Understanding Anatomy And Physiology A Visual Auditory Interactive Approach 2nd Edition Thompson – Test Bank

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Understanding Anatomy And Physiology A Visual Auditory Interactive Approach 2nd Edition Thompson – Test Bank

Chapter 6: Bones & Bone Tissue

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which classification of bone protects organs or provides a large surface area for the attachment of muscles?
a. Long bones
b. Short bones
c. Flat bones
d. Irregular bones

 

 

ANS:  C

Flat bones are thin, flat, often curved bones that protect organs. Others provide a large surface area for the attachment of muscles. Long bones have a long axis and work like levers to move limbs. Short bones tend to be shaped like cubes. Irregular bones are clustered in groups and come in various sizes and shapes.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   84                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. The central, shaftlike portion of a long bone is called the
a. epiphysis.
b. diaphysis.
c. endosteum.
d. periosteum.

 

 

ANS:  B

The central, shaftlike portion of a long bone is the diaphysis. The epiphysis is the head at each end of a long bone. The endosteum is a membrane that lines the medullary cavity. The periosteum is the fibrous membrane that covers the diaphysis.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   85                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Which substance covers the surface of the epiphysis of a long bone?
a. Red bone marrow
b. Trabeculae
c. Fibrocartilage
d. Articular cartilage

 

 

ANS:  D

A thin layer of hyaline cartilage called articular cartilage covers the surface of the epiphysis. Red bone marrow fills the medullary cavity of long bones in children. Trabeculae is the latticework of osseous tissue that makes up spongy bone; it is found in the ends of long bones. Fibrocartilage is a type of flexible cartilage found between vertebrae and in some joints; it does not cover the surface of the epiphysis of a long bone.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   85                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Which statement correctly describes the periosteum?
a. The periosteum secretes a lubricating fluid that eases bone movement.
b. The periosteum contains blood vessels, making it crucial to bone survival.
c. The periosteum contains bone-forming cells.
d. The periosteum contains fibers that combine with the fibers of tendons.
e. A, C and D
f. B, C, and D

 

 

ANS:  F

Articular cartilage, which covers the epiphysis of long bones, secretes a lubricating fluid. The periosteum does not. The other statements correctly describe attributes of the periosteum.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   85                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. The medullary cavity in most adults is filled with
a. red bone marrow.
b. yellow bone marrow.
c. spongy bone.
d. the endosteum.

 

 

ANS:  B

The medullary cavity is filled with red bone marrow in children, but by adulthood, most of the marrow has turned into yellow marrow. The epiphysis is made of spongy bone. The endosteum is a thin, epithelial membrane that lines the medullary cavity.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   85                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Which type of bone cell helps form bone, specifically the bone’s matrix?
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteocytes
d. Fibroblasts

 

 

ANS:  B

Osteoblasts help form bone, especially the cells of the bone’s matrix. Osteoclasts dissolve unwanted bone. Osteocytes are mature osteoblasts. Fibroblasts synthesize extracellular matrix and collagen.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   85                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Which type of cell assists with the regulation of blood levels of calcium and phosphate?
a. Osteoblasts
b. Osteoclasts
c. Osteocytes
d. Fibroblasts

 

 

ANS:  C

Osteocytes dissolve bone and also deposit new bone; in doing so, they assist with the regulation of blood levels of calcium and phosphate. None of the other cells assists with this process.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   86                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. What makes a bone unique from other connective tissue?
a. Its strength
b. Its matrix
c. Its hardness
d. Its density

 

 

ANS:  B

Bone is unique from other connective tissues because of its matrix. The matrix gives bone its strength, hardness, and density.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   86                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. What makes bone unique from other connective tissue?
a. It is nonliving tissue.
b. Its matrix is hard and calcified.
c. It doesn’t contain blood vessels.
d. It is self-contained and doesn’t interact with other body systems.

 

 

ANS:  B

Bone is unique from other living tissue due to its matrix, which is hard and calcified. It is dynamic living tissue that contains a rich supply of blood vessels. Its interaction with other body systems is crucial for life.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   86                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Calcium salts give bone its
a. tensile strength.
b. torsional strength.
c. flexibility.
d. compressional strength.

