Understanding Nutrition 12th Edition By Whitney -Test Bank

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Understanding Nutrition 12th Edition By Whitney -Test Bank

Chapter 6 – Protein: Amino Acids

 

An.  Page(s)/difficulty                                                                                              K = knowledge-level, A = application level

 

Multiple Choice

 

Questions for Section 6.1 The Chemist’s View of Proteins

 

d      173(K)                   01.  What element is found in proteins but not in carbohydrates and fats?

  1. Carbon
  2. Oxygen
  3. Calcium
  4. Nitrogen

 

c      173(K)                   02.  In comparison to the composition of carbohydrates and fats, which element found in proteins makes them unique?

  1. Carbon
  2. Oxygen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Hydrogen

 

a      173(K)                   03.  Which of the following is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another?

  1. The side group
  2. The central carbon atom
  3. The number of oxygen atoms
  4. The number of nitrogen atoms

 

b      173(K)                   04.  Which of the following elements is found in certain amino acids?

  1. Iron
  2. Sulfur
  3. Calcium
  4. Potassium

 

c      173-175(K)           05.  Terms used to classify amino acids in the diet include all of the following except

  1. essential.
  2. nonessential.
  3. partially essential.
  4. conditionally essential.

 

d      174(K)                   06.  How many different kinds of amino acids make up proteins?

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 14
  4. 20

 

c      174(K)                   07.  All of the following are contained in an amino acid except

  1. an acid group.
  2. an amino group.
  3. an aldehyde group.
  4. a central carbon atom.

 

c      174(A)                   08.  Approximately how many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 35

 

b      174(K)                   09.  What is the simplest amino acid?

  1. Valine
  2. Glycine
  3. Alanine
  4. Methionine

 

a      174(K)                   10.  Which of the following is not an essential amino acid in human nutrition?

  1. Proline
  2. Threonine
  3. Methionine
  4. Tryptophan

 

b      174-175(A)           11.  Any of the following can be used by the body for the synthesis of a nonessential amino acid except

  1. a fragment of fat.
  2. an essential mineral.
  3. an essential amino acid.
  4. a fragment of carbohydrate.

 

b      175(A)                   12.  What amino acid is classified as conditionally essential when dietary intake of phenylalanine is insufficient or the body cannot normally metabolize phenylalanine?

  1. Cysteine
  2. Tyrosine
  3. Glutamine
  4. Isoleucine

 

b      175(K)                   13.  Which of the following is a feature of an essential amino acid?

  1. It is not necessary in the diet
  2. It must be supplied by the diet
  3. It can be made from fat in the body
  4. It can be made from glucose in the body

 

d      175(A)                   14.  What type of reaction is required to bind two molecules of glycine together and release a molecule of water?

  1. Hydrolysis
  2. Deamination
  3. Denaturation
  4. Condensation

 

a      175(K)                   15.  When two amino acids are chemically joined together, the resulting structure is called a

  1. dipeptide.
  2. diglyceride.
  3. polypeptide.
  4. disaccharide.

 

b      175(K)                   16.  What is the composition of a tripeptide?

  1. One amino acid with three carbons
  2. Three amino acids bonded together
  3. One amino acid with three acid groups
  4. Three small protein chains bonded together

 

c      175(K)                   17.  What is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein?

  1. Number of side chains in the protein
  2. Folding arrangement of the peptide chain
  3. Order of amino acids in the peptide chain
  4. Order of only the essential amino acids in the protein

 

b      175(K)                   18.  A dispensable amino acid is one that

  1. is not needed by the body.
  2. can be synthesized by the body.
  3. can be used to synthesize an indispensable amino acid.
  4. cannot be synthesized by the body because of a genetic defect.

 

b      175(A)                   19.  In comparison to the well-defined structure of starch, which of the following is the most important factor that allows for the synthesis of thousands of different proteins?

  1. Number of cell ribosomes
  2. Number of different amino acids
  3. Availability of amino acids containing sulfur
  4. Availability of amino acids containing hydroxyl groups

 

d      175(A)                   20.  Which of the following would be classified as a polypeptide?

  1. 1 amino acid
  2. 3 amino acids bonded together
  3. 9 fatty acids bonded together
  4. 20 amino acids bonded together

 

b      175(A)                   21.  The following amino acids are linked together: glycine-lysine-valine. This compound is a

  1. dipeptide.
  2. tripeptide.
  3. polypeptide.
  4. oligopeptide.

 

b      176(K)                   22.  The weak electrical attractions within polypeptide chains account for the protein’s

  1. primary structure.
  2. secondary structure.
  3. tertiary structure.
  4. quaternary structure.

 

c      176(A)                   23.  Which of the following is a feature of hemoglobin?

  1. It has no tertiary structure
  2. It holds the mineral calcium
  3. It is constructed of 4 polypeptide chains
  4. It has no primary or secondary structure

 

c      176(A)                   24.  An example of a protein with quaternary polypeptide structures is

  1. insulin.
  2. tryptophan.
  3. hemoglobin.
  4. disulfide bridges.

 

c      176(K)                   25.  What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of a protein chain?

  1. Digestion
  2. Condensation
  3. Denaturation
  4. Hydrogenation

 

c      176(K)                   26.  The application of heat or acid to a protein that causes its shape to change is known as

  1. stiffening.
  2. condensation.
  3. denaturation.
  4. destabilization.

 

b      176(A)                   27.  What process results in the hardening of an egg when it is exposed to heat?

  1. Solidification
  2. Denaturation
  3. Condensation
  4. Protein interaction

 

Questions for Section 6.2 Digestion and Absorption of Proteins

 

b      177(A)                   28.  After a hamburger is eaten, in what organ is the hydrolysis of its proteins initiated?

  1. Mouth
  2. Stomach
  3. Small intestine
  4. Large intestine

 

c      177(K)                   29.  What is the name of the inactive form of the protein-splitting enzyme in the stomach?

  1. Peptidase
  2. Propepsin
  3. Pepsinogen
  4. Propeptidase

 

a      177(A)                   30.  In what organ is pepsin active?

  1. Stomach
  2. Pancreas
  3. Small intestine
  4. Large intestine

 

a      177(A)                   31.  What digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid?

  1. Pepsin
  2. Transaminase
  3. Pancreatic protease
  4. Intestinal peptidase

 

a      177(K)                   32.  Protein-hydrolyzing enzymes are commonly known as

  1. proteases.
  2. hydrolyzers.
  3. prodigestins.
  4. denaturases.

 

a      177(K)                   33.  The function of a protease is to

  1. hydrolyze proteins.
  2. synthesize proteins.
  3. hydrolyze ribosomes.
  4. synthesize ribosomes.

 

d      177(K)                   34.  What is the chief function of pepsin?

  1. Emulsifies dietary proteins
  2. Activates hydrochloric acid
  3. Activates pancreatic proteases
  4. Cleaves proteins into smaller polypeptides

 

a      177(A)                   35.  What percentage of dietary protein is hydrolyzed in the mouth?

  1. 0
  2. 5-10
  3. 15-20
  4. 25-30

 

a      177(A)                   36.  Pepsinogen is also known as a(n)

  1. zymogen.
  2. oligopeptide.
  3. postenzyme.
  4. cofactor for pancreatic enzymes.

 

d      177-178(A)           37.  After digestion of proteins, what products are absorbed into the circulation?

  1. Free amino acids only
  2. Free amino acids and oligopeptides
  3. Free amino acids and dipeptides only
  4. Free amino acids, and a few dipeptides and tripeptides

 

a      178(A)                   38.  What is the usual fate of orally ingested enzyme supplements?

  1. Digested by gastrointestinal proteases
  2. Rapidly degraded by salivary secretions
  3. Mostly absorbed in original form from stomach
  4. Completely absorbed in original form from jejunum

 

b      178(K)                   39.  What is an oligopeptide?

  1. A sulfur-containing amino acid
  2. A string of about 4-9 amino acids
  3. A carbohydrate-containing protein
  4. A protein containing only essential amino acids

 

d      178(K)                   40.  Which of the following statements is not characteristic of enzymes?

  1. They are all catalysts
  2. They have a protein structure
  3. They can be destroyed by heat
  4. They are involved in synthesis reactions only

 

b      178(A)                   41.  Which of the following describes the structure of pepsin?

  1. Lipid
  2. Protein
  3. Nucleic acid
  4. Carbohydrate

 

b      178(A)                   42.  All of the following are fates of amino acids in the intestinal tract except

  1. some may be used for energy by the intestinal cells.
  2. some may be used for synthesis of gastric protease.
  3. some may be used for synthesis of proteins by the intestinal cells.
  4. they may be transported across the intestinal cell membrane to the capillaries.

 

a      178(A)                   43.  Of the following sources of amino acids, which would be best absorbed in normal, healthy people?

  1. Whole proteins
  2. Predigested proteins
  3. Proteins from raw foods
  4. Mixture of free amino acids

 

b      178(A)                   44.  Your cousin Wanda was born with a genetic defect affecting her digestion, namely, a lack of intestinal villus tripeptidases and dipeptidases. Which of the following digestive processes would not take place?

  1. Protein → oligopeptides
  2. Peptides → amino acids
  3. Amino acids → peptides
  4. Polypeptides → tripeptides

 

Questions for Section 6.3 Proteins in the Body

 

c      178(K)                   45.  Approximately how many different proteins are present in the human body?

  1. 500
  2. 10,000
  3. 30,000
  4. 1 million

 

a      178-180(K)           46.  Which of the following describes a process in protein synthesis?

  1. The code to make a protein is carried by a strand of messenger RNA
  2. The final step in completing the protein is carried out in the mitochondria
  3. The function of transfer RNA is to assist in absorption of amino acids into the cell
  4. The DNA binds to ribosomes and directs uptake of specific amino acids to form the peptide chain

 

b      178-180(K)           47.  Which of the following is a characteristic of protein synthesis?

