cell
C. Rupturing the virus
D. Endocytosis
E. None of these are correct
42. Clostridium botulinum is made virulent by incorporated prophage genes encoding for the botulinum
toxin. What term describes this process?
A. Lytic phase
B. Budding
C. Adsorption
D. Lysogenic conversion
E. Latent phase
43. Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm.
True False
44. Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid.
True False
45. Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle.
True False
46. Viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections.
True False
47. The International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses has determined that there are only three orders of
viruses.
True False
48. Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration.
True False
49. When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host
cell.
True False
50. Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs.
True False
51. No cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob syndrome linked to eating infected cows have occurred in the
United States.
True False
52. The adeno-associated virus (AAV) and the delta agent are prions.
True False
53. A(n) _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
________________________________________
54. Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _____.
________________________________________
55. Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient’s blood for specific _____ that the
immune system produced against the virus.
________________________________________
56. Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called _____, and the infectious
RNA strands called _____.
________________________________________
57. Viruses with _____ sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _____
sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message.
________________________________________
58. Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer
is referred to as a _____ cell culture.
________________________________________
59. One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n)
_____ capsid.
________________________________________
60. A naked virus does not have a(n) _____.
________________________________________
61. During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the _____ _____.
________________________________________
62. A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures.
________________________________________
63. Discuss at least six characteristics that are unique to viruses compared to other microorganisms.
64. Discuss the criteria used for classifying viruses into families and genera.
65. Compare and contrast the steps of viral multiplication cycles in bacteriophages and animal viruses.
66. Explain what is meant by host range, what governs host range, and what is meant by tissue tropism.
67. Discuss why it is difficult to trace the origins of viruses and why they are important.
68. Compare and contrast viruses, prions, and viroids.
ch06 Key
1. B
2. E
3. E
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. E
10. A
11. B
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. D
17. E
18. A
19. C
20. D
21. C
22. E
23. A
24. B
25. E
26. E
27. C
28. A
29. D
30. B
31. A
32. D
33. C
34. C
35. A
36. C
37. E
38. C
39. A
40. C
41. A
42. D
43. FALSE
44. FALSE
45. TRUE
46. FALSE
47. TRUE
48. FALSE
49. TRUE
50. TRUE
51. TRUE
52. FALSE
53. capsid
54. bacteriophages
55. antibodies
56. prions, viroids
57. positive, negative
58. primary
59. icosahedral
60. envelope
61. bacterial chromosome
62. cell
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
ch06 Summary
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reproduction and the
frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer.
1
ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their uniq
ue structures and genomes.
3
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translatio
n differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.
1
ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. 6
ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral
or detrimental ways.
41
ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. 1
ASM Objective: 06.04 Because the true diversity of microbial life is largely unknown, its effects and potential benefits have not be
en fully explored.
1
ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). 1
ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution 3
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 27
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow 6
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems 41
ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms 2
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills 1
Learning Outcome: 06.01 Indicate how viruses were discovered and characterized. 1
Learning Outcome: 06.02 Describe the unique characteristics of viruses. 8
Learning Outcome: 06.03 Discuss the origin and importance of viruses. 1
Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses. 10
Learning Outcome: 06.05 Distinguish among types of capsids and nucleocapsids. 7
Learning Outcome: 06.06 Describe envelopes and spikes, and discuss their origins. 7
Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the functions of capsids, nucleocapsids, envelopes, and spikes. 5
Learning Outcome: 06.08 Summarize the different viral groups based on their basic structure. 4
Learning Outcome: 06.09 Explain the classification scheme used for viruses. 5
Learning Outcome: 06.10 Indicate the characteristics used in identifying and naming viruses. 1
Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. 14
Learning Outcome: 06.12 Relate the stages in the multiplication cycle of animal viruses, and summarize what is happening in each
stage.
5
Learning Outcome: 06.13 Describe three ways that animal viruses enter into a host cell. 1
Learning Outcome: 06.15 Explain two ways that animal viruses are released by a host cell. 3
Learning Outcome: 06.16 Describe cytopathic effects of viruses and the possible results of persistent viral infections. 3
Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe the stages in the multiplication cycle of bacteriophages. 6
Learning Outcome: 06.18 Explain what is meant by lysogeny, prophage, and lysogenic induction and conversion. 5
Learning Outcome: 06.19 Compare the major stages in multiplication of animal viruses and bacteriophage. 4
Learning Outcome: 06.20 Describe the general purposes of cultivating viruses. 3
Learning Outcome: 06.21 Compare the methods and uses of cell culture, bird embryos, and live animals in growing viruses. 6
Learning Outcome: 06.22 Discuss the medical impact and importance of viruses. 8
Learning Outcome: 06.23 Explain how animal viral infections are treated and detected. 2
Learning Outcome: 06.24 Describe the properties of nonviral infectious particles. 5
Learning Outcome: 06.25 Discuss the importance of prions and viroids and the diseases they cause. 7
Talaro – Chapter 06 68
Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 9
Topic: General Viral Properties 24
Topic: History of Microbiology 1
Topic: Prions 7
Topic: Viral Classification 5
Topic: Viral Replication 17
Topic: Viral Structure 18

 