 

 

ANS:  D

Calcium salts allow bones to resist strong squeezing, forces called compressional strength. Its tensile strength comes from collagen fibers. Bone does not have much flexibility or torsional strength.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   86                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Which of the following typically occurs when bones experience an increase in load?
a. Osteocytes become more active dissolving unhealthy bone.
b. Bone fibers become more compact, increasing tensile strength
c. Osteocytes become more active creating new bone.
d. The deposition of calcium salts increases, which increases compressional strength.

 

 

ANS:  C

When bone experiences an increase in load, osteocytes respond by creating new bone. None of the other answers is correct.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   86                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Trabeculae are arranged in such a way so as to
a. lighten bone.
b. strengthen bone.
c. allow space for bone marrow.
d. increase tensile strength.

 

 

ANS:  B

Trabeculae are arranged along the lines of greatest stress so as to offer maximum strength. Their purpose is not to lighten bone or increase tensile strength. Red bone marrow fills the cavities between trabeculae, but this is not the primary reason for the arrangement of trabeculae.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   86                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. The basic structural unit of compact bone is
a. a lacunae.
b. an osteon.
c. a canaliculi.
d. a lamellae.

 

 

ANS:  B

The basic structural unit of compact bone is the osteon. The osteon consists of concentric rings of matrix called lamellae; the lacunae are tiny gaps between rings of the lamellae. Canaliculi are microscopic passageways that connect the lamellae to each other.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   86                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The passageways that carry blood and nutrients from the bone’s exterior to the osteocytes are
a. canaliculi.
b. Volkmann’s canals.
c. haversian canals.
d. central canals.

 

 

ANS:  B

The Volkmann’s canals connect the haversian canals, and carry blood and nutrients to the osteocytes in the bone’s interior. Canaliculi are microscopic passageways that connect the lamellae. There is nothing termed a “central canal” in bone.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   86                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. In a developing fetus, the bones of the skull and face begin as
a. fibrous connective tissue.
b. cartilage.
c. bone.
d. elastic connective tissue.

 

 

ANS:  A

The bones of the skull and face start out as fibrous connective tissue. None of the other answers is correct.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   88                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. In a developing fetus, most bones begin as
a. fibrous connective tissue.
b. cartilage.
c. bone.
d. elastic connective tissue.

 

 

ANS:  B

Most bones in a developing fetus evolve from cartilage.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   89                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Which statement about red bone marrow is true?
a. It fills nearly all of a child’s bones.
b. It produces white blood cells.
c. It fills the medullary cavities of the femurs and humerus in adults.
d. It has the potential to change into yellow marrow.

 

 

ANS:  A

Nearly all a child’s bones contain red marrow. Over time, red marrow is replaced by fatty yellow marrow. Red marrow produces red blood cells. In adults, red marrow can be found only in the ribs, sternum, vertebrae, skull, pelvis, and upper parts of both the humerus and femur. Yellow marrow has the potential to turn into red marrow, not vice versa.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   88                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. The process of endochondral ossification begins in
a. the skull.
b. long bones.
c. short bones.
d. the pelvis.

 

 

ANS:  B

Endochondral ossification begins in the long bones.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   89                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. In the fetus, bone matrix is formed by
a. osteoblasts.
b. osteocytes.
c. osteoclasts.
d. fibroblasts.

 

 

ANS:  A

Endochondral ossification begins as osteoblasts start to replace chondrocytes.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   89                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Bone formation begins at about
a. 6 months’ gestation.
b. 4 months’ gestation.
c. 1 months’ gestation.
d. 3 months’ gestation.

 

 

ANS:  D

Endochondral ossification begins at about 3 months’ gestation.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   89                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. When does the skull become completely ossified?
a. At birth
b. Three months of age
c. Six months of age
d. Two years of age

 

 

ANS:  D

The skull is completely ossified by age 2. Before that, part of the skull still contains areas of fibrous connective tissue, called fontanels or “soft spots.”