  1. Mitochondria are bound to DNA to initiate peptide bond synthesis
  2. Messenger RNA is constructed from a DNA template to carry instructions
  3. Hormones carry messages from RNA to DNA to direct peptide bond synthesis
  4. RNA transfers up to 6 amino acids simultaneously to the mitochondria for peptide elongation

 

c      180(K)                   48.  The process whereby messenger RNA is made from a DNA template is

  1. expression.
  2. sequencing.
  3. transcription.
  4. ribosome assembly.

 

c      180(K)                   49.  What is a ribosome?

  1. A template for protein synthesis
  2. A hard knot of subcutaneous protein mass
  3. A structure upon which proteins are assembled
  4. An antibody synthesized by specialized immune cells

 

c      180(K)                   50.  All of the following are features of protein in nutrition except

  1. the study of the body’s proteins in known as proteomics.
  2. protein synthesis requires messenger RNA and transfer RNA.
  3. most of the body’s thousands of proteins have been studied and characterized.
  4. the synthesis of a protein by following the genetic code is known as gene expression.

 

a      180(A)                   51.  Your college dormitory roommate, James, told you that he’s had anemia for quite some time and that it’s from having abnormally-shaped hemoglobin. What type of anemia does James have?

  1. Sickle-cell anemia
  2. Macrocytic anemia
  3. Iron-deficiency anemia
  4. Low oxygen-carrying anemia

 

d      180(K)                   52.  A common genetic variation which causes a change in the amino acid sequence in the structure of hemoglobin leads to the disease

  1. diabetes.
  2. marasmus.
  3. kwashiorkor.
  4. sickle-cell anemia.

 

c      180(K)                   53.  Which of the following is characteristic of sickle-cell anemia?

  1. The disorder can be serious but not fatal
  2. The disorder leads to depression of energy expenditure
  3. The abnormal structure of the hemoglobin alters the shape of the red blood cell
  4. The hemoglobin amino acid sequence is abnormal in all four of the polypeptide chains

 

b      181(K)                   54.  What is the structure of an enzyme?

  1. Lipid
  2. Protein
  3. Nucleic acid
  4.              Carbohydrate

 

c      181(K)                   55.  What protein is intimately involved in the formation of scar tissue in wound healing?

  1. Albumin
  2. Thrombin
  3. Collagen
  4. Hydroxyproline

 

c      181(A)                   56.  What type of protein would the body make in order to heal a wound?

  1. Ferritin
  2. Albumin
  3. Collagen
  4. Hemoglobin

 

b      181(K)                   57.  Which of the following is a characteristic of hormones?

  1. Inactivate bacteria
  2. Act as messenger molecules
  3. Coordinate visual response
  4. Act as buffers in the bloodstream

 

a      181;182(K)           58.  Which of the following do(es) not function as a transport protein?

  1. Collagen
  2. Transferrin
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Lipoproteins

 

a      182(A)                   59.  What is the relationship between body proteins and water?

  1. Proteins attract water
  2. Water attracts proteins
  3. Water degrades proteins
  4. Proteins form polymers of water

 

c      182(A)                   60.  All of the following describe associations between protein nutrition and the body’s water balance except

  1. inadequate protein intake may lead to edema.
  2. insufficient protein synthesis by the liver may lead to edema.
  3. excessive protein losses by the kidney may lead to dehydration.
  4. excessive protein intake burdens the kidneys to excrete unused nitrogen.

 

a      182(A)                   61.  The conditions known as acidosis and alkalosis refer to a disruption of the body’s

  1. pH balance.
  2. protein balance.
  3. nitrogen balance.
  4. endogenous metabolism.

 

a      182(K)                   62.  Tissue swelling that results from water accumulating between cells is known as

  1. edema.
  2. acidosis.
  3. alkalosis.
  4. extravascularization.

 

b      182(A)                   63.  Proteins, because they attract hydrogen ions, can act as

  1. acids.
  2. buffers.
  3. enzymes.
  4. antibodies.

 

b      182(K)                   64.  What function does a buffer perform?

  1. Helps emulsify fats
  2. Helps maintain a constant pH
  3. Facilitates chemical reactions
  4. Helps protect against plaque buildup

 

a      182(K)                   65.  Which of the following processes is regulated primarily by the buffering action of proteins?

  1. pH balance
  2. Fluid balance
  3. Blood clotting
  4. Synthesis of visual pigments

 

d      182-183(A)           66.  How do sodium and potassium travel into and out of cells?

  1. Antidiuretic hormone transports potassium and prodiuretic hormone carries sodium
  2. There are specific transport proteins in the blood that deliver the minerals to the cell cytoplasm
  3. The balance of insulin and glucagon determines the movement of these minerals into and out of cells
  4. There are transport proteins within the cell membrane that pick up and release the minerals across the membrane

 

c      183(K)                   67.  What is opsin?

  1. An antigen
  2. An antibody
  3. A light-sensitive protein
  4. A blood transport protein

 

d      183((K)                  68.  Which of the following proteins inactivates foreign bacteria and viruses?

  1. Enzymes
  2. Collagen
  3. Hormones
  4. Antibodies

 

b      183(A)                   69.  The body’s usual response to detection of antigens is to synthesize

  1. mutations.
  2. antibodies.
  3. erythrocytes.
  4. whey protein.

 

c      183(K)                   70.  Which of the following describes the structure of an antibody?

  1. Tripeptide
  2. Small nucleic acid
  3. Huge protein molecule
  4. Large peptide molecule

 

b      183(K)                   71.  Which of the following is involved in the clotting of blood?

  1. Opsin
  2. Fibrin
  3. Collagen
  4. Transferrin

 

d      184(A)                   72.  How many grams of nitrogen are contained in a 2500-kcalorie diet that provides 15% of the energy as protein?

  1. 2.5
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 15

 

b      184(A)                   73.  Which of the following may be used to determine protein utilization?

  1. Calorimetry
  2. Nitrogen balance
  3. Amino acid pool
  4. Supplementary value

 

c      184(A)                   74.  When nitrogen taken into the body exceeds nitrogen losses, we say the person is in

  1. a healthy state.
  2. nitrogen equilibrium.
  3. positive nitrogen balance.
  4. negative nitrogen balance.

 

b      184(K)                   75.  Which of the following defines protein turnover?

  1. The sum of protein in food and the body
  2. The sum of protein synthesis and degradation
  3. The amount of protein absorbed from the diet
  4. The amount of protein used to synthesize glucose

 

d      184(K)                   76.  What is the amino acid pool?

  1. The total amino acid content derived from a 24-hour dietary intake
  2. A measure of the circulating essential amino acid levels available for protein synthesis
  3. The total amount of free amino acids in the circulation destined for deamination and excretion
  4. A mix of essential and nonessential amino acids derived from protein breakdown and dietary protein intake

 

a      184(A)                   77.  Which of the following describes the state of nitrogen balance for a normal, healthy 35-year-old person who weighs 60 kg and consumes a diet that provides 75 g of protein and adequate energy?

  1. Equilibrium
  2. Positive balance
  3. Negative balance
  4. Endogenous balance

 

d      184(K)                   78.  The body’s amino acid pool consists of

  1. essential amino acids only.
  2. endogenous amino acids only.
  3. nonessential amino acids only.
  4. both essential and nonessential amino acids.

 

d      184(A)                   79.  What is the nitrogen balance of a person who consumed a 3500-kcalorie diet containing 10% protein and excreted a total of 12 grams of nitrogen?

  1. 0 g
  2. -3 g
  3. -1 g
  4. +2 g

 

c      184(A)                   80.  Which of the following would describe the state of nitrogen balance of a person who ingested 16 g of food nitrogen and lost 19 g of nitrogen?

  1. Equilibrium
  2. Positive balance
  3. Negative balance
  4. Exogenous balance

 

c      184(A)                   81.  What is the usual state of nitrogen balance for healthy infants, children, and pregnant women?

  1. Equilibrium
  2. Metabolic
  3. Positive
  4. Negative

 

d      184(K)                   82.  What amino acid is used to synthesize the neurotransmitter serotonin and the vitamin niacin?

  1. Glycine
  2. Tyrosine
  3. Methionine
  4. Tryptophan

 

c      184(K)                   83.  What is meant by protein turnover?

  1. Nitrogen equilibrium
  2. The antibody-antigen complex
  3. The synthesis and degradation of body proteins
  4. The secondary structure of proteins that initiates folding

 

b      184-186(A)           84.  What is the fate of excess dietary protein?

  1. After absorption, the liver will store the extra amino acids
  2. After absorption, the extra amino acids will be rapidly degraded
  3. Digestion will be decreased by 30 to 60%, resulting in less absorption
  4. After absorption, extra proteins will be synthesized and stored for use when protein intake returns to normal

 

b      185(A)                   85.  When amino acids are deaminated, the immediate products are ammonia and often a

  1. uric acid.
  2. keto acid.
  3. folic acid.
  4. gluco acid.

 

c      185(A)                   86.  Protein sparing in the body is best achieved when a person ingests

  1. proteins of plant origin only.
  2. proteins of animal origin only.
  3. adequate levels of carbohydrate and fat.
  4. mixed protein sources on alternate days.

 

d      185(A)                   87.  A person who is starving is losing

  1. fat only.
  2. glycogen only.
  3. glycogen and fat only.
  4. glycogen, protein, and fat.

 

a      185(A)                   88.  Which of the following illustrates a deamination reaction?