ch07
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism
A. Element
B. Macronutrient
C. Water
D. Growth factor
E. Trace element
2. Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein
structure
A. Element
B. Macronutrient
C. Water
D. Growth factors
E. Trace element
3. What compound has the highest concentration in a cell?
A. CO2
B. CH4
C. H2O
D. Glucose
E. NH3
4. Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from
A. Inorganic compounds
B. Minerals
C. Water
D. Organic compounds
E. Salts
5. Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell?
A. Copper
B. Carbon
C. Hydrogen
D. Nitrogen
E. Oxygen
6. An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an
A. Element
B. Macronutrient
C. Water
D. Growth factor
E. Trace element
7. An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is
A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
E. Potassium
8. An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes
is
A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
E. Potassium
9. The term autotroph refers to an organism that:
A. Uses CO2 for its carbon source
B. Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C. Gets energy from sunlight
D. Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E. Does not need a carbon source
10. The term heterotroph refers to an organism that
A. Uses CO2 for its carbon source
B. Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C. Gets energy from sunlight
D. Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E. Does not need a carbon source
11. Calcium is required for bacteria because
A. It stabilizes the cell wall
B. It stabilizes the ribosomes
C. It stabilizes the nucleoid
D. It maintains cellular pH
E. It makes strong bones
12. Growth factors
A. Are inorganic
B. Are synthesized by organism
C. Contain elemental oxygen
D. Cannot be synthesized by the organism
E. All of the choices are correct
13. An organism that uses CO2 for its carbon needs and sunlight for its energy needs would be called a/an
A. Heterotroph
B. Photoautotroph
C. Chemoheterotroph
D. Saprobe
E. Halotroph
14. The term phototroph refers to an organism that
A. Uses CO2 for its carbon source
B. Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C. Gets energy from sunlight
D. Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E. Does not need a carbon source
15. The term chemotroph refers to an organism that
A. Uses CO2 for its carbon source
B. Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
C. Gets energy from sunlight
D. Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
E. Does not need a carbon source
16. The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that
A. Have sunlight
B. Are very acidic
C. Have abundant oxygen and CO2
D. Are extremely cold
E. Are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2
17. Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called
A. Saprobes
B. Parasites
C. Autotrophs
D. Lithoautotrophs
E. Phototrophs
18. The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen
A. Occurs in cyanobacteria
B. Does not require CO2 as a reactant
C. Occurs in purple and green sulfur bacteria
D. Does not require sunlight
E. Occurs in algae and plants
19. Archea as a group are not pathogens. This is because
A. They evolved without mammals
B. Mammals evolved special defenses against them
C. Mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements
D. They are out competed by natural flora
E. None of the choices are correct
20. Aerobic respiration is an example of
A. Photosynthesis
B. Methanoheterophy
C. Photoheterotrophy
D. Chemoheterotrophy
E. Photo autotrophy
21. Microorganisms that live in severe habitats, such as very hot, acidic or salty environments, are called
A. Thermophiles
B. Halophiles
C. Psychrophiles
D. Extremophiles
E. Barophiles
22. Organisms called _____ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm.
A. Mesophiles
B. Thermophiles
C. Commensals
D. Pathogens
E. Halophiles
23. The term obligate refers to
A. The ability to exist in a wide range of conditions
B. Existing in a very narrow niche
C. Using chemicals for energy production
D. Using light for energy production
E. Using oxygen for metabolism
24. The term facultative refers to
A. The ability to exist in a wide range of conditions
B. Existing in a very narrow niche
C. Using chemicals for energy production
D. Using light for energy production
E. Using oxygen for metabolism
25. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is
called
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Endocytosis
26. Diffusion of water through a semi permeable membrane is called
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Endocytosis
27. The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semi permeable membrane that
must have a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Endocytosis
28. The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semi permeable membrane that
must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Endocytosis
29. The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it
is called
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Osmosis
E. Endocytosis
30. Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would
A. Be in a hypotonic solution
B. Gain water
C. Be in a isotonic solution
D. Shrivel
E. None of the choices are correct
31. Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental?