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   88                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Which statement about endochondral ossification is correct?
a. A primary ossification center develops in each epiphysis, and ossification proceeds from epiphysis towards the diaphysis.
b. A primary ossification center develops in the middle of the diaphysis, and ossification proceeds from the diaphysis towards each epiphysis.
c. A primary ossification center develops on the surface of the cartilage as chondrocytes turn into osteoblasts.
d. Multiple ossification centers fill the bone marrow cavity, and ossification radiates from the interior of the bone toward the surface.

 

 

ANS:  B

A primary ossification center develops in the middle of the diaphysis, and ossification proceeds from the diaphysis toward each epiphysis. None of the other answers is correct.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   89                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Which statement about the epiphyseal plate is correct?
a. It appears when bone growth stops.
b. It consists of a layer of hyaline cartilage and is the site of bone lengthening.
c. It consists of a layer of spongy bone and is the site of bone widening.
d. It appears after a fracture and is a form of scar tissue.

 

 

ANS:  B

The epiphyseal plate is a layer of hyaline cartilage at the end of each bone and is the site of bone lengthening. Sometime between the ages of 16 and 25, all of the cartilage of the epiphyseal plate is replaced with spongy bone, at which point bone lengthening stops and the epiphyseal plate “closes.”

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   89                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Bone lengthening stops when
a. all of the cartilage of the epiphyseal plate calcifies.
b. the primary ossification centers cease to function.
c. chondrocytes are no longer produced in the epiphyseal plate.
d. osteoblasts are no longer produced in the epiphyseal plate.

 

 

ANS:  C

Bone lengthening stops when chondrocytes are no longer produced in the epiphyseal plate. At that point, the epiphyseal plate is replaced with spongy bone. The primary ossification centers are only functional in utero and do not contribute to bone lengthening after birth. Osteoblasts are not involved in bone lengthening at the epiphyseal plate.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   89                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. How does physical exercise affect bone?
a. It stimulates the activity of osteoclasts and therefore accelerates bone resorption.
b. It causes bone density to increase because bone adapts to withstand physical stress.
c. It accelerates the release of calcium into the blood, which boosts serum calcium levels.
d. It has no effect on bone.

 

 

ANS:  B

Bone adapts to withstand physical stress; therefore, it’s possible to increase bone density through physical exercise.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   86                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Which type of fracture is most likely to occur in a car accident?
a. Pathologic fracture
b. Greenstick fracture
c. Spiral fracture
d. Comminuted fracture

 

 

ANS:  D

A comminuted fracture is one in which the bone is broken into pieces; this is most likely to occur in a car accident. A pathologic fracture is a break in a diseased or weakened bone. A greenstick fracture is one in which the fracture is incomplete. A spiral fracture is the result of a twisting force.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   91                  KEY:  APPLYING

 

  1. Which of the following fractures is most likely to occur in young children and why?
a. Children are more likely to have compound fractures because the tissue surrounding the bones is less dense than the tissue in adults.
b. Children are more likely to have greenstick fractures because their bones contain more collagen than adult bones.
c. Children are more likely to have comminuted fractures because rapid growth during childhood makes bones brittle.
d. Children are more likely to have spiral fractures because the matrix is uneven.

 

 

ANS:  B

A greenstick fracture typically occurs in young children because their bones contain more collagen than adult bones do, causing the bone to splinter rather than break completely. None of the other answers is correct.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   91                  KEY:  ANALYZING

 

  1. Uncomplicated fractures heal in
a. 4 to 6 weeks.
b. 8 to 12 weeks.
c. 12 to 14 weeks.
d. 6 months.

 

 

ANS:  B

Uncomplicated fractures heal in 8 to 12 weeks.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   92                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The epiphysis of a long bone is made of ____________________ bone.

 

ANS:  spongy

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   85                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The diaphysis of a long bone is made of ____________________ bone.

 

ANS:  compact

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   85                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. In growing children, a layer of cartilage called the ____________________ separates the epiphysis from the diaphysis.