  1. Removal of the amino group from an amino acid
  2. Separation of an amino acid from a peptide chain
  3. Addition of an amino group to form a new amino acid
  4. Addition of an amino acid to form a larger peptide chain

 

b      185(A)                   89.  Which of the following is the most likely side effect of a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet?

  1. Diarrhea
  2. Increased thirst
  3. Nitrogen toxicity
  4. Increased water retention in the body

 

d      185;186(A)           90.  Which of the following compounds does not contain nitrogen?

  1. Urea
  2. Enzymes
  3. Ammonia
  4. Cholesterol

 

c      186(K)                   91.  Which of the following is a consequence of excess protein intake?

  1. Decreased excretion of calcium
  2. Decreased size of the liver and kidneys
  3. Increased production and excretion of urea
  4. Increased protein storage by the liver and kidneys

 

a      186(A)                   92.  Which of the following are precursors of urea synthesis?

  1. All amino acids
  2. Animal proteins only
  3. Essential amino acids only
  4. Nonessential amino acids only

 

c      186(K)                   93.  What is the process whereby an amino group is combined with a keto acid to form an amino acid?

  1. Deamination
  2. Ureagenesis
  3. Transamination
  4. Ammoniogenesis

 

a      186(K)                   94.  In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group?

  1. Excreted as urea
  2. Burned for energy
  3. Stored in the liver
  4. Converted to glucose

 

a      186(K)                   95.  The body’s need for water increases on a diet high in

  1. protein.
  2. carbohydrate.
  3. saturated fat.
  4. unsaturated fat.

 

a      186(A)                   96.  What is the most likely reason for a person to have abnormally high blood ammonia levels?

  1. Liver dysfunction
  2. Kidney dysfunction
  3. Protein intake twice the RDA
  4. Protein intake one-tenth the RDA

 

b      186(A)                   97.  Jason is 35 years old and was recently diagnosed with 2 failing kidneys. He was advised to decrease the amount protein he consumes. If Jason cheats by eating an 8-ounce steak for dinner tonight, shortly thereafter there would most likely be an increase in the urea levels of his

  1. urine.
  2. blood.
  3. stools.
  4. sweat.

 

b      186(A)                   98.  What is the most likely reason for having an abnormally high blood urea level?

  1. Liver dysfunction
  2. Kidney dysfunction
  3. Protein intake twice the RDA
  4. Protein intake one-tenth the RDA

 

b      186(A)                   99.  A prominent result of transamination reactions is the synthesis of

  1. essential amino acids.
  2. nonessential amino acids.
  3. neurotransmitters and hormones.
  4. both nonessential and essential amino acids.

 

a      187(A)                 100.  Your father, who has a high blood ammonia concentration, most likely has a poorly functioning

  1. liver.
  2. spleen.
  3. kidney.
  4. intestinal tract.

 

c      187(A)                 101.  Your mother, who has a high blood urea content, most likely has a poorly functioning

  1. liver.
  2. spleen.
  3. kidney.
  4. intestinal tract.

 

Questions for Section 6.4 Protein in Foods

 

a      187(A)                 102.  A reference protein equals or exceeds the essential amino acid requirements of all of the following population groups except

  1. infants.
  2. preschool aged children.
  3. adolescents.
  4. elderly.

 

c      187(K)                 103.  What is the percent digestibility of most plant proteins?

  1. 25-45
  2. 50-65
  3. 70-90
  4. 95-99

 

d      187(K)                 104.  What is the percent digestibility of most animal proteins?

  1. 50-65
  2. 70-75
  3. 80-85
  4. 90-99

 

a      187(A)                 105.  Which of the following food proteins has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body?

  1. Egg
  2. Rice
  3. Corn
  4. Gelatin

 

a      187(A)                 106.  Which of the following is related to the quality of a food protein?

  1. Essential amino acid balance
  2. Nonessential amino acid balance
  3. Total amino acids per gram of food
  4. Quantity of nonessential amino acids that can be converted to glucose

 

b      187(K)                 107.  What primary factor governs the quality of a food protein?

  1. Fat content
  2. Essential amino acid content
  3. Complex carbohydrate content
  4. Nonessential amino acid content

 

a      187(K)                 108.  In the study of protein nutrition, what term describes the amount of amino acids absorbed from a given amount of protein consumed?

  1. Digestibility
  2. Completeness
  3. Complementary Index
  4. Comparative Equivalence

 

c      187(A)                 109.  Which of the following is not considered to be a source of high-quality protein in human nutrition?

  1. Soy
  2. Egg
  3. Corn
  4. Fish

 

c      187(K)                 110.  Which of the following animal-derived proteins is classified as a poor-quality protein?

  1. Fish
  2. Cheese
  3. Gelatin
  4. Turkey

 

c      187(K)                 111.  What is a “limiting” amino acid in a protein?

  1. A nonessential amino acid present in high amounts, which inhibits protein synthesis
  2. An amino acid of the wrong structure to be utilized for protein synthesis efficiently
  3. An essential amino acid present in insufficient quantity for body protein synthesis to take place
  4. An amino acid that limits the absorption of other essential amino acids by competing with them for transport sites within the GI tract

 

b      187(A)                 112.  If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action?

  1. Body cells will synthesize it
  2. Protein synthesis will be limited
  3. Health will not be affected as long as other nutrients are adequate
  4. Proteins will be made but they will lack that particular amino acid

 

b      187;174(A)         113.  Which of the following could not be a limiting amino acid in the diet?

  1. Lysine
  2. Glycine
  3. Threonine
  4. Tryptophan

 

d      188(A)                 114.  Alberta is a 20 year old who has been a vegetarian for 3 years. She comes to you for advice after reading some material online by the Meat Promoters of America organization. One of their statements is: “. . . vegetarians are at risk for protein deficiency because they cannot consume all of the essential amino acids necessary for healthy individuals.” How should Alberta be advised?

  1. She should consume dairy and egg products at every meal to protect herself against protein deficiency
  2. She should avoid the “limiting” amino acids because they are limiting her ability to maintain proper protein status
  3. Because the statement is basically true, she should consider eating small quantities of meat every day in order to avoid protein deficiency
  4. Although many foods don’t provide all the essential amino acids individually, she could consume complementary proteins throughout the day, which would provide all the essential amino acids she needs

 

d      188(K)                 115.  Which of the following is characteristic of protein nutrition in vegetarians?

  1. Vegetarians in general must practice complementary protein nutrition
  2. Most vegetarians should consume gelatin to ensure adequate tryptophan intake
  3. Healthy vegetarians typically consume protein sources of very high digestibility
  4. Most vegetarians eating a variety of foods need not balance essential amino acid intake at each meal

 

b      188(K)                 116.  What is the Daily Value for protein based on a 2000-kcalorie intake?

  1. 25 g
  2. 50 g
  3. 75 g
  4. 100 g

 

b      188(K)                 117.  What is complementary protein nutrition?

  1. A dietary program that involves eating vegetable and animal proteins on alternating days
  2. A strategy that combines plant proteins in the same day to improve the balance of essential amino acids
  3. A technique developed specifically for the elderly that involves optimizing the ratio of protein intake to energy intake
  4. A body process that involves synthesis of crucial proteins from amino acids made available by the breakdown of storage proteins

 

a      188(A)                 118.  In general, the protein quality in grains would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in

  1. lysine.
  2. tryptophan.
  3. phenylalanine.
  4. glutamic acid.

 

c      188(A)                 119.  In general, the protein quality of legumes would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in

  1. lysine.
  2. tyrosine.
  3. methionine.
  4. glutamic acid.

 

c      188(A)                 120.  Relative to animal proteins, which of the following amino acids is present in lesser amounts in proteins of legumes?

  1. Alanine
  2. Isoleucine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Glutamic acid

 

Questions for Section 6.5 Health Effects and Recommended Intakes of Protein

 

c      188(A)                 121.  Approximately what percentage of children worldwide have protein-energy malnutrition?

  1. 1
  2. 5
  3. 25
  4. 50

 

c      188(A)                 122.  Acute protein-energy malnutrition in children is characterized by

  1. hyperactivity.
  2. shrunken liver.
  3. low weight for height.
  4. short height for weight.

 

c      188(A)                 123.  Chronic protein-energy malnutrition in children is characterized by

  1. hyperactivity.
  2. shrunken liver.
  3. short height for age.
  4. low weight for height.

 

c      188-189(K)         124.  All of the following are characteristics of protein-energy malnutrition except

  1. it is found in hospitalized adults.
  2. it is found in elderly living alone.
  3. it almost always exhibits overt signs.
  4. it is common in people with anorexia nervosa.

 

b      189(K)                 125.  Marasmus occurs most commonly in children of ages

  1. 1-5 months.
  2. 6-18 months.
  3. 1½-3 years.
  4. 4-10 years.

 

c      189(A)                 126.  You are reading a case study from a researcher at World University. The researcher has traveled to the largest city in India and is reporting on an illness present in a 15-month-old boy. The researcher described the child as extremely thin and bony, with wrinkled skin and enlarged fatty liver. For the past year, this child has subsisted almost entirely on diluted cereal drink. Your first thought is that all of these observations are characteristic of marasmus except for the

  1. wrinkled skin.
  2. food intake pattern.
  3. enlarged fatty liver.
  4. extremely thin, bony appearance.

 

d      189;190(A)         127.  Which of the following would you not expect to see in a person with kwashiorkor?

  1. Edema
  2. Dysentery
  3. Increased infection rate
  4. Increased physical activity

 

c      189-190(A)         128.  Which of the following is associated with the presence of tissue edema in kwashiorkor?

  1. Inadequate intake of water
  2. Excessive intake of dietary protein
  3. Low concentration of blood protein
  4. High concentration of blood protein

 

b      189-190(K)         129.  Which of the following is not a characteristic of marasmus?