A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Fungi
D. Algae
E. Cyanobacteria
32. Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Diffusion
C. Endocytosis
D. Osmosis
E. None of the choices are correct
33. Contractile vacuoles are
A. Used to expel excess water from cells
B. Found in bacterial cells
C. Important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments
D. Protein carriers in cell membranes
E. Used to bring solutes into a cell
34. Nutrient absorption is mediated by the
A. Cell wall
B. Peptidoglycan layer
C. Proteins in the periplasmic space
D. Cell membrane
E. Nuclear membrane
35. Halobacteria regulate osmotic pressure by
A. Releasing salt to the environment
B. Absorbing salt from the environment
C. Excluding salt from the environment
D. Changing their cell wall to provide additional osmotic protection
E. None of the choices are correct
36. Facilitated diffusion is limited by
A. Substrate concentration
B. Carrier proteins in the membrane
C. Size of the pores in the membrane
D. Osmotic pressure
E. The size of the cell
37. When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically
termed
A. Pinocytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Facilitated transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Exocytosis
38. Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a _____ _____ that
will bind to the substance effecting a conformational change that allows movement across the membrane.
A. Protein carrier
B. Lipid carrier
C. Porin carrier
D. Enzyme carrier
E. All of the choices are correct
39. In _____ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic
D. Mesotonic
E. All of the choices are correct
40. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the
shelf of a 37° C incubator and on the shelf of a 50° C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth
at 37° C and 50° C, slight growth out on the bench top and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term
could be used for this species?
A. Halophile
B. Mesophile
C. Anaerobe
D. Psychrophile
E. Capnophile
41. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a
candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but
heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an
A. Aerobe
B. Anaerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
E. Capnophile
42. A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37° C, but can survive short exposure to
high temperatures is called a(n)
A. Extremophile
B. Thermophile
C. Psychrophile
D. Facultative psychrophile
E. Thermoduric
43. An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32° C is called a(n)
A. Extremophile
B. Thermophile
C. Psychrophile
D. Facultative psychrophile
E. Thermoduric
44. An organism with a temperature growth range of 45° C to 60° C would be called a(n)
A. Extremophile
B. Thermophile
C. Psychrophile
D. Facultative psychrophile
E. Thermoduric
45. Human pathogens fall into the group
A. Psychrophiles
B. Thermophiles
C. Halophiles
D. Mesophiles
E. Acidophiles
46. All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except
A. Psychrophiles
B. Anaerobes
C. Facultative anaerobes
D. Mesophiles
E. Capnophiles
47. A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an
environment with
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. High salt
D. Temperatures above 37° C
E. High acidity
48. A microaerophile
A. Grows best in an anaerobic jar
B. Grows with or without oxygen
C. Needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen
D. Requires a small amount of oxygen but won’t grow at normal atmospheric levels
E. None of the choices are correct
49. The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes,
A. Catalase and hydrogen peroxidases
B. Superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidase
C. Superoxide dismutase and catalase
D. Catalase and oxidase
E. Superoxide dismutase and oxidase
50. An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen
products is a(n)
A. Aerobe
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
E. Obligate anaerobe
51. An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen-less environments is a(n)
A. Aerobe
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
E. Obligate anaerobe
52. An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a(n)
A. Aerobe
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
E. Obligate anaerobe
53. An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a(n)
A. Aerobe
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Facultative anaerobe
D. Microaerophile
E. Obligate anaerobe
54. What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?
A. Blood agar
B. Thioglycollate
C. Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine
D. Sodium chloride
E. None of the choices is correct
55. A halophile would grow best in
A. Acid pools
B. Fresh water ponds
C. Hot geyser springs
D. Arid, desert soil
E. Salt lakes
56. A barophile would grow best in
A. Acid pools
B. Deep oceans
C. Hot geyser springs
D. Arid, desert soil
E. Salt lakes
57. The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses
would be best termed a _____ relationship.
A. Parasitic
B. Saprobic
C. Commensal
D. Mutualistic
E. None of the choices are correct
58. The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called
A. Symbiosis
B. Satellitism
C. Antibiosis
D. Mutualism
E. Synergism
59. When microbes live independently but cooperate and share nutrients, it is called
A. Symbiosis
B. Satellitism
C. Antibiosis
D. Mutualism
E. Synergism
60. When microbes in close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called
A. Symbiosis
B. Satellitism
C. Commensalism
D. Mutualism
E. Synergism
61. A change in one partner in a close relationship that leads to a change in the other partner is
A. Symbiosis
B. Coevolution
C. Antibiosis
D. Mutualism
E. Synergism
62. The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the
A. Binary fission
B. Growth curve
C. Generation time
D. Death phase
E. Culture time
63. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is
the
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
E. Telophase
64. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new
environment, metabolizing but not growing is the
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
E. Prophase
65. The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
E. Prophase
66. In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface
and incubated. Each _____ represents one _____ from the sample.
A. Cell, cell
B. Cell, colony
C. Colony, cell
D. Species, colony
E. Generation, cell
67. When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size and differentiate between dead and
live cells a ___ is used.