 

ANS:  epiphyseal plate

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   85                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Bone is also called ____________________ tissue.

 

ANS:  osseous

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   86                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Mature osteoblasts that have become entrapped in the hardened bone matrix are called ____________________.

 

ANS:  osteocytes

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   86                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Spongy bone consists of a latticework of bone called ____________________.

 

ANS:  trabeculae

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   87                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The infant’s skull contains areas of fibrous connective tissue called ____________________.

 

ANS:  fontanels

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   88                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The process of destroying old bone is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  resorption

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   90                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The condition in which bones lose so much mass they become extremely brittle is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  osteoporosis

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   90                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The process that repairs minor traumas in bone and contributes to homeostasis by releasing calcium into the blood is called ____________________.

 

ANS:

bone remodeling (remodeling)

remodeling (bone remodeling)

bone remodeling

remodeling

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   90                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. A fracture in which the bone has pierced the skin is called a ____________________ fracture.

 

ANS:  compound

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   90                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. A fracture in a diseased or weakened bone, usually the result of a force that would not fracture a healthy bone, is called a ____________________ fracture.

 

ANS:  pathologic

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   91                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

Chapter 7: Skeletal System

 

MATCHING

 

Match each term to its definition.

a. condyle h. sulcus
b. facet i. foramen
c. process j. meatus
d. trochanter k. sinus
e. tubercle l. head
f. tuberosity m. crest
g. fossa n. epicondyle

 

 

  1. The prominent, expanded end of a bone

 

  1. A projection or raised area

 

  1. A large process; found only in the femur

 

  1. A rough, raised bump, usually for muscle attachment

 

  1. A round opening, usually a passageway for vessels and nerves

 

  1. A groove or elongated depression

 

  1. A flat surface

 

  1. A moderately raised ridge

 

  1. A tubelike opening

 

  1. A small, rounded process

 

  1. A rounded knob; usually fits into a fossa on another bone to form a joint

 

  1. ANS:  L                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  M                   PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   98

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

Match each structure with its definition.

a. xiphoid process f. atlas
b. styloid process g. axis
c. hyoid bone h. fontanel
d. nucleus pulposus i. sutures
e. annulus fibrosis

 

 

  1. U-shaped bone between the chin and the larynx

 

  1. The first cervical vertebra

 

  1. Portion of the temporal bone that serves as an attachment point for several neck muscles

 

  1. Area between the unfused bones of an infant’s skull

 

  1. Portion of the intervertebral disk consisting of a ring of tough fibrocartilage

 

  1. Immovable joints of the skull

 

  1. Second cervical vertebra

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   104

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   108

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   101

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   105

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   107

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   102

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   108

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

Match each bone with its definition or location.

a. humerus i. fibula
b. radius j. malleolus
c. ulna k. os coxae
d. patella l. mandible
e. sternum m. phalanges
f. clavicle n. metacarpal bones
g. femur o. scapula
h. tibia

 

 

  1. Shoulder blade

 

  1. Long bone of the upper arm

 

  1. Bones that form the fingers

 

  1. Kneecap

 

  1. Jaw

 

  1. Bony knob of the ankle

 

  1. Bone of the lower arm located on the same side as the thumb

 

  1. Large bones of the hip

 

  1. Slender bone of the lower leg that does not bear any weight

 

  1. Bones that form the palm of the hand

 

  1. Long bone of the lower leg that articulates with the pelvis to form the hip

 

  1. Breastbone

 

  1. ANS:  O                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   99

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   99

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  M                   PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   99

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   99

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  L                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   99

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   114

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   99

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  K                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   99

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   114

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  N                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   111

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   114

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   99

KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The adult human skeleton typically contains how many bones?
a. 212
b. 206
c. 108
d. 112

 

 

ANS:  B

The adult human skeleton contains 206 bones.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   97                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Bone surface markings
a. provide a means for identifying bone type.
b. vary according to gender.
c. allow for joint and muscle attachment.
d. are used in forensic examinations to determine age.