  1. Results in a low resistance to disease
  2. Affects brain development only minimally
  3. Occurs most commonly in children aged 6 to 18 months
  4. Results in little or no fat under the skin to insulate against cold

 

a      190(K)                 130.  Which of the following is a feature of malnutrition?

  1. Dysentery is common and leads to diarrhea and nutrient depletion
  2. Intestinal villi grow slightly larger to provide additional absorptive surfaces for nutrients
  3. Digestive enzyme production increases in order to extract as much of the ingested nutrients as possible
  4. Infections are uncommon due to insufficient availability of nutrients in the body to support growth of bacteria and viruses

 

d      190(A)                 131.  At the end of your class presentation on “Protein-Energy Malnutrition,” a student asks you to clarify how the rapid onset of protein-energy malnutrition occurs in kwashiorkor. How should you respond?

  1. It is the result of an inborn error of metabolism
  2. It is usually synchronized with the drought season in each respective country
  3. It is typically seen in patients who are 2-5 years old due to the sudden change in diet arising from their dislike for breast milk as they grow older
  4. It is typically seen in patients who are 1-3 years old due to the sudden change in diet arising from their being weaned from breast milk after the birth of a sibling

 

b      190(A)                 132.  What term describes the illness a child develops when the next child is born?

  1. Marasmus
  2. Kwashiorkor
  3. Psychomalnutrition
  4. Postbirth malnutrition

 

c      190(A)                 133.  Which of the following conditions is associated with edema?

  1. Excessive use of certain drugs, which causes high excretion of water and amino acids
  2. Above-normal concentration of blood proteins, which causes fluid to leak from the blood vessels
  3. Diminished concentration of blood proteins and hormones, which causes fluid to leak from the blood vessels
  4. Excessive protein in the diet leading to increased retention of fluid, especially in the extravascular spaces

 

c      190(K)                 134.  Kwashiorkor typically develops in children of ages

  1. birth-6 months.
  2. 6-12 months.
  3. 18-24 months.
  4. 2½-5 years.

 

a      190(K)                 135.  In kwashiorkor, the loss of hair color is indirectly related to

  1. inadequate intake of tyrosine.
  2. elevated levels of blood homocysteine.
  3. excessive exposure to the sun’s UV rays.
  4. being nursed by a poorly-nourished mother.

 

a      190(A)                 136.  In kwashiorkor, what mineral is often present in an unbound form that promotes bacterial growth?

  1. Iron
  2. Iodine
  3. Arsenic
  4. Calcium

 

d      190(A)                 137.  What is the most likely explanation for the fatty liver that develops from protein deficiency?

  1. Increased uptake of circulating fats
  2. Increased absorption of dietary fats
  3. Inability of adipose tissue to remove circulating fats
  4. Inability of the liver to synthesize lipoproteins for fat export

 

d      190(K)                 138.  Which of the following is a feature of kwashiorkor?

  1. It makes the child appear grossly dehydrated
  2. It usually occurs prior to the onset of marasmus
  3. It is usually found in communities where marasmus is present
  4. It is typically precipitated in the undernourished child who has an infection

 

d      191(A)                 139.  What is the usual initial therapy for the treatment of kwashiorkor?

  1. Fat replacement
  2. Energy replacement
  3. Protein replacement
  4. Fluid balance restoration

 

c      191(K)                 140.  Excessive amounts of homocysteine in the blood are thought to increase the risk for

  1. cancer.
  2. diabetes.
  3. heart disease.
  4. protein-energy malnutrition.

 

a      191(K)                 141.  Supplements of which of the following amino acids are reported to lower blood pressure and reduce homocysteine levels?

  1. Arginine
  2. Cysteine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Phenylalanine

 

d      191(A)                 142.  All of the following are known to raise homocysteine levels except

  1. alcohol intake.
  2. cigarette smoking.
  3. coffee consumption.
  4. excess arginine intake.

 

a      191(A)                 143.  What type of diet is advised to rehabilitate a severely malnourished child?

  1. Low protein
  2. High protein
  3. Liberal quantities of lactose-free powdered milk until growth rate is restored
  4. High energy until normal body mass index is achieved, then moderate energy thereafter

 

c      191(K)                 144.  Which of the following is a feature of homocysteine?

  1. It is found only in animal foods
  2. It is a risk factor for osteoporosis
  3. It is increased in the blood of coffee drinkers
  4. It is increased in the blood of vitamin C-deficient people

 

d      191(K)                 145.  Which of the following describes a relationship between protein/amino acids and heart disease?

  1. Substituting soy protein for animal protein raises blood cholesterol levels
  2. High blood levels of the amino acid arginine are a risk factor for atherosclerosis
  3. High levels of homocysteine in food promote elevation of blood low-density lipoproteins
  4. Elevated blood homocysteine levels are associated with smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol

 

c      192(A)                 146.  What ratio (mg:g) of calcium to protein intake is believed to promote optimal bone health?

  1. 2:1
  2. 9:1
  3. 20:1
  4. 45:1

 

b      192(K)                 147.  Which of the following describes an association between protein intake and kidney function?

  1. Low-protein diets increase the risk for kidney stone formation
  2. Restricting protein intake may slow the progression of kidney disease
  3. High protein intakes over the long term represent a risk factor for kidney disease
  4. Liberal protein intakes result in high urea production, which increases the long-term efficiency of the kidneys

 

d      192(A)                 148.  In relation to the range of protein intake as a percentage of energy intake, what would be the highest safe level of protein intake for a 60-kg adult ingesting 2500 kcalories?

  1. 48 g
  2. 96 g
  3. 120 g
  4. 219 g

 

b      192(K)                 149.  Which of the following describes a relationship between protein intake and calcium metabolism?

  1. Calcium excretion falls with increasing intake of animal-derived proteins
  2. Calcium excretion rises with increasing intake of animal-derived proteins
  3. Calcium absorption declines with higher intakes of plant-derived proteins
  4. Calcium absorption increases with higher intakes of animal-derived proteins

 

c      192(A)                 150.  What is the RDA for protein for a 48-kg woman?

  1. 24 g
  2. 34 g
  3. 38 g
  4. 40 g

 

b      192(K)                 151.  What is the ratio of calcium to protein intake (mg to g) for most U.S. women?

  1. 3:1
  2. 9:1
  3. 15:1
  4. 21:1

 

b      192-193(K)         152.  What would be the primary principle of wise diet planning as related to protein nutrition?

  1. Variety
  2. Moderation
  3. Nutrient density
  4. kCalorie control

 

a      192-193(A)         153.  Which of the following is a feature of the protein RDA?

  1. The recommendations are generous
  2. It is highest proportionately for adult males
  3. It is established at 8 grams per kilogram of ideal body weight
  4. An assumption is made that dietary protein is from animal sources only

 

c      192-193(A)         154.  If protein needs are expressed per kilogram of body weight, which of the following describes the requirements of infants?

  1. Less than adults
  2. Similar to adults
  3. Greater than adults
  4. Less than adolescents

 

b      193(A)                 155.  What is the range of daily protein intake, in g/kg, recommended for athletes?

  1. 0.8-1.1
  2. 1.2-1.7
  3. 1.8-2.4
  4. 2.5-3.0

 

c      193(A)                 156.  Your friend Jill has just joined her community college soccer team. How much protein should she consume each day?

  1. 0.8 g/kg
  2. up to 1.0 g/kg
  3. 1.2-1.7 g/kg
  4. 2.5-2.9 g/kg

 

c      193(A)                 157.  Which of the following is an assumption made in the formulation of the RDA for protein?

  1. Dietary protein is of high quality only
  2. Dietary protein is of animal origin only
  3. Dietary carbohydrate and fat intakes are adequate
  4. Dietary protein should represent 12% of total energy

 

c      193(K)                 158.  All of the following assumptions are made by the committee in setting the RDA for protein except

  1. adequate kcalories will be consumed.
  2. protein eaten will be of mixed quality.
  3. the fat content of the diet will be high.
  4. other nutrients in the diet will be adequate.

 

b      193(K)                 159.  Which of the following is a feature of protein nutrition?

  1. Protein in body tissues is preserved fairly well on low-energy diets
  2. The protein RDA assumes that dietary protein is from a mix of low- and high-quality sources
  3. Many people in the United States and Canada consume somewhat less protein than is needed
  4. Athletes in training benefit from increasing their protein energy intake to 45-50% of total daily energy

 

c      193(A)                 160.  What is the percentage of total energy derived from protein in a diet containing 50 grams of protein and 2000 kcalories?

  1. 2.5
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 20

 

b      193(A)                 161.  If a person consumes 65 grams of protein and a total of 2700 kcalories per day, approximately what percentage of energy would be derived from protein?

  1. 7
  2. 10
  3. 14
  4. 20

 

d      194(A)                 162.  Approximately how many grams of protein are found in one quart of milk?

  1. 5
  2. 12
  3. 25
  4. 32

 

c      195(K)                 163.  Which of the following is a feature of whey protein?

  1. It is a high-priced protein supplement
  2. It is chemically extracted from gelatin
  3. It is a waste product of cheese production
  4. Regular consumption by athletes enhances performance

 

d      195(A)                 164.  Jim, a college baseball player, tells you that he has started to take glutamine supplements. How would you advise him?

  1. As long as he keeps the dose under 10 g/day, the benefits outweigh the costs
  2. Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking alanine supplements instead
  3. Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking tryptophan supplements instead
  4. Since single amino acids do not occur naturally in foods, they offer no benefit to the body and may even be harmful

 

d      195(K)                 165.  Which of the following is a feature of the branched-chain amino acids?

  1. They are all dispensable amino acids
  2. Large doses may suppress ammonia production
  3. They represent the major energy source for muscle tissue
  4. They may be helpful in treatment of advanced liver failure

 

c      195(K)                 166.  What amino acid has been linked to the development of the rare blood disorder eosinophilia myalgia in people who took it as a supplement?