A. coulter counter
B. flow cytometer
C. SEM
D. methylene dye indicator
E. plate count
68. Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms.
True False
69. Most microorganisms on earth can only live and survive in habitats that are similar to human body
conditions.
True False
70. Inorganic nitrogen must be converted to ammonia to be used by a cell.
True False
71. Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen.
True False
72. Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy.
True False
73. Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.
True False
74. A saprobe with a cell wall will utilize extracellular digestion.
True False
75. Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism.
True False
76. Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources.
True False
77. Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the
plasma membrane.
True False
78. In a commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited.
True False
79. Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO2 environment.
True False
80. The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9.
True False
81. Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours.
True False
82. The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally
governed by that species’ generation time.
True False
83. Transverse binary fission results in 4 daughter cells from 1 parent cell.
True False
84. After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically.
True False
85. A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.
True False
86. The degree of turbidity in a broth culture correlates to the amount of cell growth.
True False
87. The direct cell count, using a cytometer, can calculate viable cell numbers from a sample.
True False
88. A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine the size.
True False
89. Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than planktonic bacteria.
True False
90. Planktonic bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics as compared to biofilm microorganisms.
True False
ch07 Key
1. B
2. E
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. B
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. E
17. A
18. C
19. C
20. D
21. D
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. B
26. D
27. C
28. A
29. E
30. D
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. D
35. B
36. B
37. B
38. A
39. B
40. D
41. C
42. E
43. D
44. B
45. D
46. A
47. B
48. D
49. C
50. A
51. C
52. E
53. B
54. B
55. E
56. B
57. D
58. C
59. E
60. C
61. B
62. C
63. C
64. A
65. B
66. C
67. B
68. TRUE
69. FALSE
70. TRUE
71. FALSE
72. TRUE
73. FALSE
74. TRUE
75. FALSE
76. TRUE
77. TRUE
78. TRUE
79. TRUE
80. FALSE
81. FALSE
82. TRUE
83. FALSE
84. FALSE
85. TRUE
86. TRUE
87. FALSE
88. FALSE
89. TRUE
90. TRUE
ch07 Summary
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critic
al capabilities.
2
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same process
es as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
4
ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, metha
ne production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).
13
ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their
metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).
15
ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteris
tics.
18
ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. 5
ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. 6
ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities. 2
ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. 16
ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral
or detrimental ways.
5
ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cyc
les and plant and/or animal microflora).
6
ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. 5
ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, an
d spectrophotometric methods).
6
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 13
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways 46
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems 38
ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms 11
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills 6
Learning Outcome: 07.01 Describe the major environmental factors to which microbes must adapt for survival. 5
Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. 10
Learning Outcome: 07.03 Differentiate between organic and inorganic nutrients. 3
Learning Outcome: 07.04 Discuss the origins, types, and functions of bioelements and nutrients. 5
Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. 9
Learning Outcome: 07.06 Distinguish different types of autotrophs and their energy sources. 8
Learning Outcome: 07.07 Distinguish different types of heterotrophs and their energy sources. 4
Learning Outcome: 07.08 Describe the basic factors in diffusion and passive transport systems. 6
Learning Outcome: 07.09 Define osmosis and describe varying osmotic conditions. 4
Learning Outcome: 07.10 Analyze adaptations microbes make in response to osmosis. 4
Learning Outcome: 07.11 Describe the features of active transport and differentiate among its mechanisms. 6
Learning Outcome: 07.14 Explain the adaptive temperature groups with examples of microbes that exist in them. 7
Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. 11
Learning Outcome: 07.16 Outline the adaptations of microbial groups to variations in pH. 2
Learning Outcome: 07.17 Identify microbial adaptations to osmotic pressure. 2
Learning Outcome: 07.18 Discuss the range of associations among microorganisms and their basic qualities. 3
Learning Outcome: 07.19 Explain what occurs in symbiosis and coevolution. 1
Learning Outcome: 07.20 Differentiate among mutual, commensal, and parasitic associations, providing examples. 3
Learning Outcome: 07.21 Explain syntrophy and amensalism, using examples. 2
Learning Outcome: 07.22 Describe interactions between humans and their microbiota. 2
Learning Outcome: 07.23 Define growth and explain the process of binary fission. 6
Learning Outcome: 07.24 Describe the process of population growth and how it is measured. 2
Learning Outcome: 07.25 Explain the stages in the population growth curve and its practical importance. 3
Learning Outcome: 07.26 Relate the techniques and tools used to detect and count cells in culture. 4
Talaro – Chapter 07 90
Topic: Cellular Transport 17
Topic: Environmental Influences 24
Topic: Microbial Ecology 10
Topic: Microbial Growth 14
Topic: Microbial Nutrition 26