 

 

ANS:  C

Bone surface markings allow for joint formation, muscle attachment, and passage of blood vessels and nerves. They are not used to identify bone type or a person’s gender or age.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   98                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Which bone is found in the appendicular skeleton?
a. Mandible
b. Sacrum
c. Scapula
d. Rib

 

 

ANS:  C

The scapula is part of the appendicular skeleton. All of the other bones are part of the axial skeleton.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   99                  KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The two bones that join together to form the top and sides of the cranial cavity are the
a. temporal bones.
b. sphenoid bones.
c. occipital bones.
d. parietal bones.

 

 

ANS:  D

The parietal bones join at the top of the head to form the top and sides of the cranial cavity. The temporal bones form the sides of the cranium and part of the cranial floor; the sphenoid bone forms part of the cranial floor and the side walls of the orbits; the occipital bone forms the rear of the skull.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   101                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. A child is skateboarding without a helmet and falls backward, striking the lower portion of the back of his head on the curb. Which bone is most likely to have been injured?
a. Frontal bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Parietal bone
d. Occipital bone

 

 

ANS:  D

The occipital bone forms the rear of the skull. The frontal bone forms the forehead. the ethmoid bone contributes to the walls of the orbits and portions of the nasal cavity. The parietal bone forms the top and sides of the cranial cavity.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   101                KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. During a boxing competition, a boxer receives a hard upward blow to the nose. Later, he notices clear fluid leaking from his nose. What is the most likely explanation for this occurrence?
a. The temporal bone was fractured in the accident, dislodging the auditory ossicles and allowing fluid normally found in the middle ear to leak out.
b. The sphenoid bone was fractured in the accident, disrupting the boundary around the nose and throat, increasing the flow of nasal secretions.
c. The frontal bone was fractured, allowing tears to flow from the orbital cavity and out through the nose.
d. The cribriform plate was fractured, disrupting the meninges and allowing cerebrospinal fluid to leak out.

 

 

ANS:  D

The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone provides an attachment for the meninges surrounding the brain. A sharp, upward blow can drive bone fragments through the cribriform plate and into the brain, allowing cerebrospinal fluid to leak out of the nose.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    D                   REF:   101                KEY:  ANALYZING

 

  1. Which structure is considered to be part of the temporal bone?
a. Cribriform plate
b. Zygomatic arch
c. Sella turcica
d. Ethmoid bone

 

 

ANS:  B

The zygomatic arch, or cheekbone, is part of the temporal bone. The cribriform plate is the top of the ethmoid bone. The sella turcica is an indented area on top of the sphenoid bone and houses the pituitary gland. The ethmoid bone contributes to the walls of the orbits, the roof and walls of the nasal cavity, and the nasal septum.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   101                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Which suture forms the joint between the parietal bones and the frontal bone?
a. Lambdoidal
b. Squamous
c. Coronal
d. Sagittal

 

 

ANS:  C

The coronal suture is the joint between the parietal bones and frontal bone. The lambdoidal suture is the line of articulation between the parietal bones and occipital bone. The squamous suture runs along the top edge of the temporal bone. The sagittal suture is the joint between the right and left parietal bones.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   102                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The two bones that meet to form the upper jaw are the
a. mandibles.
b. lacrimal bones.
c. zygomatic bones.
d. maxillae.

 

 

ANS:  D

The maxillae meet to form the upper jaw. The mandible is a single bone that forms the lower jaw. The lacrimal bones form part of the side wall of the orbit. The zygomatic bones shape the cheeks and outer edge of the orbit.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   103                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Which bones contribute to the formation of the orbit?
a. Lacrimal, nasal, palatine
b. Nasal, inferior nasal conchae, vomer
c. Maxillae, zygomatic, lacrimal, palatine
d. Lacrimal and nasal

 

 

ANS:  C

The maxillae form part of the floor of the orbits; the zygomatic bones form the outer edge of the orbit; the lacrimal bones form part of the side wall of the orbits; the palatine bones form part of the floor of the orbit. The nasal bones, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer contribute to the formation of the nasal cavity.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    D                   REF:   103                KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Which bones are credited with forming the foundation of the face?
a. Maxillae
b. Mandible
c. Frontal bone
d. Palatine bones