  1. Glycine
  2. Arginine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Phenylalanine

 

a      195(K)                 167.  What amino acid supplement has been advertised in the popular media for treating herpes infections?

  1. Lysine
  2. Arginine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Phenylalanine

 

Questions for Section 6.6 Nutritional Genomics

 

d      198(K)                 168.  The disease phenylketonuria is related chiefly to abnormal metabolism of

  1. lactose.
  2. omega-3 fats.
  3. soy polysaccharides.
  4. a certain amino acid.

 

a      198(K)                 169.  The study of how food interacts with genes is known as

  1. nutritional genomics.
  2. chromosomals.
  3. nucleotide expression.
  4. mutagenic expression.

 

a      199(K)                 170.  The study of how environmental factors influence the expression of genes without altering the DNA is known as

  1. epigenetics.
  2. nucleotide sequencing.
  3. microarray technology.
  4. epidemiological consequences.

 

d      200(K)                 171.  Approximately what percentage of a person’s genes are similar to that of an unrelated person?

  1. 20
  2. 50
  3. 75
  4. 99.9

 

b      201(A)                 172.  What dispensable amino acid becomes essential in people with PKU?

  1. Glycine
  2. Tyrosine
  3. Arginine
  4. Glutamine

 

a      201(K)                 173.  The incidence of PKU in infants in the United States is one in every

  1. 15,000 births.
  2. 100,000 births.
  3. 500,000 births.
  4. 1,000,000 births.

 

c      201(K)                 174.  All of the following are characteristics of phenylketonuria except

  1. it is a single-gene disorder.
  2. it leads to a dietary requirement for tyrosine.
  3. it is treated by total elimination of dietary phenylalanine.
  4. it results in mental retardation unless treatment is started in infancy.

 

d      201(A)                 175.  Dietary restriction of phenylalanine combined with adequate tyrosine is the usual treatment for people born with the disorder

  1. DNA.
  2. ALC.
  3. NLM.
  4. PKU.

 

 

 

Matching

 

F      174                         01.  A dietary nonessential amino acid

I      175                         02.  A conditionally essential amino acid

G     176                         03.  A small protein

Q     176                         04.  A large protein that carries oxygen

R     176                         05.  Substances repelled by water

K     176                         06.  Describes protein exposed to severe heat

C     177                         07.  An active protease

L     180                         08.  A cell structure where protein synthesis takes place

J      181                         09.  A connective tissue protein

M    181                         10.  A protein catalyst

P      182                         11.  Fluid situated between cells

T     182                         12.  Fluid within blood vessels

O     184                         13.  A condition that favors positive nitrogen balance

H     184                         14.  A condition that favors negative nitrogen balance

B     186                         15.  A product of amino acid breakdown

E     187                         16.  A dietary protein lacking tryptophan

A     187                         17.  A good quality protein source

D     188                         18.  A typical limiting amino acid

N     190                         19.  A condition of protein malnutrition

S      191                         20.  An amino acid associated with heart disease

 

 

  1. Soy
  2. Urea
  3. Pepsin
  4. Lysine
  5. Gelatin
  6. Alanine
  7. Insulin
  8. Infection
  9. Tyrosine
  10. Collagen
  11. Denatured
  12. Ribosome
  13. Enzyme
  14. Kwashiorkor
  15. Pregnancy
  16. Interstitial
  17. Hemoglobin
  18. Hydrophobic
  19. Homocysteine
  20. Intravascular

 

 

 

 

Essay

 

Page(s)

 

174-175                                 01.  Explain the differences among amino acids that are classified as essential, nonessential, or conditionally essential.

 

176-178                                 02.  Explain the processes of protein digestion and absorption.

 

178-180                                 03.  Explain the manner in which a gene becomes expressed to direct the synthesis of a protein.

 

178-180;184-185;192        04.  Describe the processes involved in cellular protein synthesis. How would synthesis  be affected by intake of an otherwise adequate diet which is very low in glycine or low in tryptophan? How would synthesis be affected by a diet that is low in energy?

 

184                                         05.  What is meant by nitrogen balance? How does it differ among infants, adults, and those who are injured or on weight-loss diets?

 

187                                         06.  Explain the rationale for the selection of a reference protein for the comparison of protein quality. Why is this reference protein considered to be superior to egg protein?

 

187                                         07.  What is a limiting amino acid? What are the four amino acids most likely to be limiting in protein nutrition?

 

189-191                                 08.  Compare and contrast the nutritional deficiencies of kwashiorkor and marasmus.

 

189-191                                 09.  Compare and contrast the features of kwashiorkor and marasmus.

 

188-191                                 10.  Discuss the characteristics of protein-energy malnutrition, including risk factors, signs and symptoms, prevention, and treatment.

 

190                                         11.  Why are infections so common in people with protein-energy malnutrition?

 

191                                         12.  Explain the proposed relationships between:

  1. Body homocysteine levels and heart disease.
  2. Protein intake and calcium metabolism.

 

192                                         13.  Explain the association between adult bone loss and protein intake.

 

194-195                                 14.  What are the possible consequences of consuming too much protein? What are the hazards of consuming amino acid supplements?

 

194                                         15.  List population groups for which amino acid dietary supplements are especially inappropriate.

 

195                                         16.  Discuss the use and misuse of protein and amino acid supplements in athletes and in the general population.

 

200                                         17.  Provide several examples of beneficial and adverse consequences of activating or silencing gene expression.

 

201                                         18.  Describe the signs and symptoms of phenylketonuria. What is the cause and what is the treatment?

 

201                                         19.  What is meant by a “predisposition” to a disease?

 

201-202                                 20.  Compare and contrast the features of a single-gene disorder and a multigene disorder.

 

202                                         21.  Explain how SNPs are involved in gene expression, especially in relation to a person’s blood lipid profile.

 

202                                         22.  Discuss the contributory roles of genes and environment on prevention and treatment of disease.

 

Chapter 7 – Metabolism: Transformations and Interactions

 

An.  Page(s)/difficulty                                                                                              K = knowledge-level, A = application level

 

Multiple Choice

 

Questions for Section 7.0 Introduction

 

b      205(K)                   01.  Which of the following describes the sum of all chemical reactions that go on in living cells?

  1. Digestion
  2. Metabolism
  3. Absorption
  4. Catabolism

 

a      205(K)                   02.  In photosynthesis, the plant uses energy from the sun, plus water and carbon dioxide, to synthesize

  1. carbohydrates only.
  2. fats and carbohydrates only.
  3. protein and carbohydrates only.
  4. fats, proteins, and carbohydrates.

 

Questions for Section 7.1 Chemical Reactions in the Body

 

c      206(K)                   03.  A typical cell contains “powerhouses,” which is another name for the

  1. DNA.
  2. ribosomes.
  3. mitochondria.
  4. electron transport chains.

 

a      206(K)                   04.  A feature of catabolic reactions is that they

  1. involve release of energy.
  2. occur only in mitochondria.
  3. involve consumption of energy.
  4. occur only during loss of body weight.

 

a      206(K)                   05.  What term is specific to reactions in which simple compounds are combined into more complex molecules?

  1. Anabolic
  2. Catabolic
  3. Ergogenic
  4. Gluconeogenic

 

d      206(K)                   06.  The site of lipid synthesis in the cell is the

  1. nucleus.
  2. Golgi bodies.
  3. mitochondria.
  4. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

 

d      206;207(A)           07.  Which of the following reactions is an example of an anabolic reaction?

  1. Pyruvate synthesis from glucose
  2. Acetyl CoA synthesis from cholesterol
  3. Carbon dioxide synthesis from citric acid
  4. Cholesterol synthesis from acetyl CoA molecules

 

c      206;207(A)           08.  The formation of glycogen by the liver cell is an example of

  1. oxidation.
  2. glycolysis.
  3. anabolism.
  4. catabolism.

 

b      206;207(A)           09.  Which of the following is an example of a catabolic reaction?

  1. Glucose formation from glycerol
  2. Urea formation from an amino acid
  3. Albumin formation from amino acids
  4. Palmitic acid formation from acetate

 

c      207(K)                   10.  All of the following are among the functions of the liver except

  1. synthesis of urea.
  2. synthesis of glycogen.
  3. production of red blood cells.
  4. conversion of fructose to glucose.

 

b      208(K)                   11.  What is the approximate percent efficiency of conversion of food energy to ATP energy in the body?

  1. 20
  2. 50
  3. 80
  4. 99

 

a      208(A)                   12.  In the adult body, food energy not stored as fat or glycogen is lost as

  1. heat.
  2. photons.
  3. carbon dioxide.
  4. electromagnetic radiation.

 

b      208(K)                   13.  Which of the following defines a coenzyme?

  1. A unit consisting of an enzyme bound to reactants plus ATP
  2. An organic molecule required for the functioning of an enzyme
  3. The small, active part of an enzyme that binds to the organic reactants
  4. An inactive enzyme that becomes functional upon contact with specific cofactors

 

a      208(K)                   14.  The hydrolysis of ATP that often occurs simultaneously with the synthesis of many compounds is an example of

  1. coupled reactions.
  2. tandem cleavages.
  3. metabolic couplings.
  4. high energy processes.

 

c      208(A)                   15.  Which of the following metabolic reactions occurs when a cell uses energy?

  1. ATP gains a phosphate group and becomes ADP
  2. ADP gains a phosphate group and becomes ATP
  3. ATP releases a phosphate group and becomes ADP
  4. ADP releases a phosphate group and becomes ATP

 

a      209(K)                   16.  What is the major energy carrier molecule in most cells?