 

 

ANS:  A

Every other facial bone (except for the mandible) articulates with the maxillae, giving them the distinction of being the foundation of the face. The mandible forms the lower jaw. The frontal bone is part of the skull, not the face. The palatine bones form the posterior portion of the hard palate, part of the wall of the nasal cavity, and part of the floor of the orbit.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   103                KEY:  ANALYZING

 

  1. The sinuses
a. open into the internal nose, giving nasal secretions a pathway in which to drain.
b. are filled with air, which offers protection to the brain.
c. contain tiny projections to support the bones of the face.
d. are filled with air and act as resonators for sound production.

 

 

ANS:  D

The sinuses are filled with air and act as resonators for sound production. They open into the internal nose, but they are not a part of the normal pathway for nasal secretions. They offer no protection to the brain, and they do not offer support for the rest of the bones of the face.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   103                KEY:  APPLYING

 

  1. What is the most likely explanation for widened suture lines in an infant?
a. Improper bone formation in utero
b. Delayed growth after birth
c. Hydrocephalus, a condition resulting from the accumulation of excessive cerebrospinal fluid in the brain
d. A normal finding because of unfused suture lines

 

 

ANS:  C

Abnormally wide suture lines suggest hydrocephalus and an expanding cranium. Widened suture lines do not suggest improper bone formation or delayed growth. Although suture lines have not yet fused in the infant skull, the lines should not be excessively wide.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   105                KEY:  APPLYING

 

  1. The vertebral column consists of five main sections. Beginning in the neck, the sections are
a. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacrum, and coccyx.
b. cervical, thoracic, sacrum, lumbar, and coccyx.
c. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, and coccyx.
d. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacrum.

 

 

ANS:  C

The vertebral column consists of five main sections: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, and coccyx.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   106                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The “Hunchback of Notre Dame” most likely suffered from
a. scoliosis.
b. kyphosis.
c. lordosis.
d. herniated disk.

 

 

ANS:  B

Kyphosis is an exaggerated thoracic curvature, resulting in a “hunchback.” Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine. Lordosis is an exaggerated lumbar curvature, or “swayback.” A herniated disk causes pressure on a spinal nerve and pain, but it does not alter spinal curvature.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   106                KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. The bumps you feel when you run your hand along the spine are
a. the transverse processes of the vertebrae.
b. the bodies of the vertebrae.
c. the vertebral foramen.
d. the spinous processes of the vertebrae.

 

 

ANS:  D

The spinous processes project posteriorly from the vertebrae. The transverse processes extend from each side of the vertebrae. The bodies are the weight-bearing portions of the vertebrae. The vertebral foramen is an opening in the center of the vertebrae.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   107                KEY:  APPLYING

 

  1. What is the weight-bearing portion of the vertebra?
a. Vertebral foramen
b. Body
c. Annulus fibrosis
d. Transverse process

 

 

ANS:  B

The body is the weight-bearing portion of the vertebra. The vertebral foramen is an opening that allows for passage of the spinal cord. The annulus fibrosus is part of the intervertebral disk that resides between the vertebrae. The transverse processes extend from each side of vertebra and serve as an attachment point for muscles and ligaments.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   107                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. What is the purpose of the intervertebral disks?
a. Support weight and absorb shock
b. Absorb shock and allow for forward and backward movements
c. Stabilize the vertebral column
d. Provide protection to the spinal cord

 

 

ANS:  A

The intervertebral disks support weight and absorb shock. The structure of the vertebrae allow for forward and backward movements. Muscles and ligaments stabilize the vertebral column. The vertebrae themselves offer protection to the spinal cord.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   107                KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Which ribs attach to the sternum?
a. The first 3 ribs
b. The first 7 ribs
c. The first 10 ribs
d. All the ribs

 

 

ANS:  B

Ribs 1 to 7, called true ribs, attach to the sternum by a strip of hyaline cartilage called costal cartilage. Ribs 8, 9, and 10 attach to the cartilage of rib 7. Ribs 11 and 12 do not attach to any part of the anterior thoracic cage.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   109                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The only point where the arm and the scapula attach to the rest of the skeleton is at the
a. glenoid cavity.
b. coracoid process.
c. acromion process.
d. clavicle.