  1. ATP
  2. Glucose
  3. Pyruvate
  4. A kcalorie

 

Questions for Section 7.2 Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy

 

b      209(K)                   17.  The basic units derived from food include all of the following except

  1. glycerol.
  2. starches.
  3. fatty acids.
  4. amino acids.

 

b      209(K)                   18.  Approximately what percentage of the body’s energy expenditure is furnished by amino acids?

  1. 1 to 5
  2. 10 to 15
  3. 25 to 35
  4. 50 to 65

 

a      210(K)                   19.  Which of the following can not be formed from acetyl CoA molecules?

  1. Glucose
  2. Cholesterol
  3. Stearic acid
  4. Carbon dioxide

 

d      210(A)                   20.  Which of the following can not be formed from pyruvate in human beings?

  1. Glucose
  2. Fructose
  3. Lactic acid
  4. Linoleic acid

 

c      211(K)                   21.  Glycolysis is the conversion of

  1. glycogen to fat.
  2. glycogen to protein.
  3. glucose to pyruvate.
  4. glucose to glycogen.

 

b      211(K)                   22.  The series of reactions involving the conversion of glucose to pyruvate is known as

  1. pyrolysis.
  2. glycolysis.
  3. beta-oxidation.
  4. coupled reaction.

 

a      211-212(K)           23.  Which of the following is not an aspect of glycolysis?

  1. It is irreversible
  2. It generates ATP
  3. It occurs in the absence of oxygen
  4. It generates two molecules of pyruvate for each molecule of glucose

 

b      212;219;221-222(A)       24.          Which of the following outlines the overall sequence of events in the complete oxidation of glucose?

  1. Cori cycle, TCA cycle, glycolysis
  2. Glycolysis, TCA cycle, electron transport chain
  3. Electron transport chain, TCA cycle, Cori cycle
  4. TCA cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis

 

c      213(K)                   25.  Which of the following is a feature of aerobic metabolism?

  1. Little or no oxygen is consumed
  2. Lactic acid is a major byproduct
  3. Energy is produced more slowly than in anaerobic metabolism
  4.              Pyruvate is converted to glucose by reverse glycolysis to yield a net of 2 ATPs

 

b      213(A)                   26.  An aerobic reaction is one that requires

  1. alcohol.
  2. oxygen.
  3. nitrogen.
  4. ammonia.

 

a      213(A)                   27.  Your roommate Demetrius is participating in a weightlifting course and complains of a burning pain during workouts. You explain to Demetrius that the rapid breakdown of glucose in his muscles produces large amounts of pyruvate, which leads to a fall in pH within the muscle and that the muscle responds by converting excess pyruvate to

  1. lactate.
  2. glycerol.
  3. acetyl CoA.
  4. amino acids.

 

a      213(K)                   28.  The Cori cycle involves the interconversion of

  1. lactate and glucose.
  2. glucose and amino acids.
  3. pyruvate and citric acids.
  4. fatty acids and acetyl CoA.

 

a      213-214(A)           29.  When a person is performing intense physical exercise and begins to feel fatigue and a burning pain in the muscles, the response of the muscles is to synthesize more

  1. lactate.
  2. glucose.
  3. citric acid.
  4. fatty acids.

 

a      214(A)                   30.  Which of the following is not a possible fate of metabolized glucose?

  1. Urea
  2. Acetyl CoA
  3. Amino acids
  4. Muscle glycogen

 

d      214-215(A)           31.  Which of the following nutrients can be made from compounds composed of 2-carbon skeletons?

  1. Glucose
  2. Fructose
  3. Glycogen
  4. Fatty acids

 

c      214-215(A)           32.  Which of the following is a possible fate of acetyl CoA?

  1. Degradation to urea
  2. Synthesis to glycerol
  3. Synthesis to fatty acids
  4. Degradation to ammonia

 

c      215(A)                   33.  What is the first product of fatty acid catabolism?

  1. Glycerol
  2. Pyruvate
  3. Acetyl CoA
  4. Triglycerides

 

d      215(K)                   34.  Fatty acid oxidation results in the direct production of

  1. ketones.
  2. fructose.
  3. pyruvate.
  4. acetyl CoA.

 

a      215(A)                   35.  Production of excessive amounts of acetyl CoA molecules leads to the synthesis of

  1. fatty acids only.
  2. fatty acids and glucose only.
  3. fatty acids and fructose only.
  4. fatty acids, glucose, and amino acids.

 

a      215(K)                   36.  In a triglyceride that contains 54 carbon atoms, how many can become part of glucose?

  1. 3
  2. 9
  3. 54
  4. 108

 

b      215(K)                   37.  Which of the following compounds cannot be formed from fatty acids?

  1. Ketones
  2. Glucose
  3. Acetyl CoA
  4. Carbon dioxide

 

d      215(K)                   38.  Approximately what percentage of the weight of triglycerides cannot be converted to glucose?

  1. 70
  2. 80
  3. 90
  4. 95

 

b      215(A)                   39.  What percentage (by weight) of a triglyceride molecule can be converted to glucose?

  1. 0
  2. 5
  3. 50
  4. 100

 

c      215(A)                   40.  How many acetyl CoA molecules may be obtained from oxidation of an 18-carbon fatty acid?

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 9
  4. 18

 

b      215-216(A)           41.  Which of the following dietary components cannot be used to synthesize and store glycogen?

  1. Lactose
  2. Animal fats
  3. Wheat starch
  4. Plant protein

 

c      215-217(A)           42.  Which of the following cannot be used to make body proteins?

  1. Glucose
  2. Glycerol
  3. Fatty acids
  4. Amino acids

 

b      216(A)                   43.  An immediate consequence of a cellular deficiency of oxaloacetate is a slowing of

  1. glycolysis.
  2. the TCA cycle.
  3. lactate synthesis.
  4. ketone formation.

 

a      216(A)                   44.  All of the following may serve as precursors for oxaloacetate synthesis except

  1. fat.
  2. starch.
  3. glucose.
  4. protein.

 

d      216(A)                   45.  What is the immediate fate of excess dietary protein in the body?

  1. Stored
  2. Reduced
  3. Oxidized
  4. Deaminated

 

a      216(A)                   46.  After digestion and absorption, an amino acid not used to build protein will first be subjected to

  1. removal of its amino group.
  2. removal of its carboxyl group.
  3. hydrolysis of its peptide bond.
  4. condensation of its peptide bond.

 

b      216;218(A)           47.  Which of the following leads to the production of urea?

  1. Oxidation of glucose
  2. Oxidation of amino acids
  3. Incomplete oxidation of fatty acids
  4. Synthesis of protein from amino acids

 

d      218(A)                   48.  When energy-yielding nutrients are consumed in excess, which one(s) can lead to storage of fat?

  1. Fat only
  2. Carbohydrate only
  3. Fat and carbohydrate only
  4. Fat, carbohydrate, and protein

 

c      218(A)                   49.  If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body’s needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose?

  1. Fatty acids
  2. Acetyl CoA
  3. Amino acids
  4. Carbon dioxide

 

d      218(A)                   50.  When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are metabolized and the energy in the molecules is

  1. stored as fat only.
  2. excreted in the feces.
  3. stored as amino acids only.
  4. stored as glycogen and fat.

 

d      220-221(K)           51.  What are the products from the complete oxidation of fatty acids?

  1. Urea and acetone
  2. Fatty acids and glycerol
  3. Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
  4. Water, carbon dioxide, and energy

 

a      220-221(K)           52.  In addition to energy, what are the principal end products of cellular oxidation of carbohydrates?

  1. Water and carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon, hydrogen, and urea
  3. Indigestible fiber and nitrogen
  4. Monosaccharides and amino acids

 

c      220-221(A)           53.  Which of the following products is not generated via the TCA cycle or electron transport chain?

  1. Water
  2. Energy
  3. Ammonia
  4. Carbon dioxide

 

a      221(A)                   54.  At what point is oxygen used in the electron transport chain?

  1. At the end
  2. At every step
  3. At the beginning
  4. When ATP is synthesized

 

b      221(K)                   55.  Products from the electron transport chain pathway include all of the following except

  1. CO2.
  2. urea.
  3. water.
  4. energy.

 

b      221-222(K)           56.  Which of the following accounts for the higher energy density of a fatty acid compared with the other energy-yielding nutrients?

  1. Fatty acids have a lower percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds
  2. Fatty acids have a greater percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds
  3. Other energy-yielding nutrients have a lower percentage of oxygen-carbon bonds
  4. Other energy-yielding nutrients undergo fewer metabolic reactions, thereby lowering the energy yield

 

d      222(A)                   57.  The number of ATP molecules that can be produced from a molecule of protein, fat, or carbohydrate is generally related to the number of atoms of

  1. carbon.
  2. oxygen.
  3. nitrogen.
  4. hydrogen.

 

c      222(K)                   58.  Approximately how many molecules of ATP are generated from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose?

  1. 4
  2. 9
  3. 32
  4. 130

 

d      222(A)                   59.  Approximately how many ATP molecules are synthesized from the complete oxidation of a molecule of palmitic acid?

  1. 9
  2. 27
  3. 98
  4. 129

 

Section 7.3 Energy Balance

 

c      222(K)                   60.  Which of the following can be synthesized from all three energy-yielding nutrients?

  1. Lactate
  2. Glycogen
  3. Acetyl CoA
  4. Oxaloacetate

 

c      223(A)                   61.  Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the body’s higher metabolic efficiency of converting a molecule of corn oil into stored fat compared with a molecule of sucrose?