 

 

ANS:  C

The acromion process is an extension of the scapula that articulates with the clavicle. The humerus articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity. The coracoid process provides a point of attachment for some of the arm muscles. The clavicle articulates with the sternum and scapula, and helps support the shoulder.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   110                KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. What is the name of the long bone of the upper arm?
a. Radius
b. Ulna
c. Humerus
d. Tibia

 

 

ANS:  C

The humerus is the long bone of the upper arm. The ulna and radius form the lower arm. The tibia is a bone in the lower leg.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   110                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The wrist consists of
a. four carpal bones.
b. eight carpal bones.
c. five metacarpal bones.
d. eight tarsal bones.

 

 

ANS:  B

The wrist consists of eight carpal bones, arranged in two rows of four bones. Five metacarpal bones form the palm of the hand. Tarsal bones form the ankle.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   111                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Which statement is true about the female pelvis as compared to the male pelvis?
a. The true pelvis is wider and shallower
b. The pelvic outlet is smaller
c. The true pelvis is narrower and deeper
d. The pubic arch is narrower

 

 

ANS:  A

In general, the true pelvis is wide and shallow in females and narrow and deep in males. Females also have a larger pelvic outlet and wider pubic arch than males do.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   113                KEY:  ANALYZING

 

  1. A woman is told that her ability to give birth vaginally will depend on the size of her pelvic outlet. How is the pelvic outlet measured?
a. It is the distance between the flaring edges of the iliac bones.
b. It is the circumference of the pelvic brim.
c. It is determined by subtracting the diameter of the true pelvis from the diameter of the false pelvis.
d. It is the distance between the two ischial bones.

 

 

ANS:  D

The pelvic outlet, which is the lower edge of the true pelvis, is measured as the distance between the two ischial bones. The distance must be wide enough for the infant’s head to pass. The false pelvis is the distance between the flaring edges of the iliac bones. The circumference of the pelvic brim does not figure into the measurement of the pelvic outlet. Subtracting the diameter of the false pelvis from the true pelvis does not yield any useful information.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   113                KEY:  APPLYING

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. On the top of the ____________________ bone is an indented area called the ____________________ that houses the pituitary gland.

 

ANS:  sphenoid, sella turcica

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   101                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The skeleton that includes the femur, humerus, phalanges, and clavicle is the ____________________ skeleton.

 

ANS:  appendicular

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   99                  KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. A herniated disk allows the ____________________ to put pressure on a ____________________.

 

ANS:

nucleus, pulposus spinal nerve

nucleus, pulposus spinal cord

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   107                KEY:  APPLYING

 

  1. A projection from the second cervical vertebra called the ____________________ or ____________________ allows the head to swivel from side to side.

 

ANS:

dens, odontoid process

odontoid process, dens

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   108                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. Ribs 1 to 7 attach to the sternum by a strip of hyaline cartilage called ____________________ cartilage.

 

ANS:  costal

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   109                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The os coxae consists of the pubis, the ____________________, and the ____________________.

 

ANS:

ilium, ischium

ischium, ilium

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   112                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The longest and strongest bone of the body is the ____________________.

 

ANS:  femur

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   114                KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. Of the two bones of the lower leg, the ____________________ is the only one that bears weight.

 

ANS:  tibia

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    M                   REF:   114                KEY:  UNDERSTANDING

 

  1. The tarsal bone that forms the heel is called the ____________________.

 

ANS:  calcaneus

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   115                KEY:  REMEMBERING

 

  1. The large opening in the base of the skull, through which the spinal cord passes, is called the ____________________.

 

ANS:  foramen magnum

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    E                    REF:   102                KEY:  REMEMBERING