  1. The enzymes specific for metabolizing absorbed fat have been found to have higher activities than those metabolizing sucrose
  2. The absorbed corn oil is transported to fat cells at a faster rate than the absorbed sucrose, thereby favoring the uptake of corn oil fat
  3. There are fewer metabolic reactions for disassembling the corn oil and re-assembling the parts into a triglyceride for uptake by the fat cells
  4. Because the energy content of corn oil is higher than sucrose, conversion of these nutrients into stored fat requires a smaller percentage of the energy from the corn oil

 

c      223-224(A)           62.  If a person consumes 100 kcalories in excess of energy needs from table sugar, approximately how many of the kcalories are stored in the body?

  1. 25
  2. 50
  3. 75
  4. 100

 

d      223-224(A)           63.  If a person consumes 100 kcalories in excess of energy needs from olive oil, approximately what percentage of the kcalories are stored in the body?

  1. 25
  2. 45
  3. 65
  4. 95

 

a      224(A)                   64.  Jake is getting ready for spring training and is sitting down to a dinner of half a chicken, a rib-eye steak, black beans, and 5 slices of bacon. He has been eating typical dinners like this for about a month and has since gained 7 pounds, while exercising only briefly. When Jake asks why he doesn’t see an increase in his biceps or abs, the proper response should be

  1. dietary protein alone does not contribute to muscle accretion.
  2. it takes at least 6 months to document changes in muscle accretion.
  3. the weight he has gained can be attributed to a substantial increase in his protein stores.
  4. because muscle accretion only responds to very lean meat choices, he should eliminate the fatty bacon and steak from his diet to promote muscle gain.

 

a      224(K)                   65.  Which of the following is a characteristic of the metabolism of specific macronutrients?

  1. The rate of fat oxidation does not change when fat is eaten in excess
  2. The rate of protein oxidation does not change when protein is eaten in excess
  3. The rate of glucose oxidation does not change when carbohydrate is eaten in excess
  4. The conversion of dietary glucose to fat represents the major pathway of carbohydrate utilization

 

b      224(K)                   66.  How does excess carbohydrate intake contribute to obesity?

  1. It is efficiently converted to storage fat
  2. It spares oxidation of body fat and dietary fat
  3. It stimulates glucagon release resulting in inhibition of fatty acid oxidation
  4. It stimulates pancreatic lipase secretion, which results in higher dietary fat absorption

 

c      224(A)                   67.  Which of the following is the body’s first response to the absorption of abundant amounts of carbohydrate?

  1. Catabolism of body fat
  2. Catabolism of glycogen
  3. Synthesis and storage of glycogen
  4. Synthesis and storage of triglycerides

 

b      224-225(K)           68.  All of the following are features of the metabolism of surplus dietary carbohydrate in human beings except

  1. excess glucose suppresses fat oxidation.
  2. excess glucose is oxidized only very slowly.
  3. excess glucose is first used to fill glycogen reserves.
  4. conversion of excess glucose to fat occurs only to a very limited extent.

 

a      224-225(K)           69.  Which of the following is a feature of the metabolism of surplus dietary fat?

  1. Excess fat is almost all stored
  2. Excess fat promotes increased fat oxidation
  3. Excess fat spares breakdown of body proteins
  4. Conversion of excess fat to storage fat is inefficient

 

a      226(A)                   70.  After the first day or so of fasting, which of the following is most depleted in the body?

  1. Glycogen
  2. Fatty acids
  3. Amino acids
  4. Triglycerides

 

c      226(K)                   71.  Of the total amount of carbohydrate energy consumed by the body, approximately what percentage is used by the brain and nerve cells?

  1. 10
  2. 30
  3. 50
  4. 90

 

d      226(A)                   72.  If a normal person expends 1200 kcalories while at rest, approximately how many are used by the brain?

  1. 40
  2. 100
  3. 200
  4. 300

 

a      226(K)                   73.  During the first few days of a fast, what energy source provides about 90% of the glucose needed to fuel the body?

  1. Protein
  2. Ketones
  3. Glycogen
  4. Triglycerides

 

d      226(A)                   74.  Which of the following dietary nutrients would most rapidly reverse a state of ketosis in a starving person?

  1. Fat
  2.              Protein
  3. Amino acids
  4. Carbohydrate

 

a      226(A)                   75.  How soon would death occur from starvation if the body was unable to shift to a state of ketosis?

  1. Within 3 weeks
  2. Less than 2 weeks
  3. Between 5 and 6 weeks
  4. Between 2 and 3 months

 

b      226(A)                   76.  A feature of ketosis is that it

  1. occurs from lack of protein in the diet.
  2. occurs when fats are partially oxidized.
  3. results from excess acetoacetate in the diet.
  4. results from excess carbohydrate in the diet.

 

a      226(A)                   77.  The effects on metabolism from starvation are similar to those from

  1. fasting.
  2. feasting.
  3. lipogenesis.
  4. Cori cycling.

 

a      226-227(A)           78.  A person said to have acetone breath most likely has the condition known as

  1. ketonemia.
  2. feasting syndrome.
  3. acetyl CoA toxicity.
  4. carbohydrate overload.

 

a      226-227(A)           79.  Which of the following is used to supply some of the fuel needed by the brain only after the body has been fasting for a while?

  1. Ketones
  2. Glycerol
  3. Fatty acids
  4. Amino acids

 

c      226-227(A)           80.  Elizabeth has been fasting for 4 days in observance of her religious beliefs. You note that her breath smells “fruity.” This is most likely due to

  1. her intake of religious wafers.
  2. her intake of dilute fruit juices.
  3. her body’s shift to a state of ketosis.
  4. her body’s switch to a lipogenic state.

 

a      227(K)                   81.  Ketonemia is defined as an elevation of

  1. ketones in the blood.
  2. ketones in the urine.
  3. alpha-ketoglutarate in the blood.
  4. alpha-ketoglutarate in the urine.

 

b      227(K)                   82.  How are ketones formed?

  1. Condensation of lactic acid molecules
  2. Condensation of acetyl CoA molecules
  3. Hydrolysis of excess glycerol fragments
  4. Hydrolysis of excess pyruvate fragments

 

b      227(A)                   83.  All of the following are general features of starvation in people except

  1. a decrease in metabolic rate.
  2. a decrease in mental alertness.
  3. a decrease in immune function.
  4. a decrease in body temperature.

 

a      227(K)                   84.  Which of the following is a characteristic of ketosis?

  1. It may lead to a lowering of blood pH
  2. It leads to increased appetite in most individuals
  3. It may be alleviated quickly by ingestion of some dietary fat
  4. It is a necessary physiological adjustment for maximum weight loss

 

d      227(K)                   85.  Which of the following is classified as a ketone body?

  1. Sorbitol
  2. Pyruvate
  3. Acetyl CoA
  4. Acetoacetate

 

d      227-228(K)           86.  Adverse side effects of typical low-carbohydrate diets include all of the following except

  1. fatigue.
  2. nausea.
  3. constipation.
  4. high blood pressure.

 

d      228(A)                   87.  Lillie has been losing weight by following a very-low-carbohydrate diet for 2 months. Her primary care physician just diagnosed ketosis through a urine sample. Which of the following symptoms would be another way the physician might have suspected ketosis in Lillie?

  1. Thinning hair
  2. Irritable temper
  3. Fishy body odor
  4. Fruity odor on breath

 

a      228(A)                   88.  A person with fruity odor on the breath demonstrates evidence of metabolic

  1. ketosis.
  2. alkalosis.
  3. transamination.
  4. anaerobic breakdown.

 

c      228(A)                   89.  What type of diet is associated with the development of ketosis?

  1. Low fat
  2. Low protein
  3. Low carbohydrate
  4. High carbohydrate

 

Questions for Section 7.4 Alcohol and Nutrition

 

b      230(K)                   90.  The health benefits of moderate alcohol intake occur in people with a starting age (years) of

  1. 21.
  2. 35.
  3. 55.
  4. 65.

 

b      230(K)                   91.  Binge drinking is defined as the successive consumption of

  1. 1-2 drinks.
  2. 4-5 drinks.
  3. 6-9 drinks.
  4. more than 10 drinks.

 

a      230-231(A)           92.  Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized woman?

  1. Up to 1 drink
  2. Up to 2 drinks
  3. Up to 3 drinks
  4. Up to 5 drinks

 

b      230-231(K)           93.  Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized man?

  1. Up to 1 drink
  2. Up to 2 drinks
  3. Up to 3 drinks
  4. Up to 5 drinks

 

c      231(K)                   94.  The chemical structure of ethanol consists of

  1. 4 carbons and 1 keto acid.
  2. 6 carbons and 2 double bonds.
  3. 2 carbons and 1 hydroxyl group.
  4. 3 carbons and 2 carbonyl groups.

 

b      231(A)                   95.  With alcohol beverages, the ratio of proof to alcohol percentage is

  1. 1:1.
  2. 2:1.
  3. 4:1.
  4. 8:1.

 

a      231(K)                   96.  The amount of ethanol in a typical “drink” is

  1. 0.5 ounce.
  2. 1 ounce.
  3. 1.5 ounces.
  4. 2 ounces.

 

d      231(A)                   97.  Approximately how many kcal are contained in 3 ounces of 80-proof rum?

  1. 50
  2. 100
  3. 150
  4. 200

 

c      231(K)                   98.  One average-sized can of beer contains about the same amount of alcohol as

  1. ½ ounce of rum.
  2. ½ quart of wine.
  3. 1½ ounces of vodka.
  4. 1 quart of wine cooler.

 

c      231(A)                   99.  What is the percentage of ethanol in 120-proof scotch whiskey?

  1. 5
  2. 30
  3. 60
  4. 95

 

d      232(K)                 100.  Which of the following is one explanation for the generally lower tolerance for alcohol in women in comparison to men?

  1. Women fast more often
  2. Women do not eat as much food with the alcohol
  3. Women consume more of their alcohol in sweetened drinks
  4. Women have lower amounts of stomach alcohol dehydrogenase

 

b      232(A)                 101.  What organ is first to absorb alcohol after a person takes a drink?

  1. Colon
  2. Stomach
  3. Jejunum
  4. Duodenum

 

b      232(K)                 102.  What is the primary organ that oxidizes alcohol?

  1. Brain
  2. Liver
  3. Pancreas
  4. Digestive tract

 

d      232(A)                 103.  Which of the following is(are) best suited for slowing alcohol absorption?

  1. Not eating
  2. Protein snacks
  3. Caffeine drinks
  4. Carbohydrate snacks

 

c      232(K)                 104.  The metabolism of alcohol begins in the

  1. liver.
  2. brain.
  3. stomach.
  4. intestines.

 

a      232(K)                 105.  Which of the following is characteristic of alcohol absorption?

  1. It is slowed when the stomach is full of food
  2. It is increased when high-fat snacks are eaten
  3. It is increased when carbohydrate snacks are eaten
  4. It is lower in women than in men of the same body weight

 

c      232(K)                 106.  Which of the following plays a major role in regulating the elimination of alcohol from the body?

  1. Lung respiratory rate
  2. Kidney antidiuretic hormone
  3. Liver alcohol dehydrogenase
  4. Brain acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

 

b      232(K)                 107.  What is acetaldehyde?

  1. An intermediate in fatty acid synthesis
  2. An intermediate in alcohol metabolism
  3. The first product of fatty acid catabolism
  4. The TCA compound that combines with acetyl CoA

 

c      232(K)                 108.  Which of the following statements is not characteristic of alcohol metabolism?

  1. There are gender differences in the rate of breakdown
  2. The average person needs about two hours to metabolize two drinks
  3. Alcohol is metabolized by muscle and brain cells as well as by the liver
  4. The amount of alcohol in the breath is proportional to the amount in the blood

 

b      232(A)                 109.  Your middle-aged aunt says that she always feels more “tipsy” than her same-size husband, even though their alcohol intake is the same. You respond by saying to your aunt:

  1. “Men have greater amounts of liver acetaldehyde dehydrogenase and so can oxidize the alcohol at a faster rate.”
  2. “Women have less stomach alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme and consequently absorb more of the alcohol into the bloodstream.”
  3. “Men have greater amounts of alcohol dehydrogenase in the brain, resulting in reduced exposure of brain neurons to alcohol.”
  4. “Women have less liver alcohol dehydrogenase and acetaldehyde dehydrogenase and so more alcohol is released into the systemic circulation.”

 

c      232(A)                 110.  In the average healthy person, about how much time is required by the liver to process the alcohol in a typical drink?

  1. 15 minutes
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 1 hour
  4. 2 hours

 

b      233(K)                 111.  Excess alcohol intake leads to a reduction in the synthesis rate of

  1. liver fat.
  2. liver glucose.
  3. ketone bodies.
  4. acetyl CoA molecules.

 

d      233(K)                 112.  What is the sequence of stages that brings about advanced liver disease caused by chronic alcohol toxicity?

  1. Fibrosis, gout, cirrhosis
  2. Fibrosis, cirrhosis, fat depletion
  3. Cirrhosis, fat accumulation, fibrosis
  4. Fat accumulation, fibrosis, cirrhosis

 

d      234(K)                 113.  What is MEOS?

  1. An advanced liver disorder
  2. A drug that inhibits alcohol absorption
  3. A waste product of alcohol metabolism
  4. A system of enzymes that oxidizes alcohol and drugs

 

c      234(K)                 114.  Approximately what percentage of alcohol in the body is eliminated via the urine and breath?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 10
  4. 25

 

b      234-235(A)         115.  Which of the following functions is(are) first to be affected when a person begins to drink alcohol?

  1. Speech and vision
  2. Judgment and reasoning
  3. Voluntary muscle control
  4. Respiration and heart function

 

a      235(K)                 116.  What is the minimum blood alcohol percentage that defines legal drunkenness in most states?

  1. 0.10
  2. 0.20
  3. 0.30
  4. 0.40

 

b      235(K)                 117.  What minimum concentration of blood alcohol leads to impaired judgment and increased heart rate?

  1. 0.01
  2. 0.05
  3. 0.10
  4. 0.35

 

a      235(K)                 118.  What minimum concentration of alcohol in the blood is usually fatal?

  1. 0.5%
  2. 1%
  3. 5%
  4. 50%

 

d      235(K)                 119.  Which of the following is a consequence of alcohol intake?

  1. The MEOS is suppressed
  2. Homocysteine production is reduced
  3. Water content of the blood in increased
  4. Antidiuretic hormone production is suppressed

 

b      236(K)                 120.  The Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in people with chronic alcohol abuse stems primarily from a deficiency of

  1. folate.
  2. thiamin.
  3. antidiuretic hormone.
  4. alcohol dehydrogenase.

 

a      236(K)                 121.  Which of the following is a feature of ethanol metabolism?

  1. It increases gastric acid output
  2. It decreases activity of the MEOS
  3. It decreases secretion of gastric histamine
  4. It increases secretion of antidiuretic hormone

 

a      236(A)                 122.  Chronic excess alcohol intake leads to all of the following effects on folate except

  1. the small intestine recycles more folate.
  2. the liver releases more folate into the blood.
  3. the kidneys excrete more folate via the urine.
  4. the small intestine absorbs less folate from the diet.

 

c      236(A)                 123.  Approximately how many kcalories from ethanol are contained in one standard drink of vodka or rum?

  1. 25
  2. 50
  3. 100
  4. 200

 

c      237(K)                 124.  Approximately what percentage of all traffic fatalities involves alcohol?

  1. 5
  2. 25
  3. 40
  4. 75

 

a      237(K)                 125.  What is the median weekly number of alcoholic drinks consumed by college students?

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 10

 

d      237(A)                 126.  What fraction of all domestic violence incidents involve alcohol use?

  1. 1/10
  2. 1/5
  3. 1/3
  4. 2/3

 

a      238(K)                 127.  Which of the following is a characteristic of alcohol use?

  1. Ingestion of alcohol cools the body
  2. Alcohol stimulates the appetite for most people
  3. Since alcohol is legal, it is not classified as a drug
  4. Intake of alcohol along with raw seafood reduces the chances of contracting hepatitis

 

Matching

 

S      206                         01.  Example of an anabolic reaction

R     206                         02.  Example of a catabolic reaction

F      208                         03.  A protein that accelerates a chemical reaction

J      208                         04.  A small non-protein organic substance that promotes optimal activity of an enzyme

O     211                         05.  A product of glycolysis

L     213                         06.  A product of pyruvate metabolism when oxygen is limited

N     214                         07.  The oxidation product of pyruvate

K     214                         08.  A recycling process of converting lactate to glucose

T     214                         09.  An irreversible reaction

H     215                         10.  The part of a triglyceride that is convertible to glucose

I      216                         11.  A product of deamination

P      216                         12.  Amino acids that are convertible to glucose

B     216                         13.  The principal nitrogen-containing waste product

D     221                         14.  Waste product of the electron transport chain

G     224                         15.  A storage form of carbohydrate

E     226                         16.  The major energy fuel for the central nervous system

M    227                         17.  A ketone

Q     232                         18.  An enzyme with activity levels related to a person’s sex

A     232                         19.  A coenzyme required for metabolism of alcohol

C     234                         20.  A system for metabolizing drugs and alcohol

 

 

  1. NAD
  2. Urea
  3. MEOS
  4. Water
  5. Glucose
  6. Enzyme
  7. Glycogen
  8. Glycerol
  9. Ammonia
  10. Coenzyme
  11. Cori cycle
  12. Lactate
  13. Acetoacetate
  14. Acetyl CoA
  15. Pyruvate
  16. Glucogenic
  17. Gastric alcohol dehydrogenase
  18. Synthesis of pyruvate from glycogen
  19. Synthesis of cholesterol from acetate
  20. Synthesis of acetyl CoA from glucose

 

 

 

 

Essay

 

Page(s)

 

207                                         01.  Compare and contrast the various ways in which the body metabolizes carbohydrate, fat, and amino acids.

 

207                                         02.  List four of the liver’s functions in the metabolism of each of these nutrients: carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.

 

210-212                                 03.  What are the major differences between aerobic and anaerobic metabolism? Give an example of an aerobic reaction and an anaerobic reaction.

 

215-218                                 04.  Explain the roles of protein and fat as nutrients for gluconeogenesis. What are the circumstances that favor low and high rates of gluconeogenesis?

 

220-221                                 06.  How does the electron transport chain function in the synthesis of ATP?

 

222-225                                 07.  Describe interactions among the energy nutrients when each is consumed in excess.

 

226-227                                 08.  Discuss ways in which the body’s metabolism adapts to conditions of fasting/starvation. How do these adaptations affect the rate of weight loss when a person follows a low-kcalorie diet?

 

226-227                                 09.  What is ketosis and how can it be identified? What conditions typically induce a state of ketosis? What are the adverse effects of this condition?

 

227-228                                 10.  How does the body respond to a low-carbohydrate diet?

 

232                                         11.  Compare and contrast the metabolism of alcohol in men versus women.

 

232-234                                 12.  Describe the two major pathways for metabolism of alcohol in the liver. How does the liver adapt when forced to metabolize high quantities of alcohol on a daily basis?

 

235-237                                 13.  Discuss ways in which alcohol interferes with metabolism of proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals, and water.

 

236                                         14.  Describe the effects of excess alcohol intake on folate utilization.

 

238                                         15.  Describe specific effects of alcohol on each of the following organs: heart, kidney, and brain.

 

238                                         16.  List six common myths concerning alcohol use and discuss ways to dispel them.